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April 4, 2026
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Approval for issue of eligible capital under Schedule XV depends on Form 189 details, disclosures, and supporting documents.
Form 189 is the application for approval of issue of public companies under Schedule XV(1)(z)(i) of the Income-tax Act, 2025, and is filed by the public company three months before the issue of eligible capital. The form requires company particulars, management details, bankers and auditors, issue details, project details, and supporting documents such as incorporation certificate, audited financial statements, equity details, SEBI approval and any project report. Processed Form 189 leads to approval for issue of eligible capital on the basis of the details furnished.
April 4, 2026
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Public company issue approval through Form 189 governs eligible capital issues and related deduction eligibility.
Form 189 is the prescribed application for approval of issue of public companies under Schedule XV(1)(z)(i) of the Income-tax Act, 2025. It is filed by the public company with supporting documents before the issue of eligible capital, and the approval is granted on the basis of the details furnished in the form. Individual contributions to the issue are stated to qualify for deduction under the Act.
April 4, 2026
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Consolidated approval form standardises gratuity and superannuation fund compliance, replacing rule-based particulars with structured filing.
Introduction of consolidated Form 188 standardises the approval process for Gratuity Fund and Superannuation Fund applications under Part B of Schedule XI by replacing the earlier text-based particulars in Rule 95 and Rule 109. The form is filed by trustees or an authorised person only for initial approval, and it requires details of the employer, the fund, eligible employees, account maintenance, fund status, trustee verification, and supporting documents such as the trust deed, fund rules, and accounts where applicable.
April 4, 2026
Show AI Summary
Approval mechanism for gratuity and superannuation funds is standardised through Form 188 with structured compliance requirements.
Form 188 provides a standardised application mechanism for approval of Gratuity Funds and Superannuation Funds, replacing earlier rule-based procedural requirements. It is filed once by the trustees or an authorised person, with prescribed particulars and supporting documents such as the trust deed, fund rules, accounts, and balance sheet where applicable. The application is examined by the jurisdictional authority, which may seek clarifications and then grant approval, issue deficiency notice, or reject the application.
April 4, 2026
Show AI Summary
Appeal against fund recognition refusal uses Form 187, with supporting documents and filing within 60 days.
Appeal against refusal to recognise or withdrawal of recognition from a recognised provident fund, and refusal to approve or withdrawal of approval from a superannuation fund or gratuity fund, is filed in Form 187 by the employer, trustee, or authorised representative within 60 days of communication of the order. The form requires appellant particulars, fund details, grounds of appeal, verification, and supporting documents such as the impugned order, original application, proof of filing, authorisation, and fee challan.
April 4, 2026
Show AI Summary
Appeals for provident, superannuation and gratuity funds require Form 187, supporting documents and filing within 60 days.
Form 187 prescribes the appellate mechanism under the Income-tax Act, 2025 for matters concerning recognised provident funds, superannuation funds and approved gratuity funds, including appeals against orders affecting recognition, approval, withdrawal, cancellation or refusal of such status. The form is to be used by trustees, employers or other authorised persons representing the fund where an adverse order has been passed by the competent income-tax authority. Appeals must be filed within 60 days from communication of the order, and filing does not by itself operate as a stay unless specifically granted.
April 4, 2026
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Customs enforcement along the India-Nepal border led to seizure of undocumented soft drinks and air conditioners.
Customs enforcement along the India-Nepal border led to seizure of soft drinks and air conditioners being moved without valid customs documents. A vehicle carrying 1,575 bottles of soft drinks was intercepted after the driver tried to flee, while two split air conditioners transported on bicycles were also recovered in a separate patrol operation. The goods, vehicle and bicycles were handed over to the Customs Department.
April 4, 2026
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Indian pharmaceutical exports show sustained growth as formulations, biologicals, vaccines and Ayush products drive resilience.
Indian pharmaceutical exports recorded sustained growth in FY26, reaching nearly USD 29 billion by the end of February and increasing over the corresponding period in the previous financial year. The export performance was led by formulations, biologicals, vaccines and Ayush products, and was described as resilient despite global challenges, pricing pressures and trade volatility. The sector's overall value was placed at about USD 60 billion, with projected expansion to USD 130 billion by 2030.
April 4, 2026
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Recognised Provident Fund recognition process requires trust deed compliance, supporting documents, scrutiny and ongoing investment and reporting obligations.
Application under Rule 40C seeks recognition of a provident fund so it qualifies as a Recognised Provident Fund for income-tax purposes. It applies to employers, trustees and existing funds seeking recognition on formation, conversion, amendment, merger or split. The form requires trust deed details, fund rules, investment policy, financial information and supporting documents, followed by scrutiny, possible revisions, issuance of recognition and ongoing compliance with investment, audit and reporting requirements.
April 4, 2026
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Recognised Provident Fund recognition through Form 186 depends on disclosure, supporting documents, and compliance with trust conditions.
Form 186 is the prescribed application for seeking recognition of a provident fund as a Recognised Provident Fund for income-tax purposes. It is filed by the employer, trustees, or an existing trust seeking recognition, and is ordinarily a one-time application subject to refiling or intimation for material changes in the trust deed or fund rules. The form requires detailed disclosures and supporting documents, and on approval the fund attains RPF status with tax treatment governed by applicable statutory limits and conditions. Recognition may later be withdrawn for non-compliance.
April 4, 2026
