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March 30, 2026
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Rupee volatility and RBI forex exposure cap reshape market sentiment amid geopolitical tensions and dollar strength.
Rupee volatility in foreign exchange markets intensified amid geopolitical tensions, risk-off sentiment, elevated dollar demand and firmer crude prices, with the currency touching an intra-day low before settling lower against the US dollar. The Reserve Bank of India reduced the net open position that banks may maintain overnight and capped the Net Open Position (NOP-INR) for banks at USD 100 million, with compliance required by 10 April, as part of oversight of banks' foreign exchange exposure.
March 30, 2026
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Quarterly reporting of non-resident client details through Form 092 requires online filing, declarations, and timely verification.
Quarterly reporting requirements apply to specified funds and stock brokers dealing with non-resident clients under Rule 157. Form 092 is the prescribed quarterly statement for furnishing non-resident client particulars, including name, contact details, country of residence, Tax Identification Number, and, where TIN is unavailable, the unique identification number issued by the foreign jurisdiction. The form must be filed online on the e-Filing portal within 15 days from the end of each quarter, and all non-resident clients dealt with during the quarter may be reported in the same return.
March 30, 2026
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Public interest refusal to furnish information under income-tax law now uses electronic Form 91 with DIN authentication.
Form 91 is the statutory electronic form used by the designated Income-tax authority to refuse furnishing information requested under section 258(2)(a) of the Income-tax Act, 2025 where disclosure is not considered to be in the public interest. It is issued only by the competent authority, records the application reference, assessee details and relevant tax year, and states the refusal on public interest grounds. The form is authenticated through a system-generated DIN and electronic issuance details, creating a formal and traceable record distinct from forms used for furnishing information or intimation of non-availability.
March 30, 2026
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Money laundering probe intensifies as Nepal widens scrutiny of former prime ministers and protests continue after arrests.
Protests continued in Nepal after the arrest of former Prime Minister K P Sharma Oli and former home minister Ramesh Lekhak in connection with the alleged suppression of the Gen Z protests, while the Department of Money Laundering Investigation and police intensified scrutiny of former prime ministers Sher Bahadur Deuba, K P Sharma Oli and Pushpa Kamal Dahal. The probe expanded after preliminary enquiries and the arrest of former minister Deepak Khadka in a money laundering case, with allegations of financial benefits for facilitating licences and contracts and forensic confirmation of burnt banknote fragments.
March 30, 2026
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Public interest refusal for tax information requests through Form 091 by the designated Income-tax authority.
Form 091 is the prescribed income-tax form used by the designated Income-tax authority to refuse furnishing information sought under section 258(2)(a) of the Income-tax Act, 2025, where disclosure is not considered to be in the public interest. It is issued only after an information request is received and declined, applies separately for each tax year, and is authenticated by the authority's signature, name, and designation without requiring an official seal.
March 30, 2026
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Insolvency code amendments tighten timelines, add creditor-initiated resolution, and curb frivolous delays in the process.
Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code amendments introduce stricter timelines, an out-of-court creditor-initiated resolution mechanism, and an enabling framework for group and cross-border insolvency. The revised framework replaces the underutilised fast-track route with a creditor-initiated insolvency process based on debtor-in-possession and creditor-in-control principles, subject to safeguards and defined timelines. The amendments also provide deterrent measures against abuse of process, including penalties for vexatious and frivolous proceedings, and seek to protect the integrity of the resolution system by discouraging delay-causing litigation.
March 30, 2026
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Non-availability of information intimation under Form 90 is issued electronically after record verification and DIN authentication.
Form 90 is the electronic intimation issued by the designated Income-tax authority under section 258(2)(a) of the Income-tax Act, 2025, where requested information is unavailable in departmental records or no assessment has been made for the relevant tax year. It is generated after verification of records, authenticated through the Department's system with DIN, and includes the application reference, assessee name, and mandatory tax year. The form is event-based, has no fixed periodicity or due date, and standardises the term tax year for clear and traceable communication.
March 30, 2026
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Non-availability of information intimation under income tax law through Form 090 communicates missing records, not rejection.
Form 090 is the prescribed intimation used by the designated Income-tax authority to communicate that information sought under section 258(2)(a) of the Income-tax Act, 2025 is not available in departmental records for the specified tax year. It is issued electronically after verification of records, is event-based, and must be furnished separately for each tax year. The form requires the exact tax year, recipient details, DIN and date, application reference, assessee name, and a statement confirming non-availability of information or that no assessment has been made.
March 30, 2026
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Electronic information disclosure under the Income-tax Act, 2025 uses Form 89 for structured, traceable furnishing or refusal.
Form 89 is the electronic statutory form used by the designated Income-tax authority to furnish permissible information in response to a valid application by an authorised public authority under section 258(2)(a) of the Income-tax Act, 2025, for a specified assessee and a single tax year. It is an event-based form, furnished through the Department's system with DIN and system-generated authentication, and is linked to the corresponding application in Form 88. The form contains assessee particulars in Part A and disclosure-limited information details in Part B, and it also allows recording of refusal, wholly or partly, where disclosure is not considered to be in the public interest.
March 30, 2026
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Taxpayer information disclosure under authorised application governs Form 089, with electronic furnishing and limited, confidential disclosure.
Form 089 is the statutory online form used by designated income-tax authorities to furnish taxpayer-related information in response to a valid application made by an authorised public authority under section 258(2)(a) of the Income-tax Act, 2025. It is tax-year specific, furnished electronically, and may be used only for information available in departmental records and within the permissible scope of disclosure. The authority may refuse disclosure for unauthorised, invalid, incomplete, or overbroad requests, and the reasons must be recorded electronically.
