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April 2, 2026
Show AI Summary
Lower or nil tax deduction certificate process under income tax law through electronic Form 128 filing and approval.
Form No. 128 is the electronic application under the Income-tax Act, 2025 for a certificate authorising lower or nil deduction of tax at source and lower collection of tax under section 395(1) and section 395(3). It may be filed by resident or non-resident applicants seeking reduced TDS or TCS on specified income, and requires applicant details, tax liability particulars, income estimates, supporting financial information, and payer/TAN details where applicable. The form is processed electronically, and any approved certificate can be shared with the payer for application of the authorised rate during its validity.
April 2, 2026
Show AI Summary
Lower or nil tax deduction certificate through TRACES requires advance electronic filing, PAN, and supporting documents.
Form No. 128 is the electronic application for a certificate authorising lower or nil deduction of income-tax and lower collection of income-tax under section 395(1) and section 395(3) of the Income-tax Act, 2025. The form is optional, must be filed through the TRACES portal before the relevant transaction, and cannot be processed once the TDS/TCS transaction is completed. It requires PAN, supporting documents, and electronic submission with e-verification.
April 2, 2026
Show AI Summary
Tax collection at source declaration for non-trading use of goods enables buyers to obtain goods without TCS.
Form No. 127 is the declaration required from a buyer to obtain goods without collection of tax at source where the goods are intended for manufacturing, processing, production, or generation of power and are not meant for trading. The buyer must furnish the declaration to the seller at or before the purchase or payment event, and the seller must verify the declaration, upload monthly details to the e-filing portal by the 7th of the following month, and forward the declaration to the tax authority.
April 2, 2026
Show AI Summary
TCS exemption declaration for specified goods requires PAN, timely filing, and seller reporting obligations.
Form No. 127 is a buyer's declaration under section 394(2) of the Income-tax Act, 2025 for obtaining specified goods without collection of tax at source. A resident buyer may furnish the declaration to the seller where the goods are intended for manufacturing, processing, producing articles or things, or generating power, and not for trading. PAN is mandatory, the declaration must be furnished on or before the date of transaction, and once received the seller must report the particulars and include the transactions in the quarterly TCS statement.
April 2, 2026
Show AI Summary
Tax deduction relief for non-resident branch operations through a unified Form No. 126 compliance framework.
Form No. 126 is a unified self-declaration and treaty-benefit request for specified non-residents carrying on business or profession in India through a branch to obtain a certificate for receipt of certain sums without deduction of tax at source. Banking companies and insurers, and other eligible non-resident persons, must satisfy the conditions in Rule 209, including tax compliance, branch-based receipt on own account, and, for non-banking applicants, continuous business in India for five years and prescribed fixed assets. The application is filed electronically, processed by the Assessing Officer, and the certificate remains valid for the relevant tax year unless cancelled earlier.
April 2, 2026
Show AI Summary
Rupee recovery follows RBI cap on banks' net open position amid capital outflows and crude-driven pressure.
Rupee recovered in early trade after the Reserve Bank of India capped banks' net open position in the onshore forward delivery market and required compliance by April 10, 2026. The currency remained under pressure from foreign capital outflows, a stronger dollar, rising crude oil prices, geopolitical volatility, widening trade deficit, declining remittances and sustained foreign portfolio investor selling.
April 2, 2026
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Customs duty exemption on critical petrochemical imports aims to stabilise supply chains and ease cost pressures.
Full customs duty exemption has been granted on specified critical petrochemical imports as a temporary and targeted measure to protect supply stability amid disruptions in global supply chains caused by the West Asia crisis. The exemption is intended to ensure continued availability of essential petrochemical inputs for domestic industry, reduce cost pressures on downstream sectors, and provide relief to consumers of final products. The exemption remains valid until June 30 and covers Methanol, Anhydrous ammonia, Toluene, Styrene, Dichloromethane, Vinyl chloride monomer, Poly butadiene, Styrene butadiene and Unsaturated polyester resins.
April 2, 2026
Show AI Summary
GST fraud through fake firms and fake invoices exposed alleged illegal input tax credit claims and circular trading.
GST fraud involving fake firms, shell companies, fake invoices and circular trading was detected during a police investigation. The alleged racket used fake Aadhaar and PAN details to unlawfully avail input tax credit and underreported sales in GST returns, causing an estimated loss of around Rs 3 crore to the government exchequer, with the total involvement suspected to be higher. One accused was arrested, while efforts continued to trace other persons involved.
April 1, 2026
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GST revenues rise on stronger imports and domestic sales, marking one of the highest monthly collections this fiscal.
GST revenues rose about 9 per cent in March to over two lakh crore rupees, reaching the third highest monthly collection in the 2025-26 fiscal. The increase was supported by higher receipts from imports as well as domestic sales and purchases, reflecting a recovery in tax mop-ups after earlier tax cuts.
April 1, 2026
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State GST collection growth in Haryana leads the country, driven by stronger compliance, economic activity and taxpayer base expansion.
State GST collection growth in Haryana was reported as the highest among all states in FY26, with post-settlement SGST collection rising to Rs 48,289 crore from Rs 39,743 crore in FY25. The increase of 21.5 per cent exceeded the national average SGST growth of 5.7 per cent. Total GST collection in the State also grew by 8.6 per cent, placing Haryana fifth among states and Union Territories in gross domestic GST collection.
April 1, 2026
Show AI Summary
Insolvency resolution framework tightened to speed up admissions, reduce delays, and support rescue of viable businesses.
