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April 3, 2026
Show AI Summary
Immunity from penalty and prosecution through Form 161 depends on full payment, no appeal, and timely electronic filing.
Form 161 is the prescribed application under the Income-tax Act, 2025 for immunity from penalty and prosecution where an assessee accepts an assessment or reassessment order, pays the full tax and interest demand within the prescribed time, and does not file an appeal. The application is event-based and must be filed within one month from the end of the month in which the order is received. It requires structured taxpayer identity details, order and payment particulars, and a statutory verification, and is filed electronically with supporting assessment, demand, payment, and PAN documents.
April 3, 2026
Show AI Summary
Immunity from penalty and prosecution through Form 161 requires full payment, no appeal, and online filing.
Form 161 is the prescribed application under section 440(2) of the Income-tax Act, 2025 for seeking immunity from penalty and prosecution after an assessment or reassessment order. It is optional and event-based, must be filed within one month from the end of the month of receipt of the order, and is available only where the taxpayer has paid the full tax and interest demand and has not filed any appeal. The form requires order details, demand details, proof of payment, and PAN, and can be submitted only online through the e-Filing portal.
April 3, 2026
Show AI Summary
Refund of wrongly deducted tax through Form 160 requires full transaction details, supporting documents, and timely filing.
Refund of tax deducted at source and deposited to the Central Government is available through Form 160 where tax was not required to be deducted on the relevant income or transaction. The form is filed by the deductor before the Assessing Officer having jurisdiction, within thirty days from payment of tax, and must contain transaction details, deductee details, agreement particulars, and proof of the tax deducted and deposited. Supporting documents and verification enable examination of whether the refund claim is admissible.
April 3, 2026
Show AI Summary
Refund of wrongly deducted tax through Form 160 requires proof that no tax was deductible and full TDS disclosure.
Refund of tax deducted at source and paid to the Central Government may be sought through Form 160 where the deductor contends that no tax was deductible on the relevant income or transaction. The form is the prescribed application under the Income-tax law and is to be used only in cases where tax was actually deducted and deposited, but the applicant later claims that the deduction was not required under the Act. It is filed before the TDS Assessing Officer having jurisdiction over the applicant, and the application is supported by the statutory particulars needed to test the claim of non-deductibility.
April 3, 2026
Show AI Summary
Tax Clearance Certificate Form 159 governs clearance for persons leaving India and requires Assessing Officer issuance on Form 158.
Tax Clearance Certificate in Form 159 is issued by the Assessing Officer in response to Form 158 and is prescribed under section 420(5) of the Income-tax Act, 2025 read with Rule 228 of the Income-tax Rules, 2026. The form records the departing person's identity details and travel-linked validity, is issued through ITBA functionality, and has no statutory timeline for issue. Form 158 is the supporting application, and the note states that the taxpayer cannot leave India without the requisite clearance certificate.
April 3, 2026
Show AI Summary
Tax Clearance Certificate governs departure-related compliance and is issued by the Assessing Officer on a Form 158 application.
Form 159 is the Tax Clearance Certificate issued by the Assessing Officer in response to Form 158. It is not filed by the taxpayer, but is issued to the specified taxpayer through the ITBA functionality, subject to the requirements of the Income-tax Act, 2025. No statutory time limit is prescribed for issuance, and the certificate is event-based, depending on the travel requirements of the person leaving India.
April 3, 2026
Show AI Summary
Tax clearance certificate requirements for persons leaving India are set out through electronic filing of Form 158.
Form 158 is the application for a Tax Clearance Certificate required from a person directed by the Assessing Officer to obtain clearance before leaving India. It is filed each time the requirement applies, captures travel, identification, business, and passport details, and must be supported by documents such as passport or emergency certificate, PAN, and travel booking records. The form is filed electronically through the income-tax portal and digitally signed; on processing, Form 159 is issued as the Tax Clearance Certificate.
April 3, 2026
Show AI Summary
Tax Clearance Certificate filing under Form 158 requires mandatory electronic submission before leaving India.
Form 158 is the mandatory electronic application for a Tax Clearance Certificate for domiciled persons required to obtain clearance before leaving India under the Income-tax Act, 2025. It must be filed each time the person leaves India, through the e-filing portal only. PAN is mandatory, while Aadhaar is not required. Supporting documents include passport or emergency certificate details and travel booking documents. The form cannot be edited after submission, and verification may be completed through prescribed electronic modes.
April 3, 2026
Show AI Summary
Foreign departure undertaking for persons without PAN or taxable income is proposed as a manual compliance form.
Form 157 is a manual undertaking to be furnished by persons domiciled in India leaving India at the time of departure under section 420(4) of the Income-tax Act, 2025 and Rule 228 of the Income-tax Rules, 2026. It applies only to persons without PAN or without income chargeable to tax. The form requires identity and passport details, an undertaking regarding PAN or taxable income status, and particulars of the foreign visit, supported by passport documents or an emergency certificate where no passport is available.
April 3, 2026
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Form 157 certificate filing rules for domiciled persons leaving India without PAN or taxable income
Form 157 is a proposed new income-tax certificate form for persons domiciled in India leaving India who do not have PAN, do not have income chargeable to tax in India, or are not required to obtain PAN. It is mandatory subject to notified exceptions, must be filed each time the person leaves India, and is to be submitted manually before the jurisdictional Assessing Officer with the prescribed identity documents. The form does not require proof of tax payment, Aadhaar is no longer required in the personal details, and corrections may be made before submission or later through the Assessing Officer.
