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April 2, 2026
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Income-tax simplification and modernisation as the new Act replaces the old regime with streamlined compliance measures.
The Income-tax Act, 2025 comes into force from 1 April 2026 and replaces the long-standing Income-tax Act, 1961. The reform is presented as a comprehensive simplification and modernisation of India's direct tax framework, aimed at improving clarity, ease of compliance, and reader-friendly presentation without altering the underlying tax policy. The Income-tax Rules, 2026 have been notified to operationalise the new Act, and the corresponding forms have also been issued to make compliance simpler.
April 2, 2026
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Export obligation discharge certificates see accelerated disposal under a special drive to clear backlog and ease exporter compliance.
The Directorate General of Foreign Trade conducted a time-bound special drive for expeditious issuance of Export Obligation Discharge Certificates under the Advance Authorisation and Export Promotion Capital Goods schemes, with daily monitoring by senior officials to accelerate closure of export obligations and improve trade facilitation. The drive was designed to support an exporter-friendly ecosystem by enabling release of bank guarantees and bonds, reducing grievance burden, and strengthening compliance monitoring under the foreign trade framework. In view of the campaign's results, the special drive was extended for a further two months with fresh guidelines. The extension continues the administrative effort to expedite EODC disposal, support timely closure of export obligations, and reduce the operational burden on exporters.
April 2, 2026
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Conditional customs duty concessions for SEZ to DTA clearances impose value addition, cap limits, and anti-double-benefit safeguards.
Conditional customs duty concessions are notified for clearance of goods manufactured in Special Economic Zones to the Domestic Tariff Area, subject to a ceiling of 30 per cent of the highest annual Free on Board export value in the preceding three financial years. Eligible units must satisfy minimum 20 per cent value addition, obtain a Development Commissioner's certificate, and comply with audit requirements, while export benefits such as duty drawback on inputs are barred to prevent double benefits.
April 2, 2026
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Lower or nil tax deduction certificate process under income tax law through electronic Form 128 filing and approval.
Form No. 128 is the electronic application under the Income-tax Act, 2025 for a certificate authorising lower or nil deduction of tax at source and lower collection of tax under section 395(1) and section 395(3). It may be filed by resident or non-resident applicants seeking reduced TDS or TCS on specified income, and requires applicant details, tax liability particulars, income estimates, supporting financial information, and payer/TAN details where applicable. The form is processed electronically, and any approved certificate can be shared with the payer for application of the authorised rate during its validity.
April 2, 2026
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Lower or nil tax deduction certificate through TRACES requires advance electronic filing, PAN, and supporting documents.
Form No. 128 is the electronic application for a certificate authorising lower or nil deduction of income-tax and lower collection of income-tax under section 395(1) and section 395(3) of the Income-tax Act, 2025. The form is optional, must be filed through the TRACES portal before the relevant transaction, and cannot be processed once the TDS/TCS transaction is completed. It requires PAN, supporting documents, and electronic submission with e-verification.
April 2, 2026
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Tax collection at source declaration for non-trading use of goods enables buyers to obtain goods without TCS.
Form No. 127 is the declaration required from a buyer to obtain goods without collection of tax at source where the goods are intended for manufacturing, processing, production, or generation of power and are not meant for trading. The buyer must furnish the declaration to the seller at or before the purchase or payment event, and the seller must verify the declaration, upload monthly details to the e-filing portal by the 7th of the following month, and forward the declaration to the tax authority.
April 2, 2026
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TCS exemption declaration for specified goods requires PAN, timely filing, and seller reporting obligations.
Form No. 127 is a buyer's declaration under section 394(2) of the Income-tax Act, 2025 for obtaining specified goods without collection of tax at source. A resident buyer may furnish the declaration to the seller where the goods are intended for manufacturing, processing, producing articles or things, or generating power, and not for trading. PAN is mandatory, the declaration must be furnished on or before the date of transaction, and once received the seller must report the particulars and include the transactions in the quarterly TCS statement.
April 2, 2026
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Tax deduction relief for non-resident branch operations through a unified Form No. 126 compliance framework.
Form No. 126 is a unified self-declaration and treaty-benefit request for specified non-residents carrying on business or profession in India through a branch to obtain a certificate for receipt of certain sums without deduction of tax at source. Banking companies and insurers, and other eligible non-resident persons, must satisfy the conditions in Rule 209, including tax compliance, branch-based receipt on own account, and, for non-banking applicants, continuous business in India for five years and prescribed fixed assets. The application is filed electronically, processed by the Assessing Officer, and the certificate remains valid for the relevant tax year unless cancelled earlier.
April 2, 2026
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Rupee recovery follows RBI cap on banks' net open position amid capital outflows and crude-driven pressure.
Rupee recovered in early trade after the Reserve Bank of India capped banks' net open position in the onshore forward delivery market and required compliance by April 10, 2026. The currency remained under pressure from foreign capital outflows, a stronger dollar, rising crude oil prices, geopolitical volatility, widening trade deficit, declining remittances and sustained foreign portfolio investor selling.
April 2, 2026
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Customs duty exemption on critical petrochemical imports aims to stabilise supply chains and ease cost pressures.
Full customs duty exemption has been granted on specified critical petrochemical imports as a temporary and targeted measure to protect supply stability amid disruptions in global supply chains caused by the West Asia crisis. The exemption is intended to ensure continued availability of essential petrochemical inputs for domestic industry, reduce cost pressures on downstream sectors, and provide relief to consumers of final products. The exemption remains valid until June 30 and covers Methanol, Anhydrous ammonia, Toluene, Styrene, Dichloromethane, Vinyl chloride monomer, Poly butadiene, Styrene butadiene and Unsaturated polyester resins.
