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News
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March 30, 2026
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Public interest refusal to furnish information under income-tax law now uses electronic Form 91 with DIN authentication.
Form 91 is the statutory electronic form used by the designated Income-tax authority to refuse furnishing information requested under section 258(2)(a) of the Income-tax Act, 2025 where disclosure is not considered to be in the public interest. It is issued only by the competent authority, records the application reference, assessee details and relevant tax year, and states the refusal on public interest grounds. The form is authenticated through a system-generated DIN and electronic issuance details, creating a formal and traceable record distinct from forms used for furnishing information or intimation of non-availability.
March 30, 2026
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Money laundering probe intensifies as Nepal widens scrutiny of former prime ministers and protests continue after arrests.
Protests continued in Nepal after the arrest of former Prime Minister K P Sharma Oli and former home minister Ramesh Lekhak in connection with the alleged suppression of the Gen Z protests, while the Department of Money Laundering Investigation and police intensified scrutiny of former prime ministers Sher Bahadur Deuba, K P Sharma Oli and Pushpa Kamal Dahal. The probe expanded after preliminary enquiries and the arrest of former minister Deepak Khadka in a money laundering case, with allegations of financial benefits for facilitating licences and contracts and forensic confirmation of burnt banknote fragments.
March 30, 2026
Show AI Summary
Public interest refusal for tax information requests through Form 091 by the designated Income-tax authority.
Form 091 is the prescribed income-tax form used by the designated Income-tax authority to refuse furnishing information sought under section 258(2)(a) of the Income-tax Act, 2025, where disclosure is not considered to be in the public interest. It is issued only after an information request is received and declined, applies separately for each tax year, and is authenticated by the authority's signature, name, and designation without requiring an official seal.
March 30, 2026
Show AI Summary
Insolvency code amendments tighten timelines, add creditor-initiated resolution, and curb frivolous delays in the process.
Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code amendments introduce stricter timelines, an out-of-court creditor-initiated resolution mechanism, and an enabling framework for group and cross-border insolvency. The revised framework replaces the underutilised fast-track route with a creditor-initiated insolvency process based on debtor-in-possession and creditor-in-control principles, subject to safeguards and defined timelines. The amendments also provide deterrent measures against abuse of process, including penalties for vexatious and frivolous proceedings, and seek to protect the integrity of the resolution system by discouraging delay-causing litigation.
March 30, 2026
Show AI Summary
Non-availability of information intimation under Form 90 is issued electronically after record verification and DIN authentication.
Form 90 is the electronic intimation issued by the designated Income-tax authority under section 258(2)(a) of the Income-tax Act, 2025, where requested information is unavailable in departmental records or no assessment has been made for the relevant tax year. It is generated after verification of records, authenticated through the Department's system with DIN, and includes the application reference, assessee name, and mandatory tax year. The form is event-based, has no fixed periodicity or due date, and standardises the term tax year for clear and traceable communication.
March 30, 2026
Show AI Summary
Non-availability of information intimation under income tax law through Form 090 communicates missing records, not rejection.
Form 090 is the prescribed intimation used by the designated Income-tax authority to communicate that information sought under section 258(2)(a) of the Income-tax Act, 2025 is not available in departmental records for the specified tax year. It is issued electronically after verification of records, is event-based, and must be furnished separately for each tax year. The form requires the exact tax year, recipient details, DIN and date, application reference, assessee name, and a statement confirming non-availability of information or that no assessment has been made.
March 30, 2026
Show AI Summary
Electronic information disclosure under the Income-tax Act, 2025 uses Form 89 for structured, traceable furnishing or refusal.
