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April 3, 2026
Show AI Summary
Advance tax estimate dispute through Form 152 lets an assessee submit reasons and a revised income estimate.
Form 152 is used to intimate the Assessing Officer under section 407(8) where an assessee considers the estimate of income or advance tax in a notice of demand under section 289, issued pursuant to an order under section 407(2) or section 407(5), to be excessive. The assessee may state the reasons for disputing the estimate and furnish a revised estimate of income subject to advance tax for the relevant tax year. The form includes the demand reference, reasons for dispute, revised head-wise income estimate, computation of advance tax payable, and verification, together with supporting documents where required.
April 3, 2026
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Advance tax estimate disputes can be notified through Form 152 with reasons and a revised income estimate.
Form 152 is the statutory mechanism for intimating the Assessing Officer that a demand for advance tax is excessive and for furnishing a revised estimate of income subject to advance tax. It is optional and may be filed only by a person served with such notice who considers the Assessing Officer's estimate to be higher than the correct estimate for the relevant tax year. The form must be filed before the Assessing Officer who issued the demand and must specify the reasons for disputing the estimate along with a head-wise revised estimate of income.
April 3, 2026
Show AI Summary
Advance tax compliance through Form 151 notice of demand, setting estimated liability, instalments, and due dates for payment.
Form 151 is the prescribed notice of demand for requiring payment of advance tax under the Income-tax Act, 2025. It is issued by the Assessing Officer to an assessee liable to pay advance tax under section 407(2) or 407(5), based on available information regarding the assessee's income for the relevant tax year. The notice states the estimated advance tax liability and the instalments and due dates for payment, and is accompanied by a computation of advance tax payable under section 407.
April 3, 2026
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Advance tax notice under Form 151 sets out estimated income, instalments, and payment requirements for assessees.
Form 151 is the prescribed notice of demand for requiring payment of advance tax where an assessee is liable to pay advance tax on estimated income for the relevant tax year. It is issued by the assessing officer on the basis of the officer's computation of estimated income subject to advance tax and the advance tax payable, and it informs the assessee of the demand and the instalments and due dates for payment. The form must also set out the assessee's particulars, the statutory basis, the tax year, and the amount payable.
April 3, 2026
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Tax collection default certificate: Form 150 enables electronic proof that the collectee paid tax and the collector is not treated as in default.
Form No. 150 is the electronic accountant's certificate required where a collector has failed to collect tax at source, but the collectee has included the relevant income in the return and paid the tax due, so that the collector is not treated as an assessee in default under section 398(2). The form is furnished electronically through the prescribed online filing framework, supported by a Chartered Accountant's certification confirming inclusion of income in the collectee's return and proof of tax payment. The process uses TRACES and e-filing portal steps, with prescribed transaction details, supporting records, and digitally signed certification.
April 3, 2026
Show AI Summary
Tax at source default regularisation through Form No. 150 requires accountant certification and preserves interest liability.
Form No. 150 provides a mechanism for a collector who failed to collect tax at source to avoid being treated as an assessee in default where the collectee has filed a return, included the relevant amount in income, and paid the tax due. The form relies on an accountant's certificate in Annexure A and applies to both resident and non-resident collectees. Filing begins on the TRACES website and is processed through the e-filing portal, while interest remains payable for the period from the date tax was collectible until the collectee files the return.
April 3, 2026
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Assessee-in-default relief through accountant certification when the payee has disclosed income and paid tax.
Form No. 149 is the accountant's certificate used where tax was not deducted or was deducted short, but the payee has reported the income and paid the tax. It is filed electronically by the deductor through TRACES with Chartered Accountant certification to establish that the deductor is not treated as an assessee-in-default under section 398(2), though interest may still apply until the deductee pays the tax.