April 3, 2026
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Form 156 filing requirement for Indian residents leaving India is being split into declaration and undertaking formats.
Persons domiciled in India leaving India must furnish Form 156 at the time of departure as an undertaking under section 420(3) of the Income-tax Act, 2025 read with rule 228 of the Income-tax Rules, 2026, subject to notified exceptions. The form is to be filed electronically through the Income-tax Department e-filing portal and requires personal particulars, travel purpose, duration of stay abroad, passport details, and supporting documents such as passport and PAN, or an emergency certificate where no passport is available. The form structure is being rationalised by splitting the existing manual form into Form 156 and Form 157.
April 3, 2026
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Departure undertaking requirement governs Form 156 filing, with PAN-based e-filing and limited verification options for domiciled persons leaving India.
Form 156 is an undertaking to be furnished by persons domiciled in India leaving India at the time of departure, subject to notified exceptions. It applies only where the person has a valid PAN and income chargeable to tax in India, and is filed each time the person leaves India. The form cannot be edited after submission and acknowledgement. Filing is electronic through the income tax e-filing portal, with verification by electronic verification code or digital signature certificate, and requires passport or emergency certificate details, without proof of tax payment or Aadhaar.
April 3, 2026
Show AI Summary
No objection certificate for departing persons not domiciled in India issued as tax clearance through departmental process.
Form 155 is the no objection certificate and tax clearance certificate issued by the Assessing Officer to a person not domiciled in India under section 420(1) of the Income-tax Act, 2025, read with Rule 228 of the Income-tax Rules, 2026. It is issued in response to Form 154 filed by a person leaving India, records identity and travel details, and states the validity period of the certificate. The certificate is issued through the departmental ITBA functionality and may need to be shown to Customs or Immigration Officers if required.
April 3, 2026
Show AI Summary
Tax Clearance Certificate for non-domiciled persons is issued on Form 154 applications and may be required for immigration checks.
Form 155 is a Tax Clearance Certificate issued by the prescribed authority in response to Form 154 for a person not domiciled in India. It is not filed by the taxpayer, is issued subject to the conditions in the Act through the ITBA system, and has no prescribed statutory timeline. The certificate is event-based, depends on travel requirements, and may be produced before immigration officers if asked.
April 3, 2026
Show AI Summary
Undertaking for tax clearance on departure from India requires employer or other signatory support and manual filing.
Form 154 is an undertaking required from an employer or other person when a person not domiciled in India is leaving India. It is filed manually under section 420(1) and Rule 228, and is supported by passport or Emergency Certificate details. The form is generally attached to a request for a Tax Clearance Certificate, and processing results in issuance of Form 155.
April 3, 2026
Show AI Summary
Form 154 undertaking governs tax clearance for non-domiciled persons leaving India with India-sourced income.
Form 154 is the prescribed undertaking for a non-domiciled person leaving India with India-sourced income in connection with business, profession or employment. It is signed by the employer or other person concerned, filed offline before the prescribed authority, and is required each time such person departs India. The form supports issuance of a tax clearance certificate, requires a valid PAN, and is accompanied by a passport or emergency certificate, while Aadhaar is not required and proof of tax payment is optional.
April 3, 2026
Show AI Summary
Tax recovery notice and certificate require payment within 15 days before recovery proceedings can begin.
Form 153 is the statutory Certificate and Notice of Demand issued by the Tax Recovery Officer for recovery of outstanding tax arrears under the Income-tax Act, 2025, read with the Income-tax Rules, 2026. It is an event-driven recovery instrument issued after default and a recovery certificate, may cover multiple tax years and multiple heads of arrears, and directs the taxpayer to pay within 15 days, failing which recovery proceedings may follow.
April 3, 2026
Show AI Summary
Tax recovery demand notice under Form 153 requires payment of arrears within 15 days before coercive recovery begins.
Form 153 is the statutory Certificate and Notice of Demand issued by the Tax Recovery Officer for unpaid tax arrears, including tax, interest, penalty, fine, or other sums. It requires payment within 15 days and may cover multiple tax years or multiple heads of arrears in one notice. If payment is not made, recovery proceedings may follow, including attachment or sale of property and other enforcement measures, with interest, costs, charges, and expenses also accruing.
April 3, 2026
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Advance tax estimate dispute through Form 152 lets an assessee submit reasons and a revised income estimate.
Form 152 is used to intimate the Assessing Officer under section 407(8) where an assessee considers the estimate of income or advance tax in a notice of demand under section 289, issued pursuant to an order under section 407(2) or section 407(5), to be excessive. The assessee may state the reasons for disputing the estimate and furnish a revised estimate of income subject to advance tax for the relevant tax year. The form includes the demand reference, reasons for dispute, revised head-wise income estimate, computation of advance tax payable, and verification, together with supporting documents where required.
April 3, 2026
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Advance tax estimate disputes can be notified through Form 152 with reasons and a revised income estimate.
Form 152 is the statutory mechanism for intimating the Assessing Officer that a demand for advance tax is excessive and for furnishing a revised estimate of income subject to advance tax. It is optional and may be filed only by a person served with such notice who considers the Assessing Officer's estimate to be higher than the correct estimate for the relevant tax year. The form must be filed before the Assessing Officer who issued the demand and must specify the reasons for disputing the estimate along with a head-wise revised estimate of income.

