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News
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March 25, 2026
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Specified business notification for affordable housing projects requires electronic filing, supporting documents, and compliance verification.
Form 18 is the prescribed application for notification of an affordable housing project as a specified business under section 46. It is required to be furnished electronically by an assessee seeking such notification and captures particulars of the assessee, the specified business, the proposed project, and compliance with prescribed conditions. Supporting documents such as the development agreement, sanction letter, and layout approval are attached to assist verification. The application is examined for compliance before notification may be granted.
March 25, 2026
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Affordable housing project notification through Form 18 is mandatory for claiming tax benefits under the specified business regime.
Form 18 is the prescribed application for notification of an affordable housing project as a specified business under section 46 of the Income-tax Act, 2025, and filing it is mandatory for availing the tax benefits available under that provision. The form requires the assessee to furnish particulars of the assessee, the specified business, the proposed project, compliance with prescribed conditions, and other project-related details, including project location, unit-wise area particulars, investment, title to land, development agreements, and a declaration certifying correctness of the information furnished.
March 25, 2026
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Approval for research-linked income-tax benefits through Form No. 17 requires detailed filing, verification, and ongoing annual compliance.
Form No. 17 is the prescribed electronic application for an Indian company and for a research association, university, college or other institution seeking approval under the relevant income-tax framework. It requires verified filing within the prescribed time, detailed particulars of the applicant, research activities, income, expenditure, donations, and supporting documents. The prescribed authority may issue a deficiency notice, and after approval the entity must furnish annual research-related compliance details.
March 25, 2026
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Form No. 17 approval applications require detailed disclosures, electronic filing, and ongoing compliance for research-related tax recognition.
Form No. 17 is the prescribed electronic application for approval under section 45(3)(b) for a company and section 45(4)(b) for a research association, university, college or other institution. The form requires disclosure of incorporation details, key persons, beneficial owners, registrations, research facilities, research projects, income and expenditure, together with prescribed enclosures and declarations. Approval remains subject to maintenance of books, audit and reporting obligations, compliance with conditions of approval, and the possibility of withdrawal if activities cease, become non-genuine, or are not carried out as required.
March 25, 2026
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Scientific research donation certificates streamline deduction verification through annual donor-wise reporting, Form 16 linkage, and corrected issuance.
Form 16 serves as the annual donor-wise certificate for contributions made to prescribed institutions for scientific research and is used to support verification of deductions claimed under the Income-tax Act, 2025. The certificate records aggregate donations received during the tax year, is not a receipt for individual transactions, and operates separately from transaction-level acknowledgments issued by the institution. It is linked to Form 15, must be issued once in each tax year on or before 31 May, and may be corrected if errors are found.
March 25, 2026
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Finance Bill 2026 advances budgetary approval as Lok Sabha passes the measure with government amendments.
Lok Sabha passed the Finance Bill 2026 with 32 government amendments, completing its role in the Budgetary approval process for 2026-27 and sending the Bill to the Rajya Sabha for further consideration. The Budget framework for 2026-27 provides for substantial expenditure and capital outlay, along with projected gross tax revenue, gross borrowing, and a lower fiscal deficit than the current fiscal year.
March 25, 2026
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Annual donor certificate for scientific research requires electronic FORM 16, separate from receipts and subject to deduction conditions.