Form 89 is the electronic statutory form used by the designated Income-tax authority to furnish permissible information in response to a valid application by an authorised public authority under section 258(2)(a) of the Income-tax Act, 2025, for a specified assessee and a single tax year. It is an event-based form, furnished through the Department's system with DIN and system-generated authentication, and is linked to the corresponding application in Form 88. The form contains assessee particulars in Part A and disclosure-limited information details in Part B, and it also allows recording of refusal, wholly or partly, where disclosure is not considered to be in the public interest.
March 30, 2026
Show AI Summary
Taxpayer information disclosure under authorised application governs Form 089, with electronic furnishing and limited, confidential disclosure.
Form 089 is the statutory online form used by designated income-tax authorities to furnish taxpayer-related information in response to a valid application made by an authorised public authority under section 258(2)(a) of the Income-tax Act, 2025. It is tax-year specific, furnished electronically, and may be used only for information available in departmental records and within the permissible scope of disclosure. The authority may refuse disclosure for unauthorised, invalid, incomplete, or overbroad requests, and the reasons must be recorded electronically.
March 30, 2026
Show AI Summary
Assessee information requests under the Income-tax Act now require online Form 88 filing by authorised public authorities only.
Form 88 is the prescribed application for obtaining information about an assessee under Section 258(2)(a) of the Income-tax Act, 2025. It is available only to authorised public authorities, including regulatory and law-enforcement agencies, government departments authorised under Rule 155, and other competent authorities empowered by the Central Government. A separate application is required for each assessee and each tax year; consolidated requests are not allowed. The form must be filed online through the e-Filing portal with electronic verification and supporting documents uploaded electronically.
March 30, 2026
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E-commerce duty moratorium ends unresolved as WTO members defer tariff and TRIPS safeguards talks.
The World Trade Organization meeting ended without consensus on extending the moratorium on customs duties on electronic transmissions, leaving the issue of tariffs on digital downloads and streaming unresolved. The lapse of the moratorium also coincided with the expiry of the TRIPS non-violation complaint safeguard, increasing the possibility of challenges to WTO-compliant measures and reducing policy space for developing countries. Related WTO reform and e-commerce work programme discussions were also deferred for continued negotiation in Geneva.
March 30, 2026
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Insolvency and bankruptcy reform drives banking health, with proposed changes aimed at faster admission of resolution applications.
The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code is described as a central mechanism for improving banking sector health through recovery of non-performing assets under the insolvency resolution process. The proposed amendment Bill seeks further changes to the framework, including measures to reduce the time taken for admission of insolvency resolution applications, while the resolution process is said to have coincided with better company performance and improved corporate governance.
March 30, 2026
Show AI Summary
Taxpayer information requests under Form 088 require authorised filing, specific grounds, separate tax year submissions, and electronic portal authentication.
Form 088 is the online application used by authorised public authorities, regulatory bodies, law-enforcement agencies, and other competent authorities to seek specific taxpayer information under Section 258(2)(a) of the Income-tax Act, 2025. It must be filed separately for each taxpayer and each tax year through the e-Filing portal, with narrowly framed particulars, stated reasons, and supporting authorisation where necessary. Incomplete, overbroad, or unauthorised requests may be returned or rejected, and communications are issued electronically with portal-based status tracking.
March 30, 2026
Show AI Summary
Tonnage Tax Scheme audit report filing requires accountant certification, supporting annexures, and electronic submission within the specified date.
Form No. 81 is prescribed for furnishing the audit report under section 232(21) for a company that has opted for taxation under the Tonnage Tax Scheme. The report, prepared and certified by an accountant, verifies books of account, computation of shipping income, compliance with charter-in limits, and other statutory conditions. It is to be furnished on or before the specified date and may include annexures such as charter arrangement certificates, related party notes, asset notes, and loss statements.