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Corp. Laws, SEBI & IBC

DISCUSSION PAPER ON PROPOSED AMENDMENTS TO THE IBBI (VOLUNTARY LIQUIDATION PROCESS) REGULATIONS, 2017 - INSOLVENCY AND BANKRUPTCY BOARD OF INDIA

April 21, 2026

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INSOLVENCY AND BANKRUPTCY BOARD OF INDIA

15th April, 2026

DISCUSSION PAPER ON PROPOSED AMENDMENTS TO THE IBBI (VOLUNTARY LIQUIDATION PROCESS) REGULATIONS, 2017

Background

Based on extensive deliberation and public consultations, proposals for amendments to the Code were finalized and the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (Amendment) Act, 2026 (Amendment Act) received the presidential assent on 06th April, 2026..

2. The Amendment Act contains several clauses proposing amendments to provisions of the Code, encompassing the corporate insolvency resolution process, liquidation process, voluntary liquidation process, pre-packaged insolvency resolution process, individual insolvency framework for personal guarantors to corporate debtors, creditor-initiated insolvency resolution process, information utilities, etc.

3. The Amendment Act reflects a clear legislative intent to strengthen the regulatory framework by expanding the scope of matters to be specified by the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (IBBI / Board) through regulations. The Amendment Act introduces both clarificatory amendments and substantive amendments. On examination of the Amendment Act, the Select Committee’s recommendations, the existing regulations were reviewed and amendments are proposed at various places.

4. The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (Voluntary Liquidation Process) Regulations, 2017 (hereinafter ‘the Regulations’) govern the voluntary liquidation of corporate persons under Chapter V of Part II of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 (hereinafter ‘the Code’). This Discussion Paper sets out the key proposed regulatory changes, their present position, the proposed modifications, and the rationale therefor in light of the Amendment Act.

Key Proposed Regulatory Changes

5. The proposed regulatory amendments address five broad areas: (A) claims management, (B) termination of voluntary liquidation proceedings, (C) decoupling of forms from the Regulations, (D) consequential alignments arising from the omission of sections 38–42. Same are summarised below with the present position and rationale. A draft of amendment regulations is placed at Annexure 1.

A. Claims Management – Admission/Rejection

Present Position: Regulation 29(1) permitted the liquidator to admit or reject claims ‘as per Section 40 of the Code’. It did not require a written communication of the admission/rejection decision to stakeholders within a defined timeframe. Regulation 29(2) allowed a creditor to ‘appeal to’ the Adjudicating Authority against the liquidator’s decision ‘as per Section 42 of the Code’.

Proposed Change: Regulation 29 is amended as follows —

  • The reference to ‘as per Section 40 of the Code’ is removed (Sections 38–42 being omitted by the Amendment Act), and a proviso is added requiring the liquidator to record in writing the reasons for rejection of any claim.
  • A new sub-regulation (2) is inserted requiring the liquidator to communicate the decision on admission or rejection to the stakeholder within seven days of the decision.
  • The word ‘appeal to’ is substituted with ‘approach’ in the provision governing a stakeholder’s recourse against the liquidator’s decision, and the reference to ‘section 42 of the Code’ is omitted.

Rationale: The omission of sections 38–42 by the Amendment Act necessitates removal of statutory references in the Regulations. The requirement for written reasons for rejection promotes transparency and accountability. The seven-day communication timeline provides certainty to claimants. The change from ‘appeal’ to ‘approach’ removes a reference to a specific appellate mechanism under the omitted Section 42, while preserving the stakeholder’s right to seek redress before the Adjudicating Authority.

