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April 4, 2026
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Payroll compliance mistakes demand accurate classification, timely deductions, and automated statutory checks to prevent audits and penalties.
Payroll compliance requires accurate employee classification, timely tax deduction, and correct statutory contribution management to avoid audits, penalties, and employee disputes. Common errors include misclassifying employees and contract workers, which can cause missed PF, ESI and TDS obligations, and incorrect or delayed TDS computation arising from failed declarations, salary changes, or tax regime switches. The compliance approach relies on onboarding checks, real-time recalculation, and automated deposit scheduling to reduce errors before they enter the payroll cycle.
April 4, 2026
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Bribery allegations against a CGST officer trigger a CBI trap, arrest, and continuing investigation into corruption claims.
Bribery allegations led to a CBI trap and arrest of an Assistant Commissioner, CGST, Ratlam, after a private person or middleman allegedly demanded money for not initiating GST proceedings against the complainant's firm. The accused was caught red-handed while accepting a bribe through the middleman, with searches continuing at the accused's premises and investigation still in progress.
April 4, 2026
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Mutual fund approval process for subscribing to eligible public issues under the Income-tax Act framework clarified.
Approval is sought by a mutual fund to subscribe to an eligible issue of public companies under Schedule XV(1)(z)(ii) of the Income-tax Act, 2025, through Form 190. The form must be filed three months before the issue of eligible capital with the prescribed details and documents, including mutual fund and management particulars, scheme details, SEBI and custodian records, audited financial statements, and approval documents relating to the public company's share issue.
April 4, 2026
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Mutual fund approval for eligible public company issues depends on timely filing of Form 190.
A mutual fund must file Form 190 to seek approval for investment in the eligible issue of public companies under Schedule XV(1)(z)(ii) of the Income-tax Act, 2025. The form corresponds to the earlier Form 59A under the Income-tax Rules, 1962, and to the corresponding rule framework under the Income-tax Rules, 2026. The application is to be filed by the mutual fund itself, together with the documents specified in the form, three months before the issue of eligible capital. Approval for subscription is granted on the basis of the particulars furnished in Form 190.
April 4, 2026
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Approval for issue of eligible capital under Schedule XV depends on Form 189 details, disclosures, and supporting documents.
Form 189 is the application for approval of issue of public companies under Schedule XV(1)(z)(i) of the Income-tax Act, 2025, and is filed by the public company three months before the issue of eligible capital. The form requires company particulars, management details, bankers and auditors, issue details, project details, and supporting documents such as incorporation certificate, audited financial statements, equity details, SEBI approval and any project report. Processed Form 189 leads to approval for issue of eligible capital on the basis of the details furnished.
April 4, 2026
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Public company issue approval through Form 189 governs eligible capital issues and related deduction eligibility.
Form 189 is the prescribed application for approval of issue of public companies under Schedule XV(1)(z)(i) of the Income-tax Act, 2025. It is filed by the public company with supporting documents before the issue of eligible capital, and the approval is granted on the basis of the details furnished in the form. Individual contributions to the issue are stated to qualify for deduction under the Act.
April 4, 2026
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Consolidated approval form standardises gratuity and superannuation fund compliance, replacing rule-based particulars with structured filing.
Introduction of consolidated Form 188 standardises the approval process for Gratuity Fund and Superannuation Fund applications under Part B of Schedule XI by replacing the earlier text-based particulars in Rule 95 and Rule 109. The form is filed by trustees or an authorised person only for initial approval, and it requires details of the employer, the fund, eligible employees, account maintenance, fund status, trustee verification, and supporting documents such as the trust deed, fund rules, and accounts where applicable.
April 4, 2026
Show AI Summary
Approval mechanism for gratuity and superannuation funds is standardised through Form 188 with structured compliance requirements.
Form 188 provides a standardised application mechanism for approval of Gratuity Funds and Superannuation Funds, replacing earlier rule-based procedural requirements. It is filed once by the trustees or an authorised person, with prescribed particulars and supporting documents such as the trust deed, fund rules, accounts, and balance sheet where applicable. The application is examined by the jurisdictional authority, which may seek clarifications and then grant approval, issue deficiency notice, or reject the application.
April 4, 2026
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Appeal against fund recognition refusal uses Form 187, with supporting documents and filing within 60 days.
Appeal against refusal to recognise or withdrawal of recognition from a recognised provident fund, and refusal to approve or withdrawal of approval from a superannuation fund or gratuity fund, is filed in Form 187 by the employer, trustee, or authorised representative within 60 days of communication of the order. The form requires appellant particulars, fund details, grounds of appeal, verification, and supporting documents such as the impugned order, original application, proof of filing, authorisation, and fee challan.
April 4, 2026
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Appeals for provident, superannuation and gratuity funds require Form 187, supporting documents and filing within 60 days.
Form 187 prescribes the appellate mechanism under the Income-tax Act, 2025 for matters concerning recognised provident funds, superannuation funds and approved gratuity funds, including appeals against orders affecting recognition, approval, withdrawal, cancellation or refusal of such status. The form is to be used by trustees, employers or other authorised persons representing the fund where an adverse order has been passed by the competent income-tax authority. Appeals must be filed within 60 days from communication of the order, and filing does not by itself operate as a stay unless specifically granted.
