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April 2, 2026
Show AI Summary
Tax deduction statements for non-resident payments require quarterly electronic filing, with correction statements allowed after processing.
Form No. 144 is the quarterly statement for deduction of tax at source on payments other than salary made to non-residents. It is mandatory for every deductor required to deduct tax on such payments, must be filed electronically within the prescribed quarterly due dates, and cannot be edited after submission. Corrections may be filed after processing by CPC-TDS within two years from the end of the relevant tax year. Successful filing on TRACES generates an Acknowledgment Receipt Number.
April 2, 2026
Show AI Summary
LPG supply prioritisation reshapes refinery allocations as propylene is partly redirected to ease petrochemical shortages.
The government has adjusted refinery output directions in response to LPG import disruptions and petrochemical feedstock shortages. After requiring C3 and C4 streams to be used exclusively for LPG production, the Ministry later allowed part of the propylene supply to return to the petrochemical industry. The policy is presented as a balance between domestic LPG supply security and the needs of sectors such as packaging and condom manufacturing, alongside partial restoration and enhancement of commercial LPG allocations for priority consumers.
April 2, 2026
Show AI Summary
Tax collected at source reporting through Form 143 streamlines quarterly filing, certificate issuance, and collectee credit tracking.
Quarterly reporting of tax collected at source is filed in Form No. 143 by collectors responsible for collection on specified transactions under the Income-tax Act, 2025. The form requires collector particulars, challan and deposit details, and collectee-wise annexure information on amounts, dates, rates, tax collected and deposited, with quarterly due dates and utility-based electronic filing. Processing may lead to default corrections, issuance of the collectee tax certificate, and reflection of TCS as credit in the collectee's tax record.
April 2, 2026
Show AI Summary
Tax collection at source statement filing requires quarterly electronic submission, correction limits, and acknowledgment on the portal.
Form No. 143 is the mandatory quarterly electronic statement for collection of tax at source on specified goods and transactions, to be filed by the collector, seller, operator or authorised person responsible for collection at the time of debit or receipt of payment. It follows a quarterly due-date schedule, cannot be edited after submission, and may be corrected only through a correction statement after processing by CPC-TDS, within two years from the end of the relevant tax year. Successful filing generates an Acknowledgment Receipt Number on the TRACES portal.
April 2, 2026
Show AI Summary
Virtual Digital Asset TDS reporting requires quarterly electronic filing by exchanges with transaction-wise deduction, exemption, and challan details.
Form No. 142 is the quarterly electronic statement to be furnished by a Virtual Digital Asset exchange for reporting tax deducted at source on transfer of virtual digital assets and transactions where tax was not deducted under the notified exemption framework. It must be filed with the Director General of Income-tax (Systems) and includes exchange particulars, transaction details, challan data and a declaration of correctness. The filing process uses the e-filing portal and supports smart features such as auto-population, validation, API integration and standardised fields.
April 2, 2026
Show AI Summary
Virtual digital asset tax reporting requires quarterly exchange filing, full tax deposit, and electronic submission with challan details.
Form No. 142 is a PAN-based quarterly statement to be filed electronically by a Virtual Digital Asset exchange that has agreed to deposit tax on transfers of virtual digital assets in place of deduction by the buyer or broker. It applies to VDA transactions where the exchange deposits tax, including purchase, exchange, and partly or fully in-kind settlements, and is mandatory for reporting transactions covered by the prescribed TDS mechanism. The form is filed quarterly, captures exchange, buyer or broker, transaction, and challan details, and requires full tax deposit before submission.
April 2, 2026
Show AI Summary
Combined TDS Form 141 streamlines reporting for rent, property, professional fees, and virtual digital asset transfers.
Form No. 141 is the combined PAN-based challan-cum-statement for reporting and depositing tax deducted at source on rent, transfer of immovable property, specified professional, contract, commission and brokerage payments, and transfer of virtual digital assets. It replaces the earlier separate Forms 26QB, 26QC, 26QD and 26QE, is filed electronically within 30 days from the end of the month of deduction, and uses separate schedules for each transaction category. The revised form also allows consolidated reporting for same-status parties and introduces prefilled details, smart validations, standardised fields, and correction mechanisms.