B. Termination of Voluntary Liquidation Proceedings — New Regulation 42

Present Position: The Regulations had no mechanism for terminating a voluntary liquidation proceeding once commenced, prior to dissolution. A corporate person once entering voluntary liquidation had no regulatory pathway to exit the process even where circumstances changed (e.g., emergence of a business opportunity rendering continuation of liquidation commercially unwarranted).

Proposed Change: A new Regulation 42 is inserted, operationalising the new sub-sections (5A), (5B), and (5C) of Section 59, as follows —

  • Sub-regulation (1): The special resolution for termination must specifically provide for — (a) rationale for termination; (b) treatment of liquidation costs; and (c) a declaration that the termination will not prejudicially affect the interest of any stakeholder.
  • Sub-regulation (2): The liquidator is required to intimate the Adjudicating Authority with a report (in such form as notified through circular), confirming — (a) due process has been followed; and (b) the termination is not initiated to defraud any person and that the corporate person is solvent.
  • Sub-regulation (3): The liquidator must, within seven days of the special resolution (or creditor approval where applicable), intimate both the Board and the Registrar of Companies, along with the report under sub-regulation (2).
  • Sub-regulation (4): Upon termination under Section 59(5C), the liquidator’s appointment and term stand terminated; the liquidator ceases to exercise any powers or functions under the Regulations; and no further action is to be taken under the Regulations in respect of the voluntary liquidation proceedings.
  • New Form J is introduced regarding termination of VL Proceedings which is annexed to this Discussion Paper (Annexure 2).

Rationale: The Amendment Act introduces a new exit mechanism for voluntary liquidation proceedings to address situations where continuing the process is no longer commercially or legally appropriate. Regulation 42 provides the procedural framework for this mechanism, ensuring safeguards against misuse (solvency declaration, non-fraud declaration, creditor protection, Adjudicating Authority intimation), prescribing timelines consistent with the statute (seven days for intimation), and defining the legal consequences of termination (cessation of the liquidator’s role and powers). The requirement to notify the Adjudicating Authority — though not explicitly mandated by the statute — serves as an oversight mechanism consistent with the Board’s regulatory objectives.

C. Decoupling of Forms from the Regulations — Migration to Circular

Present Position: Six forms (Forms A through F of Schedule I) are prescribed within the Regulations themselves, requiring a formal amendment to the Regulations for any modification to the forms.

Proposed Change: References to Forms A to F of Schedule I in Regulations 14(1), 16(1), 17(1), 18(1), 18(2), and 19(1) are substituted with ‘such form as notified by the Board through circular’. Similarly, Form H (Regulation 38(3)) and Forms G and I (Regulation 39) are also migrated to circular notification. Schedule I is substituted with a revised Schedule I containing only the accounting registers and books (Cash Book, General Ledger, Bank Ledger, etc.), which are of a more permanent nature.

No change is suggested in the content of the present Forms except consequential changes (placed at Annexure 3).

Rationale: Migrating forms to circulars —

  • Enable faster, more responsive updates to forms;
  • allows forms to evolve with technology and operational practice without triggering a formal amendment process; and
  • is consistent with a broader regulatory policy of retaining only essential structural provisions in parent Regulations while delegating operational details to subordinate instruments.

D. Consequential Amendments arising from Omission of sections 38–42

The Amendment Act omits sections 38 to 42 of the Code, which had governed consolidation, verification, admission/rejection and determination of value of claims during the liquidation process.

These provisions applied to voluntary liquidation by virtue of section 59(6). Consequentially:

  • Regulation 29(1): Reference to ‘as per section 40 of the Code’ is removed. The liquidator’s power to admit or reject claims is now provided in the Regulations themselves.
  • Regulation 29(3): Reference to ‘as per section 42 of the Code’ (appeal against liquidator’s decision on claims) is omitted. The recourse is reformulated as the right to ‘approach’ the Adjudicating Authority, preserving the substantive right while removing the defunct reference.
  • Regulation 12 —The marginal heading of Regulation 12 is changed from ‘Consultation with stakeholders’ to ‘Assistance by stakeholders’, and the words ‘consulted under section 35(2)’ are omitted in line with the amendments proposed in the Amendment Act.

6. Public comments: The Board accordingly solicits comments on the proposals discussed above and the draft regulations proposed above. After considering the comments, the Board proposes to make regulations under clauses (aa) and (t) of sub-section (1) of section 196 read with section 240 of the Code.

The process for submission of comments is provided at Page 18.

7. The last date for submission of comments is 28th April, 2026.

Annexure 1

Draft Gazette Notification — IBBI (Voluntary Liquidation Process) (Second Amendment) Regulations, 2026

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Acts Income Tax