April 4, 2026
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Customs enforcement along the India-Nepal border led to seizure of undocumented soft drinks and air conditioners.
Customs enforcement along the India-Nepal border led to seizure of soft drinks and air conditioners being moved without valid customs documents. A vehicle carrying 1,575 bottles of soft drinks was intercepted after the driver tried to flee, while two split air conditioners transported on bicycles were also recovered in a separate patrol operation. The goods, vehicle and bicycles were handed over to the Customs Department.
April 4, 2026
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Indian pharmaceutical exports show sustained growth as formulations, biologicals, vaccines and Ayush products drive resilience.
Indian pharmaceutical exports recorded sustained growth in FY26, reaching nearly USD 29 billion by the end of February and increasing over the corresponding period in the previous financial year. The export performance was led by formulations, biologicals, vaccines and Ayush products, and was described as resilient despite global challenges, pricing pressures and trade volatility. The sector's overall value was placed at about USD 60 billion, with projected expansion to USD 130 billion by 2030.
April 4, 2026
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Recognised Provident Fund recognition process requires trust deed compliance, supporting documents, scrutiny and ongoing investment and reporting obligations.
Application under Rule 40C seeks recognition of a provident fund so it qualifies as a Recognised Provident Fund for income-tax purposes. It applies to employers, trustees and existing funds seeking recognition on formation, conversion, amendment, merger or split. The form requires trust deed details, fund rules, investment policy, financial information and supporting documents, followed by scrutiny, possible revisions, issuance of recognition and ongoing compliance with investment, audit and reporting requirements.
April 4, 2026
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Recognised Provident Fund recognition through Form 186 depends on disclosure, supporting documents, and compliance with trust conditions.
Form 186 is the prescribed application for seeking recognition of a provident fund as a Recognised Provident Fund for income-tax purposes. It is filed by the employer, trustees, or an existing trust seeking recognition, and is ordinarily a one-time application subject to refiling or intimation for material changes in the trust deed or fund rules. The form requires detailed disclosures and supporting documents, and on approval the fund attains RPF status with tax treatment governed by applicable statutory limits and conditions. Recognition may later be withdrawn for non-compliance.
April 4, 2026
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Recognised provident fund accounting in Form 185 requires annual subscriber-wise records of contributions, interest, withdrawals, and balances.
Rule 294 requires recognised provident fund accounts to be prepared at intervals not exceeding twelve months, with a separate account maintained for each subscriber in Form 185. The form is maintained internally by the provident fund trust or authorised officers, and records subscriber particulars, opening balance, monthly contributions, interest, withdrawals or advances, closing balance, and verification. Part A is maintained separately for each subscriber, while Part B presents the same information in consolidated annual subscriber-wise form.
April 4, 2026
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Recognised Provident Fund recordkeeping requires Form 185 to track contributions, interest, withdrawals, and annual balances.
Form No. 185 is the prescribed accounting format for individual subscriber records under a Recognised Provident Fund, maintained by trustees or authorised officers under the Income-tax Rules. It records annual subscriber-wise particulars such as contributions, interest credited, withdrawals or advances, opening and closing balances, and verification details. Part-A is kept for each subscriber, while Part-B is the annual consolidated abstract filed with the Assessing Officer.
April 4, 2026
Show AI Summary
Deduction audit report for petroleum and natural gas businesses requires deposit verification, withdrawal checks, and Chartered Accountant certification.
Form No. 183 is the prescribed audit report for claiming deduction under section 49 in the business of prospecting, extracting, or producing petroleum, natural gas, or both in India. It is furnished by a Chartered Accountant and verifies audit of the relevant books, timely deposit into the specified account, permitted use of withdrawals, disallowance of inadmissible expenditure, and transfer restrictions on assets acquired under the scheme. The form is filed annually before the return due date and requires supporting records of books, deposits, withdrawals, and asset transfers.
April 4, 2026
Show AI Summary
Supply chain disruption hits Bikaner snack exports as conflict delays shipments and raises freight and input costs.
West Asia conflict has disrupted Bikaner exports and imports, causing delays in shipments of bhujia, papad, namkeen and spices to Gulf and European markets. Traders report longer transit routes, container shortages, higher freight charges, rising raw material and packaging costs, and consignments stuck at ports or in transit, affecting the city's export-driven economy.
April 4, 2026
Show AI Summary
Audit report for petroleum and natural gas deduction claims requires certification, supporting records, and online filing compliance.
Form No. 183 is the prescribed audit report under Rule 291 read with Section 49 of the Income-tax Act, 2025 for an assessee engaged in the business of prospecting, extracting, or producing petroleum, natural gas, or both in India. It is mandatory where the deduction is claimed and must be certified by an Accountant. The form requires supporting books, financial statements, evidence of deposits and withdrawals from the specified account, and a computation showing that the deduction remains within the permissible limit.
April 4, 2026
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Deduction claim audit report for tea, coffee and rubber businesses requires Chartered Accountant certification and compliance with deposit rules.
Form No. 182 is a statutory audit report for assessees engaged in growing and manufacturing tea, coffee or rubber who claim deduction under section 48. It must be furnished by a Chartered Accountant annually before the return due date and certifies audit of books, timely deposit in the specified account or approved scheme, withdrawal utilisation, disallowable amounts, asset transfers, and the deduction permissible. The form is now a smart, tabulated e-form with mandatory professional identifiers and standardised fields for e-filing and validation.