Prescribed undertakings or institutions covered by section 45(3) must issue FORM 16 as an annual certificate to donors for sums received for scientific research. The certificate is issued once for the relevant tax year, on or before 31 May immediately following that year, and records the aggregate donation, donor particulars, the institution's approval details, and the relevant clause of section 45(3). FORM 16 is distinct from FORM 15, may be corrected or revised, and does not by itself guarantee deduction to the donor.
March 25, 2026
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Scientific research donation reporting under Form 15 requires annual filing, donor-wise particulars, and cross-verification of deductions.
Form 15 is a statutory annual information statement for prescribed undertakings or institutions receiving sums for scientific research, social science research or statistical research under the Income-tax Act, 2025. It must be furnished annually by the recipient institution and verified by the person authorised to verify its return of income, on or before 31st May following the relevant tax year. The form captures donor-wise and donation-wise particulars and serves as a primary data source for cross-verification of deductions claimed by donors, without itself conferring any deduction.
March 25, 2026
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Scientific research donation reporting under FORM 15 requires annual electronic furnishing by the recipient institution.
FORM 15 is a prescribed annual statement to be furnished by a prescribed undertaking or institution in respect of sums received for scientific research during a tax year. It applies to eligible sums received for scientific, social science or statistical research, and not to charitable donations. The obligation lies with the recipient institution, the statement is to be furnished annually on or before 31st May, and it must include donor-wise particulars, approval details, and receipt information. Non-furnishing or incorrect furnishing may affect the donor's deduction and attract statutory consequences.
March 25, 2026
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In-house R&D approval under Form 14 conditions tax deduction eligibility and links scientific recognition with compliance oversight.
Proposed Form 14 is the statutory approval order for an in-house research and development facility under section 45(2) of the Income-tax Act, 2025. Issued by the Department of Scientific and Industrial Research under Rule 29, it records the company's particulars, the facility details, DSIR recognition, and the grant of approval for the deduction framework. The approval is facility-specific, depends on continued DSIR recognition, and does not by itself establish deduction entitlement.
March 25, 2026
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In-house research and development approval governs deduction claims subject to DSIR recognition and statutory compliance.
FORM 14 is the prescribed approval order issued by DSIR for a company's in-house research and development facility under section 45(2) read with Rule 29. It formally grants approval, records the scientific research to be undertaken, links the approval with DSIR recognition and the company's application, and supports a deduction claim subject to compliance with statutory conditions. The form is facility-specific, not a filing form, and may be withdrawn for non-compliance or withdrawal of DSIR recognition.
March 25, 2026
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Scientific research and development audit reporting supports deduction claims through mandatory independent certification and account verification.
Proposed FORM 13 is the annual statutory audit report for an approved in-house scientific research and development facility under section 45(2) of the Income-tax Act, 2025. It is furnished by the company through an independent accountant and provides independent assurance on maintenance of separate accounts, correctness of capital and revenue expenditure, conformity with DSIR guidelines, and linkage with audited financial statements. FORM 13 is a mandatory supporting document for deduction claims and operates with FORM 11, FORM 14 and FORM 12 in the compliance framework.
March 25, 2026
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In-house R&D audit report defines compliance for deduction claims through separate accounts and certified expenditure.
FORM 13 is the accountant's annual audit report for an approved in-house scientific research and development facility claimed under section 45(2). It certifies maintenance of separate accounts, correctness of expenditure, and conformity with DSIR guidelines, and must be attached with or furnished in support of the company's return of income. The form is a mandatory compliance requirement, but deduction remains subject to verification and assessment.
March 25, 2026
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Research and development deduction reporting through Form 12 supports technical certification, expenditure verification, and compliance oversight.