Parliament has amended the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code to speed up admission and resolution of insolvency cases, reduce backlog, and preserve enterprise value. The changes introduce stricter timelines, greater reliance on information utilities, stronger liquidation oversight, and an enabling framework for group and cross-border insolvency. The bill also replaces the underused fast-track process with a creditor-initiated framework, exempts MSMEs from disqualification under specified provisions, and requires insolvency applications to be admitted within 14 days once default is established.
April 1, 2026
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Tax devolution dispute intensifies as Karnataka alleges unfair GST returns, denied compensation, and shrinking fiscal share.
Karnataka Chief Minister Siddaramaiah alleged that the Union Government's tax devolution and fiscal policy towards Karnataka amounted to tax terrorism or tax plunder, saying the state receives only a small share in return for its tax contribution. He said Karnataka has repeatedly raised concerns about unfair distribution of taxes, cess, surcharge revenues, GST compensation, and central funding, and claimed these issues have weakened the state's finances and increased dependence on borrowing. He also described GST implementation as flawed and unscientific, leading to significant financial losses.
April 1, 2026
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Money laundering probe leads to searches, cash seizure and firearm recovery in Kolkata-linked premises.
Money laundering investigation under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act led to searches at multiple premises in Kolkata linked to an alleged criminal syndicate, including the residence and commercial premises of an accused history-sheeter, a business entity, and associated persons. During the raids, the Enforcement Directorate seized about Rs 1.2 crore cash from a location linked to one associate and recovered a country-made pistol from the accused's premises.
April 1, 2026
Show AI Summary
Corporate resolution under insolvency law gains faster admission, stronger creditor oversight, and MSME promoter participation safeguards.
The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code is presented as a framework for corporate resolution and banking-sector improvement through asset recovery, with liquidation remaining a residual measure where resolution fails. The current amendments focus on expeditious admission based on the existence of default, greater reliance on information utilities, statutory timelines, stronger liquidation oversight, and a creditor-initiated insolvency framework with out-of-court initiation, debtor-in-possession structure, and defined timelines. The amendments also enable group and cross-border insolvency and exempt MSMEs from specified disqualifications so that existing promoters may participate in resolution.
April 1, 2026
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Insolvency and bankruptcy reform debate centers on creditor haircuts, tribunal backlog, and concerns over corporate defaulter protection.
The Rajya Sabha debated the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (Amendment) Bill, 2026, amid criticism of repeated amendments, substantial creditor haircuts, alleged favouritism toward large corporate defaulters, and ongoing pendency and infrastructure bottlenecks in insolvency tribunals. Members raised concerns over proposed creditor-initiated insolvency changes, executive rule-making on cross-border insolvency, and the limited effectiveness of MSME resolution mechanisms, while others supported the Code and urged stronger institutional capacity and better use of insolvency funds.
April 1, 2026
Show AI Summary
Tax deduction at source relief for branch-based non-residents through Form No. 126 and Assessing Officer certification.
Form No. 126 is an optional self-declaration and treaty-benefit request for a specified non-resident person carrying on business or profession in India through a branch, to obtain an Assessing Officer certificate authorising receipt of specified sums without deduction of tax at source. Eligibility depends on whether the applicant is a banking company or insurer, or another branch-based business or profession, and the form must be filed online before income is received. The certificate is valid for the relevant tax year unless cancelled earlier.
April 1, 2026
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Specified senior citizen declaration governs pension and interest income reporting, bank deduction, and return-filing exemption.
Form No. 125 is the declaration furnished by a specified senior citizen to the specified bank for pension and interest income. It applies to a resident aged seventy-five years or more who has pension income and only interest from the same specified bank, and who gives the prescribed declaration. The form is used by the deductor for reporting and is stated to exempt the taxpayer from return-filing compliance for the relevant tax year. It is filed once each financial year and requires key personal, bank, pension, and tax-regime details.
April 1, 2026
Show AI Summary
Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code amendments aim to speed resolution, cut backlog, and strengthen the financial ecosystem.
Amendments to the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code were passed to accelerate insolvency resolution, reduce case backlog, and strengthen the financial ecosystem. The changes focus on shortening the time taken for admission of insolvency resolution applications and improving the efficiency of the resolution framework. The government accepted all recommendations made by the Lok Sabha Select Committee and added one further recommendation from the Ministry of Corporate Affairs.
April 1, 2026
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Specified senior citizen declaration governs return-filing exemption for pension and interest income through a specified bank.
Form No. 125 is the declaration to be furnished by a specified senior citizen in relation to pension income and interest received or receivable through a specified bank. The declaration is confined to pension and interest income and does not extend to other income. Filing the form enables exemption from filing an income-tax return, while the specified bank computes total income and deducts tax accordingly. The form must be submitted once for each tax year, may be filed in paper or electronically, and may be revised or withdrawn if income details change.
April 1, 2026
Show AI Summary
Tax deduction at source claims form requires employee details, supporting evidence, and annual disclosure to employer.
Form No. 124 is the employee's statement of particulars of claims for deduction of tax at source under section 392(5)(b) of the Income-tax Act, 2025 read with Rule 205 of the Income-tax Rules, 2026. It is furnished to the current employer so that deductions, exemptions and allowances may be considered for correct tax deduction from salary. The form is filed once every financial year and requires employee details, claim particulars, supporting evidence and a declaration that the particulars are correct and complete.