April 2, 2026
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Settlement-linked quashing of proceedings keeps SEBI closure issue alive for Sterling Biotech and the Sandesara brothers.
Settlement-linked quashing of proceedings concerning Sterling Biotech Limited and the Sandesara brothers remained under consideration, with the Supreme Court indicating that SEBI must close its proceedings in view of the earlier order under which deposit of the settlement amount was to trigger quashing of all proceedings. The Court recorded that the amount had already been deposited in the registry and that the earlier order had been given effect to, while SEBI sought time after internal deliberations on the closure issue.
April 2, 2026
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Trade liberalisation under India-Australia ECTA expands market access, boosts exports, and advances zero-duty access for Indian goods.
India-Australia Economic Cooperation and Trade Agreement has completed four years, marking stronger bilateral economic engagement through expanded market access, reduced trade barriers, and deeper trade and supply-chain linkages. India has granted preferential access on 70.3% of its tariff lines, while Australia has granted preferential access on 100% of its tariff lines and imports from India, with most lines duty-free immediately and all Indian exports eligible for zero-duty access from 1 January 2026. The Mutual Recognition Arrangement on Organic Products supports trade by recognising certification systems and reducing duplication, cost, and time.
April 2, 2026
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Customs duty exemption on critical petrochemical inputs aims to ease supply disruptions and support downstream manufacturing.
Full customs duty exemption is granted on critical petrochemical products as a temporary and targeted relief measure in response to the ongoing conflict in West Asia and resulting supply chain disruptions. The exemption continues until 30 June 2026 and is intended to ensure continued availability of essential petrochemical inputs for domestic industry, reduce cost pressures on downstream sectors, and maintain supply stability. The notified products cover petrochemical feedstock, intermediates and related industrial inputs used across multiple manufacturing sectors.
April 2, 2026
Show AI Summary
Consolidated TDS reporting through Form 141 streamlines tax deduction filing, schedule-wise payment, and compliance for specified transactions.
Form No. 141 is a single consolidated challan-cum-statement for reporting and payment of tax deducted at source on specified transactions through separate schedules instead of multiple standalone forms. It replaces Forms 26QB, 26QC, 26QD and 26QE, and requires only the relevant schedule to be completed for the transaction reported. The form is filed using PAN, not TAN, and is available for rent, immovable property, contractor or professional payments, and transfer of virtual digital assets, with one transaction type per form.
April 2, 2026
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Defence exports growth reflects India's indigenous manufacturing strength, wider global acceptance, and streamlined export regulation.
India's defence exports recorded a new high, driven by indigenous manufacturing strength, wider global acceptance of Indian defence products, and a collaborative ecosystem involving defence public sector undertakings and private industry. The exports reached more than 80 countries, while the number of exporters increased, reflecting growing participation in the sector. The ministry also noted that streamlined export regulatory processes, a revamped online portal, and simplified authorisation procedures supported this growth.
April 2, 2026
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Foreign exchange market restrictions by RBI drove dollar unwinding and triggered a meaningful rupee rebound.
RBI took twin foreign exchange market restrictions by capping banks' net open rupee positions and barring non-deliverable forward offerings to corporates. The measures were directed at limiting banks' activity in onshore forward markets and were described as forcing dollar unwinding, thereby producing a meaningful rebound in the rupee.
April 2, 2026
Show AI Summary
Quarterly TDS statement for non-salary payments requires deductor details, deductee-wise reporting, and prescribed filing steps.