Proposed Form 12 is the statutory reporting form through which the prescribed authority, acting under Rule 29, submits findings and certification regarding an approved in-house research and development facility to the jurisdictional Chief Commissioner of Income-tax. It operates within the compliance framework for deduction of expenditure on approved in-house R&D facilities under section 45(2) of the Income-tax Act, 2025 and records evaluation details, eligible expenditure and asset movements for verification of deduction claims.
March 25, 2026
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Research and development deduction reporting through FORM 12 supports verification of eligible expenditure and compliance oversight.
FORM 12 is a statutory report furnished by the prescribed authority under section 45(2) read with Rule 29 for an approved in-house research and development facility. It is filed with the Chief Commissioner of Income-tax and records the facility's examination, recognition status, and eligible capital and revenue expenditure for verifying deduction claims. The form is not filed by the company and does not itself determine final allowability of deduction, which remains subject to departmental verification during processing or assessment.
March 25, 2026
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In-house R&D facility approval framework under income tax law requires DSIR cooperation, audit compliance, and ongoing reporting.
FORM 11 sets out the statutory application and agreement framework for approval of in-house research and development facilities under section 45(2) of the Income-tax Act, 2025, read with Rule 29. It applies to eligible companies maintaining or proposing to maintain an in-house R&D facility and requires disclosure of company particulars, a DSIR agreement, and binding undertakings on audit, reporting, asset use, and compliance. Approval is facility-specific and remains subject to continued compliance, with DSIR serving as the prescribed authority for evaluation and oversight.
March 25, 2026
Show AI Summary
In-house research and development approval requires disclosure, audit, and ongoing compliance before deduction can be considered.
Form 11 is the prescribed application under Rule 29 for a company seeking to enter into an agreement with the Department of Scientific and Industrial Research for an in-house research and development facility under section 45(2). It requires disclosure of company particulars, R&D expenditure, facility details, research objectives, and undertakings on maintenance and audit of accounts. The form is generally a one-time approval application, but annual compliance continues through progress reports, audited accounts, and expenditure details. Approval does not itself secure deduction, which depends on statutory conditions, the agreement, and verification.
March 25, 2026
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Statutory reporting for approved scientific research programmes under FORM 10 strengthens tax oversight and compliance monitoring.
Proposed FORM 10 is the statutory reporting form furnished by the prescribed authority to the Income-tax Department for approved scientific research programmes under section 45(3)(c) of the Income-tax Act, 2025. It functions as the oversight stage after FORM 7 and FORM 8, linking approvals with departmental monitoring of payments, utilisation and deduction claims. The form is furnished electronically to the jurisdictional Chief Commissioner within the prescribed time and records the essential particulars of the approved programme, while not conferring any entitlement on the sponsor or replacing the approval order.
March 25, 2026
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Scientific research programme approval reporting under tax law supports compliance monitoring, deduction verification, and administrative recordkeeping.
FORM 10 is a statutory report furnished by the prescribed authority in relation to a scientific research programme approved under section 45(3)(c) read with Rule 30. It is a post-approval monitoring instrument, furnished to the Chief Commissioner of Income-tax having jurisdiction over the sponsor within the prescribed time. The form records approval details, programme particulars, conditions of approval, and supports administrative monitoring, compliance verification, and cross-checking of deduction claims. It does not alter or substitute the approval granted under FORM 8.
March 25, 2026
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Scientific research deduction claims depend on programme-specific Form 9 receipts, approval linkage, and statutory compliance requirements.
Form 9 is a statutory receipt for payments made towards an approved scientific research programme and links the payment stage with the approval granted in Form 8 and the sponsor's deduction claim under section 45(3)(c) of the Income-tax Act, 2025. It is issued by the designated executing institution, records sponsor details, payment particulars, programme information, approved cost, tax years and cumulative receipts, and is programme-specific. The receipt supports but does not itself establish entitlement to deduction, which remains subject to statutory compliance and verification.