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OPPO F33: Everything to Know About the Most Feature-Rich F-Series Phone Yet

April 11, 2026

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Pune, Maharashtra, India (NewsVoir) OPPO, a leading global smartphone maker, recently announced that the latest models from its popular F-series – OPPO F33 5G and OPPO F33 Pro – will be launched on April 15th, 2026. The brand took to social media to share important updates, including the design and colour options of the two handsets. The F33 5G will be the base variant, and OPPO’s latest smartphones will continue the company’s tradition of offering exceptional front cameras, with a wide field of view.

Users planning an upgrade can own OPPO’s latest smartphones without shouldering the entire expense upfront. With Bajaj Finserv Easy EMIs, users can split the cost into instalments and make payments over a 1 to 60 month tenure. Buyers can go to the nearest partner store, choose the Easy EMI option, and enjoy benefits like zero down payment offers on select models, flexible repayment tenures, and instant approvals.

OPPO F33 5G - A solid mid-range option OPPO hasn’t revealed the full specifications list of the OPPO F33 5G. However, users can expect best-in-class features, including a premium rugged and trendy design. The smartphone is also likely to get the same IP69K dust and water resistance rating as the F33 Pro, making it an excellent everyday use option. Moreover, the F33 5G is tipped to house a massive 7,000 mAh cell that promises long hours of scrolling, binge-watching, and multitasking.

Expected specifications • Display: 6.57-inch Full HD+ AMOLED screen, 120 Hz refresh rate • Processor: MediaTek Dimensity 6360 Max • RAM: 8GB LPDDR4X • Storage: 128GB/256GB • Rear cameras: 50MP main + 2MP depth • Front camera: 16MP • Battery: 7,000 mAh with 80W fast charging • Operating system: ColorOS based on Android 16 • Protection/durability: IP69K dust and water resistance Design - Slim and trendy The OPPO F33 5G is expected to feature a slim body with a 6.57-inch flat display and an IP69K rating. Recent reports also point to a lighter build of around 194 grams, which should make the phone easier to carry and use for long periods.

Design highlights: • 6.57-inch flat form factor • IP69K dust and water resistance • Slim and relatively lightweight build Smooth 120 Hz AMOLED display The F33 5G is tipped to use a 6.57-inch Full HD+ AMOLED screen with a 120 Hz refresh rate, which makes scrolling feel smoother and improves motion clarity while streaming or gaming. The AMOLED panel offers better contrast and deeper blacks, which can make videos and app visuals look more refined.