April 3, 2026
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Tax deduction default relief through Form 149 allows deductors to regularise failure to deduct tax once deductee tax payment is verified.
Form No. 149 provides a mechanism for a deductor to regularise failure to deduct tax at source where the deductee has already filed a return and paid the tax due. The Accountant's certificate in Annexure A confirms that the deductee filed the return, included the relevant income, and paid the tax. The form may be filed for resident or non-resident deductees, and if accepted the deductor is not treated as an assessee in default, though interest remains payable until the deductee files the return. Filing is initiated through TRACES and the e-filing portal.
April 3, 2026
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Quarterly remittance reporting by IFSC units requires Form 148 filing for cross-border payments and e-verification.
Form No. 148 requires every IFSC unit making remittance to a non-resident other than a company or to a foreign company to file a quarterly statement through the e-Filing portal, whether the remittance is taxable or not. The form consolidates remittance reporting, prescribes quarterly due dates, and sets out unit details and remittance particulars to be furnished and verified online. Non-compliance within the due date may attract a penalty of up to Rs. 1 lakh, while remittances not chargeable to tax continue to be reported in Form No. 148 instead of Part D of Form No. 145.
April 3, 2026
Show AI Summary
Mandatory quarterly remittance reporting by IFSC units requires online filing, DSC verification, and timely compliance.
Form No. 148 is a mandatory quarterly statement for IFSC units making remittances to a non-resident other than a company or to a foreign company. It must be filed online through the e-Filing portal, e-verified by DSC, and furnished by the 15th day of the month following each quarter. The form requires remittee and remittance details, cannot be modified after submission, and non-filing or late filing may attract a penalty of up to Rs. 1 lakh.
April 3, 2026
Show AI Summary
Foreign remittance reporting requires quarterly Form No. 147 filing with linked Form No. 145 details and digital verification.
Form No. 147 requires authorised dealers to furnish a quarterly statement of remittances to non-residents and foreign companies through the e-Filing portal. Filing is due each quarter after obtaining ITDREIN and mapping an authorised person, with Part A covering dealer particulars and Part B covering remitter, remittee and remittance details, including Form No. 145 acknowledgement particulars where applicable. Non-filing within time attracts penalty, and the form is integrated with the Department's risk profiling and verification system.
April 3, 2026
Show AI Summary
Authorised dealer reporting for cross-border remittances requires mandatory quarterly Form No. 147 filing and electronic verification.
Form No. 147 is a mandatory quarterly statement filed by an Authorised Dealer for remittances to a non-resident, other than a company, or to a foreign company. It must be filed only through the e-Filing portal, after generation of ITDREIN and mapping of an authorised person with a valid Digital Signature Certificate for e-verification. The form is due quarterly by the 15th of the month following each quarter and is supported by Form No. 145 details. Late filing may attract penalty.
April 3, 2026
Show AI Summary
Accountant's certificate for foreign remittances requires chargeability review, treaty relief analysis, and e-verification before payment is made.
Form No. 146 is the accountant's certificate for specified foreign remittances to a non-resident other than a company or to a foreign company where the payment or aggregate payments exceed the prescribed threshold and no Assessing Officer certificate has been obtained. It requires the Chartered Accountant to certify chargeability under domestic income-tax provisions and applicable DTAA relief, with supporting details on remitter, remittee, remittance, tax deduction, and verification. The form is filed through the e-filing system, e-verified using DSC, may be withdrawn within seven days, and inaccurate certification exposes the accountant to penalty.
April 3, 2026
Show AI Summary
Accountant's certificate for foreign remittances governs taxability checks, digital filing, withdrawal limits, and one-time consumption for Part C.