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Recognised provident fund accounting in Form 185 requires annual subscriber-wise records of contributions, interest, withdrawals, and balances.
Rule 294 requires recognised provident fund accounts to be prepared at intervals not exceeding twelve months, with a separate account maintained for each subscriber in Form 185. The form is maintained internally by the provident fund trust or authorised officers, and records subscriber particulars, opening balance, monthly contributions, interest, withdrawals or advances, closing balance, and verification. Part A is maintained separately for each subscriber, while Part B presents the same information in consolidated annual subscriber-wise form.
April 4, 2026
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Recognised Provident Fund recordkeeping requires Form 185 to track contributions, interest, withdrawals, and annual balances.
Form No. 185 is the prescribed accounting format for individual subscriber records under a Recognised Provident Fund, maintained by trustees or authorised officers under the Income-tax Rules. It records annual subscriber-wise particulars such as contributions, interest credited, withdrawals or advances, opening and closing balances, and verification details. Part-A is kept for each subscriber, while Part-B is the annual consolidated abstract filed with the Assessing Officer.
April 4, 2026
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Deduction audit report for petroleum and natural gas businesses requires deposit verification, withdrawal checks, and Chartered Accountant certification.
Form No. 183 is the prescribed audit report for claiming deduction under section 49 in the business of prospecting, extracting, or producing petroleum, natural gas, or both in India. It is furnished by a Chartered Accountant and verifies audit of the relevant books, timely deposit into the specified account, permitted use of withdrawals, disallowance of inadmissible expenditure, and transfer restrictions on assets acquired under the scheme. The form is filed annually before the return due date and requires supporting records of books, deposits, withdrawals, and asset transfers.
April 4, 2026
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Supply chain disruption hits Bikaner snack exports as conflict delays shipments and raises freight and input costs.
West Asia conflict has disrupted Bikaner exports and imports, causing delays in shipments of bhujia, papad, namkeen and spices to Gulf and European markets. Traders report longer transit routes, container shortages, higher freight charges, rising raw material and packaging costs, and consignments stuck at ports or in transit, affecting the city's export-driven economy.
April 4, 2026
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Audit report for petroleum and natural gas deduction claims requires certification, supporting records, and online filing compliance.
Form No. 183 is the prescribed audit report under Rule 291 read with Section 49 of the Income-tax Act, 2025 for an assessee engaged in the business of prospecting, extracting, or producing petroleum, natural gas, or both in India. It is mandatory where the deduction is claimed and must be certified by an Accountant. The form requires supporting books, financial statements, evidence of deposits and withdrawals from the specified account, and a computation showing that the deduction remains within the permissible limit.
April 4, 2026
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Deduction claim audit report for tea, coffee and rubber businesses requires Chartered Accountant certification and compliance with deposit rules.
Form No. 182 is a statutory audit report for assessees engaged in growing and manufacturing tea, coffee or rubber who claim deduction under section 48. It must be furnished by a Chartered Accountant annually before the return due date and certifies audit of books, timely deposit in the specified account or approved scheme, withdrawal utilisation, disallowable amounts, asset transfers, and the deduction permissible. The form is now a smart, tabulated e-form with mandatory professional identifiers and standardised fields for e-filing and validation.
April 4, 2026
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Tax deduction audit report rules require prescribed certification, verified deposits, and portal filing for tea, coffee and rubber businesses.
Form No. 182 is the prescribed audit report for assessees engaged in growing and manufacturing tea, coffee or rubber in India who claim deduction under section 48. It must be certified by an Accountant and furnished annually before the return due date. The report is mandatory for the deduction claim, supports verification of deposits, withdrawals, utilisation and deduction computation, and is completed through the e-filing portal with digital signing and assessee acceptance.
April 4, 2026
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Electoral trust audit reporting through Form 181 requires electronic disclosure of contributions, distributions, and administration expenses.
Form 181 is the annual audit report for electoral trusts, to be furnished electronically by an accountant through the e-filing portal before the return due date. It requires disclosure of voluntary contributions received and distributed, application for the benefit of persons or interested persons, and expenditure on administration or management of the trust. The form has been simplified and aligned with the Income-tax Act, 2025.
April 4, 2026
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Digital audit report requirements govern electoral trusts claiming exclusion of voluntary contributions from total income.
FN 181 is a mandatory digital audit report for an electoral trust seeking exclusion of reported voluntary contributions from total income. It must be prepared by an accountant, filed electronically with the Commissioner of Income Tax (CPC) through the e-filing portal, and submitted on or before the due date for filing the return of income. The form cannot be filed offline or edited after submission, and a valid PAN is mandatory for filing.
April 4, 2026
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Employee welfare fund approval under income tax rules depends on notified purposes, verified disclosure, and hearing before rejection.
Form 180 is the electronic application for approval or renewal of an employee welfare fund established for notified purposes under section 11(3) read with Schedule VII, to be filed by the trust or fund before the jurisdictional PCIT/CIT and verified by the trustee or principal officer. The form requires details of the trust or fund, employer organisation, objects, trustees, employee membership, contributions, income, application or accumulation of funds, along with the trust deed, activity notes and accounts. Approval is granted only if the prescribed conditions are satisfied, for a period not exceeding three tax years, and rejection requires recorded reasons and an opportunity of hearing.