March 30, 2026
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Tonnage Tax Scheme reporting requires accountant certification, separate books, and detailed disclosure of shipping income and compliance.
Form 81 is an accountant's report for a company opting for the Tonnage Tax Scheme, certifying the correctness of books of account and income computation for qualifying ships. It requires separate books, disclosure of charter-in compliance, shipping income, statutory reserve details, ship-wise tonnage income, related party transactions, depreciation, non-exclusive assets, and losses, with mandatory annexures where applicable and reasons for any negative or qualified answers.
March 30, 2026
Show AI Summary
Tonnage Tax Scheme option filing requires Form 80, supporting vessel documents, and electronic verification of eligibility.
Form No. 80 is the prescribed electronic application for an Indian company engaged in operating ships or inland vessels to exercise or renew the option to be governed by the Tonnage Tax Scheme. It requires particulars of the applicant, ships or inland vessels, supporting certificates and approvals, and is used to verify whether the statutory conditions for coverage under Chapter XII-G are satisfied.
March 30, 2026
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Tonnage tax scheme application rules govern Form 80 filing, renewal, verification, completeness, and false statement liability.
Form 80 is the mandatory application for an eligible Indian company engaged in the operation of ships or inland vessels to exercise or renew the option under the tonnage tax scheme. The form must be filed within the prescribed time, includes Part A for all cases and Part B only for renewal, and requires detailed ship-wise particulars with supporting annexures. It is filed with the jurisdictional Joint Commissioner and must be signed by the authorised signatory. Incomplete applications may be treated as invalid, and false statements in the form or annexures attract prosecution.
March 30, 2026
Show AI Summary
Pass-through taxation reporting for investment funds through Form 79, with unit holder income disclosure and auto-generated statements.
Form 79 is the consolidated annual statement for Investment Funds to report income paid or credited to unit holders under the pass-through taxation framework. Eligible Category I or Category II AIFs, and comparable IFSCA-regulated funds subject to the stated conditions, must file it annually by 15 June with detailed fund-level income, loss, set-off, and unit holder-wise distribution particulars. The form requires verification by both an authorised person and a qualified accountant, and its filing triggers auto-generation of Form 78 statements for unit holders.
March 30, 2026
Show AI Summary
Investment fund income distribution reporting requires Form 79 filing online with supporting records and prescribed timelines.
Form 79 is the statement of income paid or credited by an investment fund to persons liable to tax on such income, and it must be filed by the person responsible for making the payment or credit on behalf of the fund. The statement is to be submitted online through the Income Tax e-filing portal by 15 June of the financial year following the tax year, with supporting records including audited financial statements, unit holder details, income distribution data, loss set-off computations, and the relevant registration certificate.
March 30, 2026
Show AI Summary
Pass-through taxation reporting through Form 78 requires unit holder income statements, capital gain codes, and timely furnishing
Form 78 is the individual unit holder statement for income distributed by an Investment Fund under section 224 and Rule 145, furnished by the person responsible for payment or credit on behalf of the Fund to each unit holder by 30 June of the following financial year. It is system-generated from the consolidated parent Form 79 and includes unit holder details, fund particulars, income or loss classification with capital gain codes, and deemed loss details under section 224(3). No separate documents are required, and the form supports transparent pass-through income reporting by unit holders.
March 30, 2026
Show AI Summary
Pass-through income reporting through Form 78 supports compliance, income classification, capital gains coding, and loss carry-forward.
Form 78 is the statement of income paid or credited by an investment fund to each unitholder under section 224 of the Income-tax Act, 2025. It is a child form generated from the parent Form 79 through the e-filing portal and is not filed separately or offline. The form must be furnished by 30 June of the financial year following the tax year, and it helps unit holders report pass-through income, classify income under the correct heads, apply capital gains tax rate codes, and use deemed loss details for carry-forward purposes.