Form No. 140 is the quarterly TDS statement for non-salary payments to resident deductees, filed by persons responsible for deduction of tax on specified payments such as interest, commission, brokerage, professional fees, and rent. The form requires deductor particulars, tax payment details, and a deductee-wise annexure covering PAN, amount paid or credited, tax deducted and deposited, deduction rate, and related certificate details. Filing is quarterly, supported by challans and PAN details, and involves preparation, validation, and upload through the prescribed electronic or facilitation-centre process.
April 2, 2026
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Foreign exchange market curbs drive rupee higher as banks adjust positions under Reserve Bank restrictions.
Reserve Bank of India measures to curb banks' activity in the onshore and derivative foreign exchange markets led to a sharp appreciation in the rupee after recent volatility and heavy pressure from capital outflows, a stronger dollar and higher crude prices. The central bank capped the net open position on the Indian rupee for banks at USD 100 million and required compliance by a specified deadline, while also restricting authorised dealers from offering non-deliverable derivative contracts involving the rupee to resident or non-resident users. Users were further barred from rebooking foreign exchange derivative contracts, whether deliverable or non-deliverable, once cancelled after the issuance of the instructions.
April 2, 2026
Show AI Summary
Tax deduction statement filing governs quarterly reporting, electronic submission, correction limits, and acknowledgment for non-salary resident payments.
Form No. 140 is the quarterly electronic statement of deduction of tax at source for non-salary payments made to resident deductees, and it is mandatory for all deductors responsible for such payments. It must be filed within the prescribed quarterly due dates, cannot be edited after submission, and corrections may be filed only after processing by CPC-TDS within the specified two-year time limit. Successful filing on the TRACES portal generates an Acknowledgment Receipt Number.
April 2, 2026
Show AI Summary
Excess TDS and TCS refund claims move through a TRACES-based electronic form with pre-filled challan details and digital signing.
Form No. 139 is the electronic refund application by which a deductor, collector, or eligible taxpayer may claim refund of excess tax paid under Chapter XIX. Filing is permitted where the corresponding TDS or TCS statement has been processed and the excess remains as an unmatched or unconsumed challan credit. The application requires challan particulars, utilisation details, refund amount, declaration, digital signature, and supporting bank and tax records.
April 2, 2026
Show AI Summary
Excess TDS/TCS refund claims under Form No. 139 must be filed online, after processing, and only when credit remains unallowed.
Form No. 139 is the prescribed online application for a deductor or collector to claim refund of excess TDS/TCS deposited under Chapter XIX-B of the Income-tax Act, 2025, where the excess is not adjusted against any other liability in the system. The form may be filed only after the relevant statement has been processed, cannot be edited after acknowledgment is generated, and is not maintainable once the deductee has been allowed credit for the same tax. Approved refunds, along with interest, are credited to the prevalidated bank account, and refund arising from appellate or rectification orders does not require filing of the form.
April 2, 2026
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Quarterly TDS statement for salary and specified senior citizen income streamlines deductor reporting, annexures, and filing compliance.
Form No. 138 is the quarterly TDS statement for salary and specified senior citizen income, replacing Form 24Q and being filed under the Income-tax Act, 2025 and the Income-tax Rules, 2026. It is used by employers and specified deductors to report tax deducted and deposited, together with deductor particulars, deductee-wise details, and quarterly annexures. Annexure I applies to all quarters, while Annexure II and Annexure III are filed only in the last quarter for salary and specified senior citizen income details.
April 2, 2026
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Quarterly TDS statement filing requires electronic submission, prescribed annexures, correction limits, and timely compliance for tax credit reporting.
Form No. 138 is a quarterly electronic TDS statement required from employers deducting tax from salaries and specified banks deducting tax from pension and interest income of specified senior citizens. Only Annexure-I is filed for all quarters, while Annexure-II and Annexure-III are filed only for Q4. The form must be filed within the prescribed quarterly due dates, cannot be edited after submission, and may be corrected within two years after processing by CPC-TDS.