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Corp. Laws / SEBI / IBC

Adani wins US court hearing in push to throw out SEC fraud suit

April 8, 2026

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New York, Apr 8 (PTI) A US judge granted a request from billionaire Gautam Adani to schedule a hearing in his effort to dismiss a US Securities and Exchange Commission fraud case, which he says lacks necessary jurisdiction as well as fails on multiple reasons.

This followed lawyers of Adani and his nephew, Sagar filing a plea seeking dismissal of the case.

"The court has received Defendants' letter requesting a pre-motion conference on their anticipated motion to dismiss the Complaint. The court GRANTS that request and DIRECTS the parties" to schedule the pre-motion conference, the Eastern District court of New York said in its order.

In the filing, โ€‹the Adanis' lawyers said there was no credible evidence supporting โ€‹the alleged bribery scheme.

The SEC, they said, lacked necessary jurisdiction over the two men and that the alleged misstatements underpinning the case weren't actionable.

The case brought by SEC in November 2024 alongside a criminal complaint by the US Department of Justice, alleges that the Adanis sought to pay over USD 250 million in bribes to Indian officials to secure solar energy contracts and concealed the scheme from US investors and banks when they raised funds.

The Adani Group has denied all allegations, stating that none of its entities or executives have been charged under the US Foreign Corrupt Practices Act, and that Adani Green Energy - the renewable energy arm that raised the funds - is not a party to the proceedings.

While Gautam Adani chairs the Adani Group, Sagar Adani is executive director at Adani Green Energy.

The lawsuits had been stalled for over a year as the defendants, based in India, were not served notices. The group, which spans green energy, ports, realty, mining and news media, has continued to raise funds from global investors, including BlackRock, since the charges were filed.

The Brooklyn, New York court's decision to grant a hearing allows Adani to argue that the regulator's complaint should be thrown out at an early stage, potentially avoiding a protracted discovery process and trial.

In filings, Adani's legal team has argued that the case lacks sufficient jurisdictional basis and fails to establish actionable claims under US securities laws.

NO US JURISDICTION ------------------------ The Adanis argued that the court lacked personal jurisdiction, saying neither of them had sufficient contacts with the US or direct involvement in the bond offering.

The USD 750-million bond sale was conducted outside the United States under Rule 144A and Regulation S exemptions, with securities sold to non-US underwriters and only later resold in part to qualified institutional buyers, they said.

The plea stated that "in September 2021, Adani Green, which is not a US registrant, conducted a USD 750 million bond offering pursuant to SEC Rule 144A and SEC Regulation S, which are registration exemptions for private resales to qualified institutional buyers (QIBs) and for non-US sales, respectively".

"Adani Green sold all of the notes from the Offering outside the United States, via a Subscription Agreement, to non-US underwriters, who later resold the Notes to QIBs. A fraction of those resales -- in transactions to which Adani Green was not a party -- are alleged to have been made to 'investors in the United States'," it said.

The plea through the lawyers added that the complaint does not allege that Gautam Adani approved the issuance, attended key meetings, or directed any activity at US investors.

Stating that the SEC could not charge the two under the US Foreign Corrupt Practices Act, it instead recast its charges as a securities fraud case.

The filing states that the Adanis dispute that there is any credible evidence supporting the purported bribery scheme.

"Notably, the SEC does not allege that there were any investor losses, and there were none. The bonds have matured, and Adani Green repaid all principal and interest in full to investors in 2024," it added.

EXTRATERRITORIAL REACH CHALLENGED --------------------------------------------- The filing also contends the SEC's case is impermissibly extraterritorial, noting the securities were not listed in the United States, the issuer is Indian, and the alleged misconduct occurred entirely in India.

Citing US Supreme Court precedent, Adanis said the SEC failed to show any "domestic transaction", a requirement for applying US securities laws.

Under the sections invoked, the SEC must plausibly allege a "domestic transaction" and it must plead that "irrevocable liability was incurred or title was transferred within the United States".

The SEC charges against Adanis say nothing about where irrevocable liability was incurred, the plea said, adding that the mere fact, taken as true, that some downstream investors were located in the US is irrelevant to the case.

"The SEC's claims here solely involve Indian Defendants, an Indian issuer, securities not registered with the SEC and not traded on any US exchange, and underlying conduct alleged to have occurred exclusively in India," it said. "This case is thus conclusively beyond the reach of the US securities laws." NO INVESTOR LOSSES ------------------------- The defendants said the SEC does not allege any investor losses, adding that the bonds matured and were fully repaid with interest in 2024.

They also disputed the underlying bribery allegations, saying there is no credible evidence supporting such claims.