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Corp. Laws / SEBI / IBC

Adani wins US court hearing in push to throw out SEC fraud suit

April 8, 2026

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New York, Apr 8 (PTI) A US judge granted a request from billionaire Gautam Adani to schedule a hearing in his effort to dismiss a US Securities and Exchange Commission fraud case, which he says lacks necessary jurisdiction as well as fails on multiple reasons.

This followed lawyers of Adani and his nephew, Sagar filing a plea seeking dismissal of the case.

"The court has received Defendants' letter requesting a pre-motion conference on their anticipated motion to dismiss the Complaint. The court GRANTS that request and DIRECTS the parties" to schedule the pre-motion conference, the Eastern District court of New York said in its order.

In the filing, ​the Adanis' lawyers said there was no credible evidence supporting ​the alleged bribery scheme.

The SEC, they said, lacked necessary jurisdiction over the two men and that the alleged misstatements underpinning the case weren't actionable.

The case brought by SEC in November 2024 alongside a criminal complaint by the US Department of Justice, alleges that the Adanis sought to pay over USD 250 million in bribes to Indian officials to secure solar energy contracts and concealed the scheme from US investors and banks when they raised funds.

The Adani Group has denied all allegations, stating that none of its entities or executives have been charged under the US Foreign Corrupt Practices Act, and that Adani Green Energy - the renewable energy arm that raised the funds - is not a party to the proceedings.

While Gautam Adani chairs the Adani Group, Sagar Adani is executive director at Adani Green Energy.

The lawsuits had been stalled for over a year as the defendants, based in India, were not served notices. The group, which spans green energy, ports, realty, mining and news media, has continued to raise funds from global investors, including BlackRock, since the charges were filed.

The Brooklyn, New York court's decision to grant a hearing allows Adani to argue that the regulator's complaint should be thrown out at an early stage, potentially avoiding a protracted discovery process and trial.

In filings, Adani's legal team has argued that the case lacks sufficient jurisdictional basis and fails to establish actionable claims under US securities laws.

NO US JURISDICTION ------------------------ The Adanis argued that the court lacked personal jurisdiction, saying neither of them had sufficient contacts with the US or direct involvement in the bond offering.

The USD 750-million bond sale was conducted outside the United States under Rule 144A and Regulation S exemptions, with securities sold to non-US underwriters and only later resold in part to qualified institutional buyers, they said.

The plea stated that "in September 2021, Adani Green, which is not a US registrant, conducted a USD 750 million bond offering pursuant to SEC Rule 144A and SEC Regulation S, which are registration exemptions for private resales to qualified institutional buyers (QIBs) and for non-US sales, respectively".

"Adani Green sold all of the notes from the Offering outside the United States, via a Subscription Agreement, to non-US underwriters, who later resold the Notes to QIBs. A fraction of those resales -- in transactions to which Adani Green was not a party -- are alleged to have been made to 'investors in the United States'," it said.

The plea through the lawyers added that the complaint does not allege that Gautam Adani approved the issuance, attended key meetings, or directed any activity at US investors.

Stating that the SEC could not charge the two under the US Foreign Corrupt Practices Act, it instead recast its charges as a securities fraud case.

The filing states that the Adanis dispute that there is any credible evidence supporting the purported bribery scheme.

"Notably, the SEC does not allege that there were any investor losses, and there were none. The bonds have matured, and Adani Green repaid all principal and interest in full to investors in 2024," it added.

EXTRATERRITORIAL REACH CHALLENGED --------------------------------------------- The filing also contends the SEC's case is impermissibly extraterritorial, noting the securities were not listed in the United States, the issuer is Indian, and the alleged misconduct occurred entirely in India.

Citing US Supreme Court precedent, Adanis said the SEC failed to show any "domestic transaction", a requirement for applying US securities laws.

Under the sections invoked, the SEC must plausibly allege a "domestic transaction" and it must plead that "irrevocable liability was incurred or title was transferred within the United States".

The SEC charges against Adanis say nothing about where irrevocable liability was incurred, the plea said, adding that the mere fact, taken as true, that some downstream investors were located in the US is irrelevant to the case.

"The SEC's claims here solely involve Indian Defendants, an Indian issuer, securities not registered with the SEC and not traded on any US exchange, and underlying conduct alleged to have occurred exclusively in India," it said. "This case is thus conclusively beyond the reach of the US securities laws." NO INVESTOR LOSSES ------------------------- The defendants said the SEC does not allege any investor losses, adding that the bonds matured and were fully repaid with interest in 2024.