April 2, 2026
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GST fraud through fake firms and fake invoices exposed alleged illegal input tax credit claims and circular trading.
GST fraud involving fake firms, shell companies, fake invoices and circular trading was detected during a police investigation. The alleged racket used fake Aadhaar and PAN details to unlawfully avail input tax credit and underreported sales in GST returns, causing an estimated loss of around Rs 3 crore to the government exchequer, with the total involvement suspected to be higher. One accused was arrested, while efforts continued to trace other persons involved.
April 1, 2026
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GST revenues rise on stronger imports and domestic sales, marking one of the highest monthly collections this fiscal.
GST revenues rose about 9 per cent in March to over two lakh crore rupees, reaching the third highest monthly collection in the 2025-26 fiscal. The increase was supported by higher receipts from imports as well as domestic sales and purchases, reflecting a recovery in tax mop-ups after earlier tax cuts.
April 1, 2026
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State GST collection growth in Haryana leads the country, driven by stronger compliance, economic activity and taxpayer base expansion.
State GST collection growth in Haryana was reported as the highest among all states in FY26, with post-settlement SGST collection rising to Rs 48,289 crore from Rs 39,743 crore in FY25. The increase of 21.5 per cent exceeded the national average SGST growth of 5.7 per cent. Total GST collection in the State also grew by 8.6 per cent, placing Haryana fifth among states and Union Territories in gross domestic GST collection.
April 1, 2026
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Insolvency resolution framework tightened to speed up admissions, reduce delays, and support rescue of viable businesses.
Parliament has amended the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code to speed up admission and resolution of insolvency cases, reduce backlog, and preserve enterprise value. The changes introduce stricter timelines, greater reliance on information utilities, stronger liquidation oversight, and an enabling framework for group and cross-border insolvency. The bill also replaces the underused fast-track process with a creditor-initiated framework, exempts MSMEs from disqualification under specified provisions, and requires insolvency applications to be admitted within 14 days once default is established.
April 1, 2026
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Tax devolution dispute intensifies as Karnataka alleges unfair GST returns, denied compensation, and shrinking fiscal share.
Karnataka Chief Minister Siddaramaiah alleged that the Union Government's tax devolution and fiscal policy towards Karnataka amounted to tax terrorism or tax plunder, saying the state receives only a small share in return for its tax contribution. He said Karnataka has repeatedly raised concerns about unfair distribution of taxes, cess, surcharge revenues, GST compensation, and central funding, and claimed these issues have weakened the state's finances and increased dependence on borrowing. He also described GST implementation as flawed and unscientific, leading to significant financial losses.
April 1, 2026
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Money laundering probe leads to searches, cash seizure and firearm recovery in Kolkata-linked premises.
Money laundering investigation under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act led to searches at multiple premises in Kolkata linked to an alleged criminal syndicate, including the residence and commercial premises of an accused history-sheeter, a business entity, and associated persons. During the raids, the Enforcement Directorate seized about Rs 1.2 crore cash from a location linked to one associate and recovered a country-made pistol from the accused's premises.
April 1, 2026
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Corporate resolution under insolvency law gains faster admission, stronger creditor oversight, and MSME promoter participation safeguards.
The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code is presented as a framework for corporate resolution and banking-sector improvement through asset recovery, with liquidation remaining a residual measure where resolution fails. The current amendments focus on expeditious admission based on the existence of default, greater reliance on information utilities, statutory timelines, stronger liquidation oversight, and a creditor-initiated insolvency framework with out-of-court initiation, debtor-in-possession structure, and defined timelines. The amendments also enable group and cross-border insolvency and exempt MSMEs from specified disqualifications so that existing promoters may participate in resolution.
April 1, 2026
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Insolvency and bankruptcy reform debate centers on creditor haircuts, tribunal backlog, and concerns over corporate defaulter protection.
The Rajya Sabha debated the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (Amendment) Bill, 2026, amid criticism of repeated amendments, substantial creditor haircuts, alleged favouritism toward large corporate defaulters, and ongoing pendency and infrastructure bottlenecks in insolvency tribunals. Members raised concerns over proposed creditor-initiated insolvency changes, executive rule-making on cross-border insolvency, and the limited effectiveness of MSME resolution mechanisms, while others supported the Code and urged stronger institutional capacity and better use of insolvency funds.
April 1, 2026
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Tax deduction at source relief for branch-based non-residents through Form No. 126 and Assessing Officer certification.
Form No. 126 is an optional self-declaration and treaty-benefit request for a specified non-resident person carrying on business or profession in India through a branch, to obtain an Assessing Officer certificate authorising receipt of specified sums without deduction of tax at source. Eligibility depends on whether the applicant is a banking company or insurer, or another branch-based business or profession, and the form must be filed online before income is received. The certificate is valid for the relevant tax year unless cancelled earlier.
April 1, 2026
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Specified senior citizen declaration governs pension and interest income reporting, bank deduction, and return-filing exemption.
Form No. 125 is the declaration furnished by a specified senior citizen to the specified bank for pension and interest income. It applies to a resident aged seventy-five years or more who has pension income and only interest from the same specified bank, and who gives the prescribed declaration. The form is used by the deductor for reporting and is stated to exempt the taxpayer from return-filing compliance for the relevant tax year. It is filed once each financial year and requires key personal, bank, pension, and tax-regime details.