"The alleged bribery scheme relates to a solar energy project in India for the provision of renewable power in India. There is no allegation that any US company bid on the project, or that any US customer purchased energy in the project. In fact, there was no such US involvement," the plea said.

'PUFFERY' DEFENCE ---------------------- The filing argues that statements cited by the SEC -- relating to ESG commitments, anti-corruption practices, and corporate reputation -- amount to non-actionable "puffery", or general corporate optimism that investors cannot reasonably rely on.

It further said the SEC failed to link either defendant to specific misleading statements or demonstrate intent to defraud.

The defendants are seeking dismissal of the case in full and said they are prepared to appear for a pre-motion conference if required.

Adanis argued that the court lacks personal jurisdiction, saying neither had sufficient contacts with the US or direct involvement in the bond offering.

"The complaint contains no plausible allegation that Gautam Adani was involved in drafting, reviewing, or approving any document containing any alleged misstatement. Indeed, the SEC does not allege that Gautam Adani even knew these statements were being made," the plea said. "Because there are no allegations tying him to any alleged misstatement, the SEC's claims against Gautam Adani fail as a matter of law." The allegations against Sagar Adani are also deficient. "Even if 'multiple drafts' of the Offering Circular 'were provided to [him]', these allegations do not tie him to specific misstatements, much less show that he had 'ultimate authority' over their content," it said.

The SEC also fails to adequately plead that defendants acted with the requisite intent. "The SEC makes no plausible allegation that Defendants acted with knowledge or recklessness," it said.

The defendants intend to move to dismiss the SEC's complaint by April 30, 2026 and, as part of this process, have on April 7, 2026 submitted a letter with the EDNY (Eastern District New York) judge informing the court that the defendants are prepared to attend a pre-motion conference should the court wish to schedule one.

The filing of this letter is a standard procedural step in the legal process for the handling of such matters in accordance with the procedural rules prescribed by the EDNY judge.

In the letter, the defendants have briefly set out their grounds for dismissal of SEC's complaint, including that (i) the court concerned lacks personal jurisdiction over the defendants and the claims against them, (ii) the SEC's claims are impermissibly extraterritorial, (iii) the alleged misstatements by the defendants are too vague and general for any reasonable investor to rely upon as a guarantee of any concrete fact or outcome, making them inactionable, and (iii) the defendants' lack of involvement in the transaction bars the SEC's claims against them.

Gautam Adani is represented by Sullivan & Cromwell LLP, while Sagar Adani's counsel is Nixon Peabody LLP and Hecker Fink LLP.

SEC's CHARGES AGAINST ADANI ------------------------------------ The SEC has alleged that Gautam Adani, Sagar Adani and others orchestrated a USD 250 million-plus bribery scheme between 2020 and 2024 to secure solar energy contracts in India.

Their plea (termed as letter in US legal system) pointed out that SEC does not allege that there were any investor losses as there were none. The bonds have matured and all interest payments were made on time.

The court lacks personal jurisdiction over defendants and the claims against them should be dismissed under Rule 12(b)(2), the letter cited.

The SEC must plead that defendants had sufficient "minimum contacts" with the US and that the claims against them arose out of those activities, the letter pointed out. With respect to Gautam Adani, the SEC does not come close, the lawyers added.

The claims, according to the lawyers, "involve Indian Defendants, an Indian issuer, securities not registered with the SEC and not traded on US exchanges, and underlying conduct alleged to have occurred exclusively in India".

The SEC has not alleged underwriters who purchased the bonds from AGEL were US institutions as they weren't, or that the subscription agreement underlying the purchases was governed by US law as it wasn't.

"This case is thus conclusively beyond the reach of the US securities laws," the lawyers said.

The SEC has also failed to tie Sagar Adani to a single allegedly false or misleading statement, much less one directed at US investors, the letter added. PTI ANZ ANZ ANU ANU

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