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Corp. Laws / SEBI / IBC

Adani wins US court hearing in push to throw out SEC fraud suit

April 8, 2026

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New York, Apr 8 (PTI) A US judge granted a request from billionaire Gautam Adani to schedule a hearing in his effort to dismiss a US Securities and Exchange Commission fraud case, which he says lacks necessary jurisdiction as well as fails on multiple reasons.

This followed lawyers of Adani and his nephew, Sagar filing a plea seeking dismissal of the case.

"The court has received Defendants' letter requesting a pre-motion conference on their anticipated motion to dismiss the Complaint. The court GRANTS that request and DIRECTS the parties" to schedule the pre-motion conference, the Eastern District court of New York said in its order.

In the filing, ​the Adanis' lawyers said there was no credible evidence supporting ​the alleged bribery scheme.

The SEC, they said, lacked necessary jurisdiction over the two men and that the alleged misstatements underpinning the case weren't actionable.

The case brought by SEC in November 2024 alongside a criminal complaint by the US Department of Justice, alleges that the Adanis sought to pay over USD 250 million in bribes to Indian officials to secure solar energy contracts and concealed the scheme from US investors and banks when they raised funds.

The Adani Group has denied all allegations, stating that none of its entities or executives have been charged under the US Foreign Corrupt Practices Act, and that Adani Green Energy - the renewable energy arm that raised the funds - is not a party to the proceedings.

While Gautam Adani chairs the Adani Group, Sagar Adani is executive director at Adani Green Energy.

The lawsuits had been stalled for over a year as the defendants, based in India, were not served notices. The group, which spans green energy, ports, realty, mining and news media, has continued to raise funds from global investors, including BlackRock, since the charges were filed.

The Brooklyn, New York court's decision to grant a hearing allows Adani to argue that the regulator's complaint should be thrown out at an early stage, potentially avoiding a protracted discovery process and trial.

In filings, Adani's legal team has argued that the case lacks sufficient jurisdictional basis and fails to establish actionable claims under US securities laws.

NO US JURISDICTION ------------------------ The Adanis argued that the court lacked personal jurisdiction, saying neither of them had sufficient contacts with the US or direct involvement in the bond offering.

The USD 750-million bond sale was conducted outside the United States under Rule 144A and Regulation S exemptions, with securities sold to non-US underwriters and only later resold in part to qualified institutional buyers, they said.

The plea stated that "in September 2021, Adani Green, which is not a US registrant, conducted a USD 750 million bond offering pursuant to SEC Rule 144A and SEC Regulation S, which are registration exemptions for private resales to qualified institutional buyers (QIBs) and for non-US sales, respectively".

"Adani Green sold all of the notes from the Offering outside the United States, via a Subscription Agreement, to non-US underwriters, who later resold the Notes to QIBs. A fraction of those resales -- in transactions to which Adani Green was not a party -- are alleged to have been made to 'investors in the United States'," it said.

The plea through the lawyers added that the complaint does not allege that Gautam Adani approved the issuance, attended key meetings, or directed any activity at US investors.

Stating that the SEC could not charge the two under the US Foreign Corrupt Practices Act, it instead recast its charges as a securities fraud case.

The filing states that the Adanis dispute that there is any credible evidence supporting the purported bribery scheme.

"Notably, the SEC does not allege that there were any investor losses, and there were none. The bonds have matured, and Adani Green repaid all principal and interest in full to investors in 2024," it added.

EXTRATERRITORIAL REACH CHALLENGED --------------------------------------------- The filing also contends the SEC's case is impermissibly extraterritorial, noting the securities were not listed in the United States, the issuer is Indian, and the alleged misconduct occurred entirely in India.

Citing US Supreme Court precedent, Adanis said the SEC failed to show any "domestic transaction", a requirement for applying US securities laws.

Under the sections invoked, the SEC must plausibly allege a "domestic transaction" and it must plead that "irrevocable liability was incurred or title was transferred within the United States".

The SEC charges against Adanis say nothing about where irrevocable liability was incurred, the plea said, adding that the mere fact, taken as true, that some downstream investors were located in the US is irrelevant to the case.

"The SEC's claims here solely involve Indian Defendants, an Indian issuer, securities not registered with the SEC and not traded on any US exchange, and underlying conduct alleged to have occurred exclusively in India," it said. "This case is thus conclusively beyond the reach of the US securities laws." NO INVESTOR LOSSES ------------------------- The defendants said the SEC does not allege any investor losses, adding that the bonds matured and were fully repaid with interest in 2024.