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Corp. Laws / SEBI / IBC

Adani seeks dismissal of SEC case, cites extraterritorial overreach, lack of jurisdiction

April 7, 2026

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New York, Apr 7 (PTI) Billionaire Gautam Adani have moved a US court seeking dismissal of a US Securities and Exchange Commission's securities fraud lawsuit, arguing the case represents an impermissible extraterritorial application of US law and fails for lack of personal jurisdiction.

The SEC had sued Adani Group founder and his nephew, Sagar, in November 2024, alleging they misled investors by failing to disclose an alleged bribery scheme tied to Indian state officials, framing the case under US securities laws.

Denying all allegations, the two through their lawyers filed a pre-motion letter ahead of a planned April 30 motion to dismiss in the Eastern District Court of New York.

In the plea, they said the SEC's claims over a 2021 bond sale by the group's renewable energy arm, Adani Green Energy Ltd (AGEL) are legally flawed on multiple grounds.

NO US JURISDICTION ------------------------ The Adanis argued that the court lacked personal jurisdiction, saying neither of them had sufficient contacts with the US or direct involvement in the bond offering.

The USD 750-million bond sale was conducted outside the United States under Rule 144A and Regulation S exemptions, with securities sold to non-US underwriters and only later resold in part to qualified institutional buyers, they said.

The plea stated that "in September 2021, Adani Green, which is not a US registrant, conducted a USD 750 million bond offering pursuant to SEC Rule 144A and SEC Regulation S, which are registration exemptions for private resales to qualified institutional buyers (QIBs) and for non-US sales, respectively".

"Adani Green sold all of the notes from the Offering outside the United States, via a Subscription Agreement, to non-US underwriters, who later resold the Notes to QIBs. A fraction of those resales -- in transactions to which Adani Green was not a party -- are alleged to have been made to 'investors in the United States'," it said.

The plea through the lawyers added that the complaint does not allege that Gautam Adani approved the issuance, attended key meetings, or directed any activity at US investors.

Stating that the SEC could not charge the two under the US Foreign Corrupt Practices Act, it instead recast its charges as a securities fraud case.

The filing states that the Adanis dispute that there is any credible evidence supporting the purported bribery scheme.

"Notably, the SEC does not allege that there were any investor losses, and there were none. The bonds have matured, and Adani Green repaid all principal and interest in full to investors in 2024," it added.

EXTRATERRITORIAL REACH CHALLENGED --------------------------------------------- The filing also contends the SEC's case is impermissibly extraterritorial, noting the securities were not listed in the United States, the issuer is Indian, and the alleged misconduct occurred entirely in India.

Citing US Supreme Court precedent, Adanis said the SEC failed to show any "domestic transaction", a requirement for applying US securities laws.

Under the sections invoked, the SEC must plausibly allege a "domestic transaction" and it must plead that "irrevocable liability was incurred or title was transferred within the United States".