March 30, 2026
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Assessee information requests under the Income-tax Act now require online Form 88 filing by authorised public authorities only.
Form 88 is the prescribed application for obtaining information about an assessee under Section 258(2)(a) of the Income-tax Act, 2025. It is available only to authorised public authorities, including regulatory and law-enforcement agencies, government departments authorised under Rule 155, and other competent authorities empowered by the Central Government. A separate application is required for each assessee and each tax year; consolidated requests are not allowed. The form must be filed online through the e-Filing portal with electronic verification and supporting documents uploaded electronically.
March 30, 2026
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E-commerce duty moratorium ends unresolved as WTO members defer tariff and TRIPS safeguards talks.
The World Trade Organization meeting ended without consensus on extending the moratorium on customs duties on electronic transmissions, leaving the issue of tariffs on digital downloads and streaming unresolved. The lapse of the moratorium also coincided with the expiry of the TRIPS non-violation complaint safeguard, increasing the possibility of challenges to WTO-compliant measures and reducing policy space for developing countries. Related WTO reform and e-commerce work programme discussions were also deferred for continued negotiation in Geneva.
March 30, 2026
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Insolvency and bankruptcy reform drives banking health, with proposed changes aimed at faster admission of resolution applications.
The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code is described as a central mechanism for improving banking sector health through recovery of non-performing assets under the insolvency resolution process. The proposed amendment Bill seeks further changes to the framework, including measures to reduce the time taken for admission of insolvency resolution applications, while the resolution process is said to have coincided with better company performance and improved corporate governance.
March 30, 2026
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Taxpayer information requests under Form 088 require authorised filing, specific grounds, separate tax year submissions, and electronic portal authentication.
Form 088 is the online application used by authorised public authorities, regulatory bodies, law-enforcement agencies, and other competent authorities to seek specific taxpayer information under Section 258(2)(a) of the Income-tax Act, 2025. It must be filed separately for each taxpayer and each tax year through the e-Filing portal, with narrowly framed particulars, stated reasons, and supporting authorisation where necessary. Incomplete, overbroad, or unauthorised requests may be returned or rejected, and communications are issued electronically with portal-based status tracking.
March 30, 2026
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Tonnage Tax Scheme audit report filing requires accountant certification, supporting annexures, and electronic submission within the specified date.
Form No. 81 is prescribed for furnishing the audit report under section 232(21) for a company that has opted for taxation under the Tonnage Tax Scheme. The report, prepared and certified by an accountant, verifies books of account, computation of shipping income, compliance with charter-in limits, and other statutory conditions. It is to be furnished on or before the specified date and may include annexures such as charter arrangement certificates, related party notes, asset notes, and loss statements.
March 30, 2026
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Tonnage Tax Scheme reporting requires accountant certification, separate books, and detailed disclosure of shipping income and compliance.
Form 81 is an accountant's report for a company opting for the Tonnage Tax Scheme, certifying the correctness of books of account and income computation for qualifying ships. It requires separate books, disclosure of charter-in compliance, shipping income, statutory reserve details, ship-wise tonnage income, related party transactions, depreciation, non-exclusive assets, and losses, with mandatory annexures where applicable and reasons for any negative or qualified answers.
March 30, 2026
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Tonnage Tax Scheme option filing requires Form 80, supporting vessel documents, and electronic verification of eligibility.
Form No. 80 is the prescribed electronic application for an Indian company engaged in operating ships or inland vessels to exercise or renew the option to be governed by the Tonnage Tax Scheme. It requires particulars of the applicant, ships or inland vessels, supporting certificates and approvals, and is used to verify whether the statutory conditions for coverage under Chapter XII-G are satisfied.
March 30, 2026
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Tonnage tax scheme application rules govern Form 80 filing, renewal, verification, completeness, and false statement liability.
Form 80 is the mandatory application for an eligible Indian company engaged in the operation of ships or inland vessels to exercise or renew the option under the tonnage tax scheme. The form must be filed within the prescribed time, includes Part A for all cases and Part B only for renewal, and requires detailed ship-wise particulars with supporting annexures. It is filed with the jurisdictional Joint Commissioner and must be signed by the authorised signatory. Incomplete applications may be treated as invalid, and false statements in the form or annexures attract prosecution.
March 30, 2026
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Pass-through taxation reporting for investment funds through Form 79, with unit holder income disclosure and auto-generated statements.
Form 79 is the consolidated annual statement for Investment Funds to report income paid or credited to unit holders under the pass-through taxation framework. Eligible Category I or Category II AIFs, and comparable IFSCA-regulated funds subject to the stated conditions, must file it annually by 15 June with detailed fund-level income, loss, set-off, and unit holder-wise distribution particulars. The form requires verification by both an authorised person and a qualified accountant, and its filing triggers auto-generation of Form 78 statements for unit holders.
March 30, 2026
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Investment fund income distribution reporting requires Form 79 filing online with supporting records and prescribed timelines.
Form 79 is the statement of income paid or credited by an investment fund to persons liable to tax on such income, and it must be filed by the person responsible for making the payment or credit on behalf of the fund. The statement is to be submitted online through the Income Tax e-filing portal by 15 June of the financial year following the tax year, with supporting records including audited financial statements, unit holder details, income distribution data, loss set-off computations, and the relevant registration certificate.

