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March 30, 2026
Show AI Summary
TDS credit mismatch relief through Form No. 102 allows taxpayers to align credit with the correct tax year online.
Form No. 102 is an optional online application for claiming TDS credit where income was included in a return for one tax year but the tax was deducted and deposited in a subsequent tax year. It may be filed by any taxpayer to align the TDS credit with the correct tax year in cases of timing mismatch, subject to a filing window of two years from the end of the financial year in which the TDS was deducted and reported. The form contains Part A and Part B, requires a valid PAN, cannot be edited after submission, and is filed only through the e-filing portal.
March 30, 2026
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Tax evasion detection in hospitality sector expands through data analytics, GST matching, and digital payment verification.
A state-wide tax enforcement drive in the hospitality sector has identified suspected turnover suppression through data analytics, risk assessment, and comparison with GST returns. The investigation covers establishments such as dhabas, restaurants, eateries, bakeries, sweet shops, and catering services, using tax intelligence inputs, online billing data, and digital payment records to verify reported turnover against actual receipts.
March 30, 2026
Show AI Summary
Inventory valuation report requirements under tax law govern Cost Accountant certification, filing timelines, and verification of inventory valuation.
Form 101 is the prescribed inventory valuation report to be furnished by a Cost Accountant when an Assessing Officer directs valuation of inventories under Section 268(5)(ii) of the Income-tax Act, 2025 read with Rule 171. It is used to support correct inventory valuation for tax computation and verification, and is filed only when special valuation is directed. The report must be submitted within the time allowed by the Assessing Officer, subject to any extension not exceeding six months from the end of the month in which the direction is received.
March 30, 2026
Show AI Summary
Inventory valuation reporting in Form 101 requires Cost Accountant certification when valuation is directed for tax compliance.
Inventory Valuation Report in Form 101 is furnished by an assessee when the Assessing Officer directs inventory valuation under section 268(5)(ii) of the Income-tax Act, 2025 read with rule 171 of the Income-tax Rules, 2026. The report is prepared and certified by a Cost Accountant after examining books, records and supporting documents, and is used for accurate inventory valuation for tax computation, verification and compliance with the Income Computation and Disclosure Standards. Form 101 is filed only for the tax year in which the direction is issued, within the time allowed by the Assessing Officer.
March 30, 2026
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E-commerce moratorium and TRIPS safeguard lapse as WTO ministers fail to reach consensus on digital trade rules.
Failure of the WTO ministerial conference to reach consensus on the extension of the e-commerce moratorium left unresolved the commitment not to impose customs duties on electronic transmissions. The deadlock reflected differing positions on the duration of the extension, and the lapse raises the prospect that members may impose import duties on digital transmissions. The same impasse also ended the safeguard against non-violation complaints under the TRIPS Agreement, increasing the risk that WTO-compliant measures may be challenged for affecting expected commercial gains.
March 30, 2026
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Proceeds of crime attachment under PMLA prevails over debt recovery laws in tainted asset proceedings.
Attachment of proceeds of crime under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act was described as prevailing over debt recovery legislation, including the SARFAESI and RDB Acts, where the property is linked to money laundering. The key legal point is that the PMLA operates with overriding effect in relation to attachment proceedings concerning tainted assets, and debt recovery mechanisms do not displace action taken under the anti-money laundering framework.
March 30, 2026
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Special audit report requirements under income tax law clarified for Form 100, supporting compliance and verification.
Form 100 is the audit report furnished by an Accountant when an assessee is directed to get accounts audited under section 268(5)(i) of the Income-tax Act, 2025. It certifies examination of the books of account and financial statements and records whether the accounts present a true and fair view. The report is filed only on a special audit direction, together with supporting financial statements, books, bank statements, and applicable audit reports, within the period specified by the Assessing Officer.
March 30, 2026
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ESG performance and sustainability leadership drive YES BANK's top ranking in S&P Global's banking assessment.
YES BANK reported improved ESG performance under the S&P Global Corporate Sustainability Assessment 2025, with a score of 79 out of 100 and recognition as India's highest-rated bank in the assessment. The bank stated that this result marked its fourth consecutive inclusion in the S&P Global Sustainability Yearbook and placed it among the top 15% of global banking leaders, based on evaluation across climate strategy, operational eco-efficiency, financial inclusion, human capital development, human rights, corporate governance, and risk management.
March 30, 2026
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RBI foreign exchange restrictions and weak crude-linked sentiment deepen pressure on equities and banking stocks.
Indian equity markets ended sharply lower amid escalating geopolitical tensions in West Asia, higher crude oil prices, weak global cues, and continued foreign fund outflows. Banking stocks faced additional pressure after RBI restrictions on banks' foreign exchange positions aimed at stabilising the rupee, while market participants flagged oil-price volatility and rupee weakness as risks to input costs and near-term earnings revisions.
March 30, 2026
Show AI Summary
Special audit report filing under Form 100 requires accountant certification, supporting records, and online submission compliance.
Form 100 is the audit report to be furnished by an Accountant when the Assessing Officer directs a special audit under section 268(5)(i). It certifies examination of the assessee's accounts and their true and fair view, and is filed only for the tax year in which the direction is issued. The form requires signed verification, supporting financial and accounting records, and submission through the e-filing portal with annexures and documents. The revised form aligns with the Income-tax Act, 2025 and uses simplified tabular reporting.
March 30, 2026
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Income-tax rate changes and procedural reforms reshape reassessment, penalties, tax credits, and indirect tax schedules in the finance bill.