Form No. 146 is the accountant's certificate required for filing Part C of Form No. 145 where a remittance is chargeable to tax and exceeds the prescribed threshold during the tax year. It is certified by a registered Chartered Accountant with a Digital Signature Certificate and assignment of Form No. 145, Part C, and it examines chargeability under the Income-tax Act and any applicable Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement. The form is filed online or through the offline utility, verified by Digital Signature Certificate, and may be withdrawn within seven days subject to the linked filing status.
April 3, 2026
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Pre-remittance declaration for foreign payments streamlines TDS compliance, verification, and risk profiling under the income-tax framework.
Form No. 145 is the mandatory pre-remittance declaration for payments to a non-resident not being a company or to a foreign company, intended to capture foreign remittances chargeable to tax in India and support TDS compliance, departmental verification, and risk profiling. It is an event-based form required before remittance, subject to specified exceptions, and is structured into four parts depending on whether the remittance is chargeable to tax, exceeds the prescribed threshold, or is supported by an Assessing Officer certificate, an accountant's certificate in Form No. 146, or no taxability. The guidance also covers filing methods, supporting documents, e-verification, withdrawal, penalties for non-compliance, and recent field-level changes for electronic reconciliation.
April 3, 2026
Show AI Summary
Mandatory foreign remittance declaration governs payments to non-residents, with exemptions, verification rules, and penalty exposure for non-compliance.
Mandatory declaration is required before remitting funds outside India to a non-resident, other than a company, or to a foreign company. The form is filed by the person responsible for the payment, subject to specified exemptions, and must be furnished before the remittance is made. The filing structure depends on whether the remittance is chargeable to tax, the applicable threshold during the tax year, and whether an Assessing Officer certificate or an Accountant's certificate has been obtained. Supporting documents, e-verification, withdrawal rights, and penalty consequences are also specified.
April 3, 2026
Show AI Summary
Tax deducted at source on non-resident payments is reported through Form 144 with quarterly deductee-wise compliance requirements.
Quarterly statement in Form No. 144 is the prescribed TDS return for reporting tax deducted at source on payments other than salary made to non-resident persons, including non-resident Indians and foreign companies. The form covers interest, royalty, technical fees, dividends, and similar cross-border remittances, and is filed by deductors for the relevant tax year. It contains deductor particulars, tax paid details, and a deductee-wise annexure, and requires challans, PAN details, and treaty documents where benefits are claimed.
April 2, 2026
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Egg brand initiative to boost poultry farming, strengthen local production and support rural entrepreneurship in Maharashtra.
Maharashtra is planning to develop a state-specific egg brand and expand poultry farming to strengthen local egg production, reduce dependence on imports from southern states and improve supply chain stability. The initiative is linked to rural entrepreneurship and allied agricultural activity, with the aim of creating a stable market for poultry farmers, improving quality assurance and increasing incomes in rural areas. Financial assistance is being provided under the Mukhyamantri Gramin Pashudhan Udyojakata Yojana for poultry units at two levels, with higher subsidy support for SC and ST beneficiaries.
April 2, 2026
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Parliamentary legislative reform advanced across insolvency, service law, decriminalisation, and transgender rights during the extended Budget session.
Parliament's extended Budget session focused on key legislative measures covering financial business, service law reform, decriminalisation, insolvency reform, state reorganisation, and transgender rights. Bills reported as passed or considered included measures on Central Armed Police Forces, Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation, transgender persons' protection, Jan Vishwas amendments, and the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, with some bills referred for further scrutiny and one proposed amendment on foreign contribution not taken up.
April 2, 2026
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GST revenue growth and tax administration reforms lifted Haryana's SGST collections and expanded the taxpayer base.
Haryana recorded 22 per cent growth in gross State GST revenue in FY26, with post-settlement SGST collections rising to Rs 48,289 crore and its national rank improving from ninth to sixth. The number of registered GST taxpayers increased to 6,30,818, while the growth was linked to GST rate rationalisation reforms and improved tax administration.