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PMLA / Black Money

Delhi court takes cognisance of ED chargesheet against Robert Vadra in Haryana land deal case

April 15, 2026

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New Delhi, Apr 15 (PTI) A Delhi court on Wednesday took cognisance of an Enforcement Directorate chargesheet against businessman Robert Vadra and others in a money laundering case linked to a land deal in Haryana's Shikohpur.

The Enforcement Directorate (ED) filed the chargesheet against Vadra, husband of Congress MP Priyanka Gandhi Vadra, and 10 others last July.

It was the first time that any probe agency filed a chargesheet against 57-year-old Vadra in a criminal case. In April 2025, the ED had questioned Vadra for three consecutive days.

Special Judge Sushant Changotra said the chargesheet, and a prima facie broader scrutiny of the documents, disclosed sufficient material to proceed further against Vadra and eight other accused persons. “Accordingly, I take cognisance of the offences under Section 3 (money laundering) read with Section 70 (offences committed by companies) of the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, punishable under Section 4 of the Act…,” the judge said, summoning them on May 16.

The judge issued summonses to Vadra, Kewal Singh Virk, Sky Light Hospitality Pvt Ltd (now Skylight Hospitality LLP), Sky Light Realty Private Limited, Real Earth Estates Private Limited (now Real Earth Estates LLP) and Blue Breeze Trading Private Limited (now Blue Breeze Trading LLP).

The others who have been summoned included North India IT Parks Private Limited (now North India IT Parks LLP), Lambodar Art Enterprises India Private Limited (now Lambodar Art Enterprises India LLP) and SGY Properties Private Limited (earlier known as Onkareshwar Properties Private Limited).

Judge Changotra underlined that the parameters required for taking cognisance were different from those required at the stage of framing charges.

“This court has to be mindful of the fact that the scope of inquiry at this stage is very narrow and it is required to restrict itself to examination of the averments in the prosecution complaint and documents so annexed with it for satisfying itself that there are sufficient grounds for proceeding further with the case,” he said.

The court also said that one of the accused, Satyanand Yajee, could not be summoned as there was absolutely no material to proceed against him.

It said, “The prosecution has failed to show even an iota of material on record to prima facie show that accused No. 2, Satyanand Yajee, had indulged in any process or activity connected with proceeds of crime, including its concealment or possession or acquisition or use or projecting or claiming it as untainted property.” Regarding Artex, Vadra’s proprietary concern, the court said it was not a separate legal entity, and Vadra was fully liable for its alleged acts.

It also said the ED is expected to further probe the allegations against DLF Universal Pvt Ltd, one of the accused in the FIR of the predicate offence, to ensure complete justice in the case; in case overt acts or omissions were found, “the role of the persons responsible for such acts or omissions shall also be thoroughly investigated”.

The court also rejected the defence argument that it must defer the case till charge is framed in the predicate offence.

It said, “There is no legal embargo on the court for proceeding further with the prosecution complaint despite the fact that the chargesheet of the predicate offence has not been filed, and it is still under investigation.” The probe against Vadra is linked to a land deal at Manesar-Shikohpur (now Sector 83) in Haryana’s Gurugram district.

The deal was done in February 2008 by a company named Skylight Hospitality Pvt Ltd, where Vadra was a director earlier, under which it purchased a 3.5-acre land in Shikohpur from Onkareshwar Properties for Rs 7.5 crore.

At the time, Haryana was ruled by the Congress led by Bhupinder Singh Hooda.

Four years later, in September 2012, the company sold the land to realty major DLF for Rs 58 crore.

The deal got embroiled in controversy in October 2012 after IAS officer Ashok Khemka, then posted as director general of land consolidation and land records-cum-inspector-general of registration, cancelled the mutation after categorising the transaction as violative of the state consolidation act and some related procedures.

Vadra has been denying any wrongdoing, calling the case a "political vendetta" against him and his family, including former Congress president Sonia Gandhi and Leader of Opposition in Lok Sabha, Rahul Gandhi. PTI MNR ARI

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Acts Income Tax