They also disputed the underlying bribery allegations, saying there is no credible evidence supporting such claims.

"The alleged bribery scheme relates to a solar energy project in India for the provision of renewable power in India. There is no allegation that any US company bid on the project, or that any US customer purchased energy in the project. In fact, there was no such US involvement," the plea said.

'PUFFERY' DEFENCE ---------------------- The filing argues that statements cited by the SEC -- relating to ESG commitments, anti-corruption practices, and corporate reputation -- amount to non-actionable "puffery", or general corporate optimism that investors cannot reasonably rely on.

It further said the SEC failed to link either defendant to specific misleading statements or demonstrate intent to defraud.

The defendants are seeking dismissal of the case in full and said they are prepared to appear for a pre-motion conference if required.

Adanis argued that the court lacks personal jurisdiction, saying neither had sufficient contacts with the US or direct involvement in the bond offering.

"The complaint contains no plausible allegation that Gautam Adani was involved in drafting, reviewing, or approving any document containing any alleged misstatement. Indeed, the SEC does not allege that Gautam Adani even knew these statements were being made," the plea said. "Because there are no allegations tying him to any alleged misstatement, the SEC's claims against Gautam Adani fail as a matter of law." The allegations against Sagar Adani are also deficient. "Even if 'multiple drafts' of the Offering Circular 'were provided to [him]', these allegations do not tie him to specific misstatements, much less show that he had 'ultimate authority' over their content," it said.

The SEC also fails to adequately plead that defendants acted with the requisite intent. "The SEC makes no plausible allegation that Defendants acted with knowledge or recklessness," it said.

The defendants intend to move to dismiss the SEC's complaint by April 30, 2026 and, as part of this process, have on April 7, 2026 submitted a letter with the EDNY (Eastern District New York) judge informing the court that the defendants are prepared to attend a pre-motion conference should the court wish to schedule one.

The filing of this letter is a standard procedural step in the legal process for the handling of such matters in accordance with the procedural rules prescribed by the EDNY judge.

In the letter, the defendants have briefly set out their grounds for dismissal of SEC's complaint, including that (i) the court concerned lacks personal jurisdiction over the defendants and the claims against them, (ii) the SEC's claims are impermissibly extraterritorial, (iii) the alleged misstatements by the defendants are too vague and general for any reasonable investor to rely upon as a guarantee of any concrete fact or outcome, making them inactionable, and (iii) the defendants' lack of involvement in the transaction bars the SEC's claims against them.

Gautam Adani is represented by Sullivan & Cromwell LLP, while Sagar Adani's counsel is Nixon Peabody LLP and Hecker Fink LLP.

SEC's CHARGES AGAINST ADANI ------------------------------------ The SEC has alleged that Gautam Adani, Sagar Adani and others orchestrated a USD 250 million-plus bribery scheme between 2020 and 2024 to secure solar energy contracts in India.

Their plea (termed as letter in US legal system) pointed out that SEC does not allege that there were any investor losses as there were none. The bonds have matured and all interest payments were made on time.

The court lacks personal jurisdiction over defendants and the claims against them should be dismissed under Rule 12(b)(2), the letter cited.

The SEC must plead that defendants had sufficient "minimum contacts" with the US and that the claims against them arose out of those activities, the letter pointed out. With respect to Gautam Adani, the SEC does not come close, the lawyers added.

The claims, according to the lawyers, "involve Indian Defendants, an Indian issuer, securities not registered with the SEC and not traded on US exchanges, and underlying conduct alleged to have occurred exclusively in India".

The SEC has not alleged underwriters who purchased the bonds from AGEL were US institutions as they weren't, or that the subscription agreement underlying the purchases was governed by US law as it wasn't.

"This case is thus conclusively beyond the reach of the US securities laws," the lawyers said.

The SEC has also failed to tie Sagar Adani to a single allegedly false or misleading statement, much less one directed at US investors, the letter added. PTI ANZ ANZ ANU ANU

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