Finance Bill, 2026 gives effect to the Central Government's financial proposals for the financial year 2026-2027 and operates as the Finance Act, 2026 with specified commencement dates. It revises income-tax rates, surcharge structures and health and education cess, and makes extensive amendments to the Income-tax Act, 1961 and the Income-tax Act, 2025 covering reassessment, return filing, assessment timelines, interest, penalty, waiver, immunity, tax credits, deductions, and related procedural rules. The Bill also updates indirect tax provisions, including customs, customs tariff and GST-linked schedule entries, by substituting, inserting and omitting specified rates and classifications.
March 30, 2026
Show AI Summary
Income-tax appeal filing in Form 99 requires electronic submission of facts, grounds, supporting documents and disputed details.
Form No. 99 is prescribed for filing an appeal before the Joint Commissioner of Income-tax (Appeals) or the Commissioner of Income-tax (Appeals) against an appealable order passed by an Income-tax Authority. It is furnished electronically and captures the relevant order, taxes paid, disputed amounts, grounds of appeal, statement of facts, supporting documents and additional evidence, so that the appeal may be registered and processed in the prescribed appellate manner.
March 30, 2026
Show AI Summary
PMLA attachment of proceeds of crime overrides prior secured interests under debt recovery laws in property disputes.
PMLA has an overriding confiscatory framework for attachment of proceeds of crime, and its operation is not displaced merely because the attached property is subject to a prior mortgage or secured interest under debt recovery laws. The court noted that SARFAESI and the Recovery of Debts and Bankruptcy Act serve different objects and cannot prevail over PMLA in attachment proceedings. Where confiscation has been ordered or trial has commenced, claims of legitimate interest in the attached property must be adjudicated by the Special Court.
March 30, 2026
Show AI Summary
Census data confidentiality and land dispute adjudication qualifications shape key legal concerns in recent public interest litigation.
Individual census data is to remain confidential and cannot be used as evidence or to obtain benefits under any government scheme. A public interest petition has also sought a revenue judicial service for land disputes, with minimum legal qualifications and training for public servants adjudicating such matters.
March 30, 2026
Show AI Summary
Electronic appeal filing under Form 99 requires timely submission, tax compliance, verified grounds, and prescribed supporting disclosures.
Form 99 is the prescribed electronic appeal form for filing an appeal before the Joint Commissioner of Income-tax (Appeals) or the Commissioner of Income-tax (Appeals) against an appealable order under the Income-tax Act, 2025. The appeal is optional and must be filed within 30 days from the relevant date. The form requires disclosure of appellant details, order particulars, disputed amounts, pending appeals, grounds of appeal, additional evidence, delay condonation, appeal fees, and supporting documents. Filing is subject to statutory tax-payment conditions, must be electronically filed where return e-filing is mandatory, cannot be revised after verification, and must be verified by the appellant or an authorised person.
March 30, 2026
Show AI Summary
Quarterly non-resident reporting in Form 92 mandates structured electronic filing, annexure declarations, and standardized identity details.
Quarterly reporting in Form 92 requires specified funds and stock brokers dealing with non-resident clients to furnish standardised information under Rule 157 through the Income-tax Department's electronic filing system. The form is submitted quarterly, may include multiple non-residents in one return, and is intended to support monitoring, compliance, verification of residency particulars, and information exchange for cross-border investments. Form 92 uses a structured Part A and Part B format, requires Annexure A-1 declarations from each non-resident, and calls for PAN details of the filer, with no other supporting documents to be uploaded.
March 30, 2026
Show AI Summary
Banking outlet coverage through GIS monitoring expands access in villages under RBI-guided infrastructure planning.
Banking outlet coverage in inhabited villages is monitored through the Jan Dhan Darshak GIS-based application, which tracks bank branches, Business Correspondents and India Post Payments Bank outlets within a five-kilometre radius. On the basis of bank-uploaded data, 99.92% of villages in the country and 100% of villages in Dadra and Nagar Haveli are covered within the prescribed radius. Expansion in uncovered areas is a continuous process under extant RBI guidelines, overseen by the State Level Bankers' Committee or Union Territory Level Bankers' Committee.
March 30, 2026
Show AI Summary
Kisan Credit Card access expands through digital issuance, concessional lending, and stronger grievance redressal for farmers.
Measures supporting the Kisan Credit Card ecosystem focus on expanding credit access, improving digital issuance, and strengthening financial inclusion for farmers, including small and marginal farmers. Priority Sector Lending guidelines and the Ground Level Agriculture Credit target operate as key policy instruments for scaling KCC coverage, with a sub-target for small and marginal farmers and incentive and disincentive frameworks intended to encourage more equitable agricultural credit distribution. The KCC scheme also covers working capital for animal husbandry, dairying and fisheries, while the Modified Interest Subvention Scheme provides concessional short-term agricultural loans through KCC with an additional prompt repayment incentive.
March 30, 2026
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Priority sector lending supports rural credit flow through agriculture targets, refinance support, and self-help group programmes.
Priority sector lending and related government measures are used to maintain uninterrupted rural credit flow for agriculture, MSMEs and self-help groups. Reserve Bank of India policy requires specified banks to allocate at least 18% of adjusted net bank credit or credit equivalent of off-balance sheet exposures, whichever is higher, to agriculture, with a 10% sub-target for small and marginal farmers. Concessional refinance support and NABARD programmes further assist rural financial institutions, self-help groups and microenterprises.
March 30, 2026
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Rupee volatility and RBI forex exposure cap reshape market sentiment amid geopolitical tensions and dollar strength.
Rupee volatility in foreign exchange markets intensified amid geopolitical tensions, risk-off sentiment, elevated dollar demand and firmer crude prices, with the currency touching an intra-day low before settling lower against the US dollar. The Reserve Bank of India reduced the net open position that banks may maintain overnight and capped the Net Open Position (NOP-INR) for banks at USD 100 million, with compliance required by 10 April, as part of oversight of banks' foreign exchange exposure.