The SEC charges against Adanis say nothing about where irrevocable liability was incurred, the plea said, adding that the mere fact, taken as true, that some downstream investors were located in the US is irrelevant to the case.

"The SEC's claims here solely involve Indian Defendants, an Indian issuer, securities not registered with the SEC and not traded on any US exchange, and underlying conduct alleged to have occurred exclusively in India," it said. "This case is thus conclusively beyond the reach of the US securities laws." NO INVESTOR LOSSES ------------------------- The defendants said the SEC does not allege any investor losses, adding that the bonds matured and were fully repaid with interest in 2024.

They also disputed the underlying bribery allegations, saying there is no credible evidence supporting such claims.

"The alleged bribery scheme relates to a solar energy project in India for the provision of renewable power in India. There is no allegation that any US company bid on the project, or that any US customer purchased energy in the project. In fact, there was no such US involvement," the plea said.

'PUFFERY' DEFENCE ---------------------- The filing argues that statements cited by the SEC -- relating to ESG commitments, anti-corruption practices, and corporate reputation -- amount to non-actionable "puffery", or general corporate optimism that investors cannot reasonably rely on.

It further said the SEC failed to link either defendant to specific misleading statements or demonstrate intent to defraud.

The defendants are seeking dismissal of the case in full and said they are prepared to appear for a pre-motion conference if required.

Adanis argued that the court lacks personal jurisdiction, saying neither had sufficient contacts with the US or direct involvement in the bond offering.

"The complaint contains no plausible allegation that Gautam Adani was involved in drafting, reviewing, or approving any document containing any alleged misstatement. Indeed, the SEC does not allege that Gautam Adani even knew these statements were being made," the plea said. "Because there are no allegations tying him to any alleged misstatement, the SEC's claims against Gautam Adani fail as a matter of law." The allegations against Sagar Adani are also deficient. "Even if 'multiple drafts' of the Offering Circular 'were provided to [him]', these allegations do not tie him to specific misstatements, much less show that he had 'ultimate authority' over their content," it said.

The SEC also fails to adequately plead that defendants acted with the requisite intent. "The SEC makes no plausible allegation that Defendants acted with knowledge or recklessness," it said.

The defendants intend to move to dismiss the SEC's complaint by April 30, 2026 and, as part of this process, have on April 7, 2026 submitted a letter with the EDNY (Eastern District New York) judge informing the court that the defendants are prepared to attend a pre-motion conference should the court wish to schedule one.

The filing of this letter is a standard procedural step in the legal process for the handling of such matters in accordance with the procedural rules prescribed by the EDNY judge.

In the letter, the defendants have briefly set out their grounds for dismissal of SEC's complaint, including that (i) the court concerned lacks personal jurisdiction over the defendants and the claims against them, (ii) the SEC's claims are impermissibly extraterritorial, (iii) the alleged misstatements by the defendants are too vague and general for any reasonable investor to rely upon as a guarantee of any concrete fact or outcome, making them inactionable, and (iii) the defendants' lack of involvement in the transaction bars the SEC's claims against them.

Gautam Adani is represented by Sullivan & Cromwell LLP, while Sagar Adani's counsel is Nixon Peabody LLP and Hecker Fink LLP.

SEC's CHARGES AGAINST ADANI ------------------------------------ The SEC has alleged that Gautam Adani, Sagar Adani and others orchestrated a USD 250 million-plus bribery scheme between 2020 and 2024 to secure solar energy contracts in India.

Their plea (termed as letter in US legal system) pointed out that SEC does not allege that there were any investor losses as there were none. The bonds have matured and all interest payments were made on time.

The court lacks personal jurisdiction over defendants and the claims against them should be dismissed under Rule 12(b)(2), the letter cited.

The SEC must plead that defendants had sufficient "minimum contacts" with the US and that the claims against them arose out of those activities, the letter pointed out. With respect to Gautam Adani, the SEC does not come close, the lawyers added.

The claims, according to the lawyers, "involve Indian Defendants, an Indian issuer, securities not registered with the SEC and not traded on US exchanges, and underlying conduct alleged to have occurred exclusively in India".

The SEC has not alleged underwriters who purchased the bonds from AGEL were US institutions as they weren't, or that the subscription agreement underlying the purchases was governed by US law as it wasn't.

"This case is thus conclusively beyond the reach of the US securities laws," the lawyers said.

The SEC has also failed to tie Sagar Adani to a single allegedly false or misleading statement, much less one directed at US investors, the letter added. PTI ANZ ANZ TRB TRB

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