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Corp. Laws, SEBI & IBC

DISCUSSION PAPER ON PROPOSED AMENDMENTS TO THE IBBI (VOLUNTARY LIQUIDATION PROCESS) REGULATIONS, 2017 - INSOLVENCY AND BANKRUPTCY BOARD OF INDIA

April 21, 2026

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INSOLVENCY AND BANKRUPTCY BOARD OF INDIA

15th April, 2026

DISCUSSION PAPER ON PROPOSED AMENDMENTS TO THE IBBI (VOLUNTARY LIQUIDATION PROCESS) REGULATIONS, 2017

Background

Based on extensive deliberation and public consultations, proposals for amendments to the Code were finalized and the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (Amendment) Act, 2026 (Amendment Act) received the presidential assent on 06th April, 2026..

2. The Amendment Act contains several clauses proposing amendments to provisions of the Code, encompassing the corporate insolvency resolution process, liquidation process, voluntary liquidation process, pre-packaged insolvency resolution process, individual insolvency framework for personal guarantors to corporate debtors, creditor-initiated insolvency resolution process, information utilities, etc.

3. The Amendment Act reflects a clear legislative intent to strengthen the regulatory framework by expanding the scope of matters to be specified by the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (IBBI / Board) through regulations. The Amendment Act introduces both clarificatory amendments and substantive amendments. On examination of the Amendment Act, the Select Committee’s recommendations, the existing regulations were reviewed and amendments are proposed at various places.

4. The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (Voluntary Liquidation Process) Regulations, 2017 (hereinafter ‘the Regulations’) govern the voluntary liquidation of corporate persons under Chapter V of Part II of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 (hereinafter ‘the Code’). This Discussion Paper sets out the key proposed regulatory changes, their present position, the proposed modifications, and the rationale therefor in light of the Amendment Act.

Key Proposed Regulatory Changes

5. The proposed regulatory amendments address five broad areas: (A) claims management, (B) termination of voluntary liquidation proceedings, (C) decoupling of forms from the Regulations, (D) consequential alignments arising from the omission of sections 38–42. Same are summarised below with the present position and rationale. A draft of amendment regulations is placed at Annexure 1.

A. Claims Management – Admission/Rejection

Present Position: Regulation 29(1) permitted the liquidator to admit or reject claims ‘as per Section 40 of the Code’. It did not require a written communication of the admission/rejection decision to stakeholders within a defined timeframe. Regulation 29(2) allowed a creditor to ‘appeal to’ the Adjudicating Authority against the liquidator’s decision ‘as per Section 42 of the Code’.

Proposed Change: Regulation 29 is amended as follows —

  • The reference to ‘as per Section 40 of the Code’ is removed (Sections 38–42 being omitted by the Amendment Act), and a proviso is added requiring the liquidator to record in writing the reasons for rejection of any claim.
  • A new sub-regulation (2) is inserted requiring the liquidator to communicate the decision on admission or rejection to the stakeholder within seven days of the decision.
  • The word ‘appeal to’ is substituted with ‘approach’ in the provision governing a stakeholder’s recourse against the liquidator’s decision, and the reference to ‘section 42 of the Code’ is omitted.

Rationale: The omission of sections 38–42 by the Amendment Act necessitates removal of statutory references in the Regulations. The requirement for written reasons for rejection promotes transparency and accountability. The seven-day communication timeline provides certainty to claimants. The change from ‘appeal’ to ‘approach’ removes a reference to a specific appellate mechanism under the omitted Section 42, while preserving the stakeholder’s right to seek redress before the Adjudicating Authority.

B. Termination of Voluntary Liquidation Proceedings — New Regulation 42

Present Position: The Regulations had no mechanism for terminating a voluntary liquidation proceeding once commenced, prior to dissolution. A corporate person once entering voluntary liquidation had no regulatory pathway to exit the process even where circumstances changed (e.g., emergence of a business opportunity rendering continuation of liquidation commercially unwarranted).