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Corp. Laws / SEBI / IBC

Vedanta questions evaluation metrics behind selection of Adani's bid for JAL

April 10, 2026

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New Delhi, Apr 10 (PTI) Mining giant Vedanta Group on Friday questioned the evaluation metrics adopted by lenders of Jaiprakash Associates Ltd (JAL), which had selected the lower bid of Rs 3,400 crore from Adani Enterprises for the debt-ridden company.

During proceedings of the insolvency appellate tribunal National Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT), the counsel representing Vedanta Ltd said the "valuation in the process has been used to wipe out commercial wisdom" by the committee of creditors (CoC).

Pointing towards the evaluation matrix used by the CoC, senior advocate Abhijeet Sinha asked whether it was used "to achieve value maximisation or is it being used for some other purpose".

He submitted that the evaluation matrix, RFRP (request for resolution plan) and process note relied upon by the CoC are merely guiding tools and cannot override the core objective of the insolvency framework, which is maximisation of value.

Contending that Vedanta's bid was Rs 3,400 crore higher in gross value and Rs 500 crore in net present value (NPV) than the resolution plan submitted by the Adani Group, Sinha alleged that there was no discussion in the CoC meeting for going for a lower bid.

The CoC has appointed BTO India LLC to carry out feasibility and viability analysis of resolution plans received, which provided scoring to each of the five resolution plans as per the evaluation metrics, which does not reflect "sound exercise of commercial wisdom".

"In this, the max score is 35… out of 35, Adani gets 29.30, we get 18.51," Sinha said, adding, "Now, this is actually, we are told, the only factor which has made (the basis of the decision)... but that is also a scoring factor, which the CoC itself has also not done." For NPV, Vedanta has 35 out of 35. "The other factor where we are lower is equity, quasi-equity infusion for improving business operations within 180 days. We are 2.56 and 5," he said.

NCLAT was hearing petitions filed by Vedanta Ltd, which has challenged the selection of Adani Enterprises as the successful resolution applicant for JAL.

Vedanta's counsel argued that the CoC, after introducing a challenge process due to sub-optimal bids, approved the very plan it initially found inadequate, undermining the integrity of the process.

He alleged material irregularities and a lack of transparency in the conduct of the entire process, and argued that the design of the challenge mechanism itself was inherently unfair, as bidders were required to submit both upfront and deferred payment components but were only shown the highest NPV after each round.

Earlier on March 24, NCLAT declined any interim stay over the Vedanta Group's plea against the order passed by the NCLT approving Rs 14,535-crore bid by the Adani Group's bid for acquiring JAL.

However, it had also said the plan would be subject to the outcome of the appeals filed by the Anil Agarwal-led Vedanta Group.

This interim order by NCLAT was challenged before the Supreme Court, which also declined to grant a stay. However, the apex court had directed that if the monitoring committee planned to take any major policy decision, it should first obtain the Tribunal's sanction.

On March 17, the NCLT, Allahabad bench, approved Adani Enterprises Ltd's Rs 14,535-crore bid to acquire JAL through the insolvency process.

Adani Enterprises had outbid Vedanta and Dalmia Bharat to win the bid for JAL. Adani got the maximum 89 per cent votes from creditors, followed by Dalmia Cement (Bharat), and Vedanta Group.

The CoC defended its decision, saying the process complied with all Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC) rules. They maintained that no bidder has a guaranteed right to win, even if it offers the highest value.

They said plans were evaluated on multiple factors, including upfront cash, feasibility, and execution, not just headline value.

JAL, which has high-quality assets and business interests spanning real estate, cement manufacturing, hospitality, power and engineering & construction, was admitted to the CIRP in June 2024 after it defaulted on payments of loans aggregating Rs 57,185 crore.

JAL has major real estate projects like Jaypee Greens in Greater Noida, a part of Jaypee Greens Wishtown in Noida (both on the outskirts of the national capital), and the Jaypee International Sports City, located near the upcoming Jewar International Airport.

It also has three commercial/industrial office spaces in Delhi-NCR, while its hotel division has five properties in Delhi-NCR, Mussoorie, and Agra.

JAL has four cement plants in Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh, and a few leased limestone mines in Madhya Pradesh.

It also has investments in subsidiaries, including Jaiprakash Power Ventures Ltd, Yamuna Expressway Tolling Ltd, Jaypee Infrastructure Development Ltd, and several other companies. PTI KRH KRH TRB

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Acts Income Tax