They also disputed the underlying bribery allegations, saying there is no credible evidence supporting such claims.

"The alleged bribery scheme relates to a solar energy project in India for the provision of renewable power in India. There is no allegation that any US company bid on the project, or that any US customer purchased energy in the project. In fact, there was no such US involvement," the plea said.

'PUFFERY' DEFENCE ---------------------- The filing argues that statements cited by the SEC -- relating to ESG commitments, anti-corruption practices, and corporate reputation -- amount to non-actionable "puffery", or general corporate optimism that investors cannot reasonably rely on.

It further said the SEC failed to link either defendant to specific misleading statements or demonstrate intent to defraud.

The defendants are seeking dismissal of the case in full and said they are prepared to appear for a pre-motion conference if required.

Adanis argued that the court lacks personal jurisdiction, saying neither had sufficient contacts with the US or direct involvement in the bond offering.

"The complaint contains no plausible allegation that Gautam Adani was involved in drafting, reviewing, or approving any document containing any alleged misstatement. Indeed, the SEC does not allege that Gautam Adani even knew these statements were being made," the plea said. "Because there are no allegations tying him to any alleged misstatement, the SEC's claims against Gautam Adani fail as a matter of law." The allegations against Sagar Adani are also deficient. "Even if 'multiple drafts' of the Offering Circular 'were provided to [him]', these allegations do not tie him to specific misstatements, much less show that he had 'ultimate authority' over their content," it said.

The SEC also fails to adequately plead that defendants acted with the requisite intent. "The SEC makes no plausible allegation that Defendants acted with knowledge or recklessness," it said.

The defendants intend to move to dismiss the SEC's complaint by April 30, 2026 and, as part of this process, have on April 7, 2026 submitted a letter with the EDNY (Eastern District New York) judge informing the court that the defendants are prepared to attend a pre-motion conference should the court wish to schedule one.

The filing of this letter is a standard procedural step in the legal process for the handling of such matters in accordance with the procedural rules prescribed by the EDNY judge.

In the letter, the defendants have briefly set out their grounds for dismissal of SEC's complaint, including that (i) the court concerned lacks personal jurisdiction over the defendants and the claims against them, (ii) the SEC's claims are impermissibly extraterritorial, (iii) the alleged misstatements by the defendants are too vague and general for any reasonable investor to rely upon as a guarantee of any concrete fact or outcome, making them inactionable, and (iii) the defendants' lack of involvement in the transaction bars the SEC's claims against them.

Gautam Adani is represented by Sullivan & Cromwell LLP, while Sagar Adani's counsel is Nixon Peabody LLP and Hecker Fink LLP.

SEC's CHARGES AGAINST ADANI ------------------------------------ The SEC has alleged that Gautam Adani, Sagar Adani and others orchestrated a USD 250 million-plus bribery scheme between 2020 and 2024 to secure solar energy contracts in India.

Their plea (termed as letter in US legal system) pointed out that SEC does not allege that there were any investor losses as there were none. The bonds have matured and all interest payments were made on time.

The court lacks personal jurisdiction over defendants and the claims against them should be dismissed under Rule 12(b)(2), the letter cited.

The SEC must plead that defendants had sufficient "minimum contacts" with the US and that the claims against them arose out of those activities, the letter pointed out. With respect to Gautam Adani, the SEC does not come close, the lawyers added.

The claims, according to the lawyers, "involve Indian Defendants, an Indian issuer, securities not registered with the SEC and not traded on US exchanges, and underlying conduct alleged to have occurred exclusively in India".

The SEC has not alleged underwriters who purchased the bonds from AGEL were US institutions as they weren't, or that the subscription agreement underlying the purchases was governed by US law as it wasn't.

"This case is thus conclusively beyond the reach of the US securities laws," the lawyers said.

The SEC has also failed to tie Sagar Adani to a single allegedly false or misleading statement, much less one directed at US investors, the letter added. PTI ANZ ANZ ANU ANU

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