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PMLA / Black Money

Delhi Court grants bail to 'conman' Sukesh Chandrasekhar in ED case

April 7, 2026

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New Delhi, Apr 7 (PTI) A Delhi court on Tuesday granted bail to alleged conman Sukesh Chandrasekhar in an ED case related to the AIADMK's "two leaves" election symbol, noting that he had undergone detention exceeding half of the maximum seven-year sentence prescribed under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act.

Special Judge Vishal Gogne said the court's decisions cannot "preach liberty", the most sacrosanct constitutional norm, while "playing footsie with the state upon the bogey of special legislation or economic offences".

Chandrasekhar, who has been incarcerated in the present case since April 1, 2022, will, however, remain in jail in other pending cases lodged against him. He has secured bail in 26 out of 31 cases against him.

The Enforcement Directorate's (ED's) case stems from a 2017 Delhi Police FIR, which alleged that Chandrasekhar acted as a middleman for AIADMK leader T T V Dinakaran and tried to bribe an Election Commission of India (ECI) official to secure the party's "two leaves" symbol for the faction led by V K Sasikala.

The FIR alleged that Rs 1.3 crore cash was recovered from the accused, which was allegedly intended to be used for exercising undue influence with the ECI for obtaining a favourable election symbol for the Sasikala faction of the AIADMK.

According to the federal agency, Chandrasekhar coordinated with Dinakaran for the generation of proceeds of crime of Rs 2 crore and got it transferred from Chennai to Delhi, and later utilised and projected the proceeds of Rs 63.78 lakh as untainted money by making certain payments.

"Liberty being the most sacrosanct norm in our Constitution, the court cannot preach liberty from its decisions while playing footsie with the state upon the bogey of special legislation or economic offences," Judge Gogne said.

He said while the offence of money laundering remains grave in nature, a special legislation like PMLA is not a "grouse" of the state to be exacted upon the liberty of an accused through the court.

"Thus, the existence even of 31 cases (including the present case) against the accused does not defeat his right to bail in this particular case when the period of detention has crossed the threshold of half of the period of proposed imprisonment under section 4 (punishment for money laundering) of the PMLA, more so, when he is already on bail in 26 out of the 31 cases," the judge said.

He noted that proceedings in the present case and in the predicate offence had been effectively stayed by the Delhi High Court, and that in the present case the accused "has not only served excessive detention during trial but also stands to suffer further prolonged detention without trial".

The high court had stayed the proceedings in the predicate case, which was at the stage of prosecution submitting its evidence, on September 30, 2019, while the ED case, at the stage of the accused leading defence evidence, had been stayed through its order dated January 6, 2024.

Rejecting the agency's "strident opposition" to the bail plea, the judge said that speedy trial of the accused was improbable and that "the circumstances of the accused" were "ripe" for extending him the near-mandatory benefit under Section 479 (1) of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS).

The provision mandates that a person who has spent half of the maximum imprisonment period as an undertrial, except for offences punishable with death or life imprisonment, would be released on bail.

Allowing the plea, the judge said, "The court would record a plea of its judicial conscience to state that while liberty may, more often than not, lend itself to absolutism, arguments advocating wanton restraint upon liberty merit no such indulgence." The court directed the accused to furnish a personal bond and surety bond of Rs 5 lakh each, besides imposing several other stringent conditions.

These include the accused not contacting, influencing or coercing any person or witness, furnishing his address and mobile phone number, surrendering his passport and not leaving the country.

The present court had earlier granted him bail in the Delhi Police's case for the scheduled offences under the Indian Penal Code (IPC) and the Prevention of Corruption Act provisions on August 30, 2024. PTI MNR MNR KSS KSS

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Acts Income Tax