Proposed Change: A new Regulation 42 is inserted, operationalising the new sub-sections (5A), (5B), and (5C) of Section 59, as follows —

  • Sub-regulation (1): The special resolution for termination must specifically provide for — (a) rationale for termination; (b) treatment of liquidation costs; and (c) a declaration that the termination will not prejudicially affect the interest of any stakeholder.
  • Sub-regulation (2): The liquidator is required to intimate the Adjudicating Authority with a report (in such form as notified through circular), confirming — (a) due process has been followed; and (b) the termination is not initiated to defraud any person and that the corporate person is solvent.
  • Sub-regulation (3): The liquidator must, within seven days of the special resolution (or creditor approval where applicable), intimate both the Board and the Registrar of Companies, along with the report under sub-regulation (2).
  • Sub-regulation (4): Upon termination under Section 59(5C), the liquidator’s appointment and term stand terminated; the liquidator ceases to exercise any powers or functions under the Regulations; and no further action is to be taken under the Regulations in respect of the voluntary liquidation proceedings.
  • New Form J is introduced regarding termination of VL Proceedings which is annexed to this Discussion Paper (Annexure 2).

Rationale: The Amendment Act introduces a new exit mechanism for voluntary liquidation proceedings to address situations where continuing the process is no longer commercially or legally appropriate. Regulation 42 provides the procedural framework for this mechanism, ensuring safeguards against misuse (solvency declaration, non-fraud declaration, creditor protection, Adjudicating Authority intimation), prescribing timelines consistent with the statute (seven days for intimation), and defining the legal consequences of termination (cessation of the liquidator’s role and powers). The requirement to notify the Adjudicating Authority — though not explicitly mandated by the statute — serves as an oversight mechanism consistent with the Board’s regulatory objectives.

C. Decoupling of Forms from the Regulations — Migration to Circular

Present Position: Six forms (Forms A through F of Schedule I) are prescribed within the Regulations themselves, requiring a formal amendment to the Regulations for any modification to the forms.

Proposed Change: References to Forms A to F of Schedule I in Regulations 14(1), 16(1), 17(1), 18(1), 18(2), and 19(1) are substituted with ‘such form as notified by the Board through circular’. Similarly, Form H (Regulation 38(3)) and Forms G and I (Regulation 39) are also migrated to circular notification. Schedule I is substituted with a revised Schedule I containing only the accounting registers and books (Cash Book, General Ledger, Bank Ledger, etc.), which are of a more permanent nature.

No change is suggested in the content of the present Forms except consequential changes (placed at Annexure 3).

Rationale: Migrating forms to circulars —

  • Enable faster, more responsive updates to forms;
  • allows forms to evolve with technology and operational practice without triggering a formal amendment process; and
  • is consistent with a broader regulatory policy of retaining only essential structural provisions in parent Regulations while delegating operational details to subordinate instruments.

D. Consequential Amendments arising from Omission of sections 38–42

The Amendment Act omits sections 38 to 42 of the Code, which had governed consolidation, verification, admission/rejection and determination of value of claims during the liquidation process.

These provisions applied to voluntary liquidation by virtue of section 59(6). Consequentially:

  • Regulation 29(1): Reference to ‘as per section 40 of the Code’ is removed. The liquidator’s power to admit or reject claims is now provided in the Regulations themselves.
  • Regulation 29(3): Reference to ‘as per section 42 of the Code’ (appeal against liquidator’s decision on claims) is omitted. The recourse is reformulated as the right to ‘approach’ the Adjudicating Authority, preserving the substantive right while removing the defunct reference.
  • Regulation 12 —The marginal heading of Regulation 12 is changed from ‘Consultation with stakeholders’ to ‘Assistance by stakeholders’, and the words ‘consulted under section 35(2)’ are omitted in line with the amendments proposed in the Amendment Act.

6. Public comments: The Board accordingly solicits comments on the proposals discussed above and the draft regulations proposed above. After considering the comments, the Board proposes to make regulations under clauses (aa) and (t) of sub-section (1) of section 196 read with section 240 of the Code.

The process for submission of comments is provided at Page 18.

7. The last date for submission of comments is 28th April, 2026.

Annexure 1

Draft Gazette Notification — IBBI (Voluntary Liquidation Process) (Second Amendment) Regulations, 2026

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Acts Income Tax