Display highlights: • 6.57-inch Full HD+ AMOLED display • 120 Hz refresh rate • Smoother scrolling and animations MediaTek Dimensity 6360 Max processor for streamlined performance OPPO’s latest smartphone is expected to run on the MediaTek Dimensity 6360 Max chipset with 8GB LPDDR4X RAM and up to 256GB storage. Users can expect smooth, streamlined performance, with the company focusing on optimised hardware.

Performance highlights: • MediaTek Dimensity 6360 Max chip • 8GB LPDDR4X RAM • Up to 256GB internal storage Dual-rear camera setup for crisp shots The OPPO F33 is rumoured to feature a 50MP main camera paired with a 2MP depth sensor, while the front may use a 16MP camera. OPPO is known for its finely-tuned cameras, and the rear imaging system promises stunning portraits with incredible clarity and detail.

Camera highlights: • Rear: 50MP main + 2MP depth • Front: 16MP • Video recording: 4K @ 30 fps 7,000 mAh battery could be the biggest highlight One of the key highlights of the handset is tipped to be its battery pack, with reports suggesting a 7,000 mAh battery with 80W fast charging support. This means uninterrupted gaming, streaming, and binge-watching sessions for long hours, while the fast-charging support reduces downtime.

Battery highlights: • 7,000 mAh battery • 80W fast charging support OPPO F33 5G - Pricing and options While OPPO hasn’t revealed the price range for the OPPO F33 5G, leaks suggest that the base variant (8GB RAM + 128GB ROM) can cost around Rs. 23,999. Moreover, OPPO’s latest smartphones (F33 5G and F33 Pro 5G) are likely to be offered in three colour options: Misty Forest, Passion Red, and Starry Blue.

*Disclaimer: The prices, specifications, and colours are based on recent reports and leaks. Please wait for official updates from OPPO for accurate specifications and pricing.

Best deals and offers on OPPO smartphones If users wish to explore some other OPPO smartphone, Bajaj Finserv has launched a limited time zero downpayment offer for the following OPPO phones, that’s valid from 1st April to 30th April 2026.

• OPPO A6X – EMIs starting from Rs. 1,000/-, tenure up to 18 months + Save up to Rs. 5,000 OR get up to 30% off • OPPO Reno 15 series – EMIs starting from Rs. 1,917/-, tenure up to 24 months + Save up to Rs. 5,000 OR get up to 30% off *Disclaimer: EMIs may vary by location, partner store, and applicable offers. Please verify the latest pricing before purchase.

How to buy the OPPO F33 on Easy EMIs After the OPPO F33 5G becomes available in India, user can own the device by opting for Easy EMI plans. Buying from a Bajaj Finserv partner store helps user manage the cost better while keeping the purchase process simple. Here is how buyers can purchase the device after launch: 1. Visit the nearest Bajaj Finserv partner store.

2. Select the Galaxy Z Fold 8 variant of choice.

3. Check eligibility for Easy EMIs at checkout.

4. Choose a flexible tenure between 1 and 60 months.

5. Complete the purchase and take the new smartphone home.

Bajaj Finance Limited Bajaj Finance Ltd. (‘BFL’, ‘Bajaj Finance’, or ‘the Company’), a subsidiary of Bajaj Finserv Ltd., is a deposit taking Non-Banking Financial Company (NBFC-D) registered with the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and is classified as an NBFC-Investment and Credit Company (NBFC-ICC). BFL is engaged in the business of lending and acceptance of deposits. It has a diversified lending portfolio across retail, SMEs, and commercial customers with significant presence in both urban and rural India. It accepts public and corporate deposits and offers a variety of financial services products to its customers. BFL, a thirty-five-year-old enterprise, has now become a leading player in the NBFC sector in India and on a consolidated basis, it has a franchise of 69.14 million customers. BFL has the highest domestic credit rating of AAA/Stable for long-term borrowing, A1+ for short-term borrowing, and CRISIL AAA/Stable & [ICRA]AAA(Stable) for its FD program. It has a long-term issuer credit rating of BB+/Positive and a short-term rating of B by S&P Global ratings.

To know more, visit www.bajajfinserv.in.

(Disclaimer: The above press release comes to you under an arrangement with Newsvoir and PTI takes no editorial responsibility for the same.). PTI PWR PWR

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