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PMLA / Black Money

Delhi Court grants bail to 'conman' Sukesh Chandrasekhar in ED case

April 7, 2026

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New Delhi, Apr 7 (PTI) A Delhi court on Tuesday granted bail to alleged conman Sukesh Chandrasekhar in an ED case related to the AIADMK's "two leaves" election symbol, noting that he had undergone detention exceeding half of the maximum seven-year sentence prescribed under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act.

Special Judge Vishal Gogne said the court's decisions cannot "preach liberty", the most sacrosanct constitutional norm, while "playing footsie with the state upon the bogey of special legislation or economic offences".

Chandrasekhar, who has been incarcerated in the present case since April 1, 2022, will, however, remain in jail in other pending cases lodged against him. He has secured bail in 26 out of 31 cases against him.

The Enforcement Directorate's (ED's) case stems from a 2017 Delhi Police FIR, which alleged that Chandrasekhar acted as a middleman for AIADMK leader T T V Dinakaran and tried to bribe an Election Commission of India (ECI) official to secure the party's "two leaves" symbol for the faction led by V K Sasikala.

The FIR alleged that Rs 1.3 crore cash was recovered from the accused, which was allegedly intended to be used for exercising undue influence with the ECI for obtaining a favourable election symbol for the Sasikala faction of the AIADMK.

According to the federal agency, Chandrasekhar coordinated with Dinakaran for the generation of proceeds of crime of Rs 2 crore and got it transferred from Chennai to Delhi, and later utilised and projected the proceeds of Rs 63.78 lakh as untainted money by making certain payments.

"Liberty being the most sacrosanct norm in our Constitution, the court cannot preach liberty from its decisions while playing footsie with the state upon the bogey of special legislation or economic offences," Judge Gogne said.

He said while the offence of money laundering remains grave in nature, a special legislation like PMLA is not a "grouse" of the state to be exacted upon the liberty of an accused through the court.

"Thus, the existence even of 31 cases (including the present case) against the accused does not defeat his right to bail in this particular case when the period of detention has crossed the threshold of half of the period of proposed imprisonment under section 4 (punishment for money laundering) of the PMLA, more so, when he is already on bail in 26 out of the 31 cases," the judge said.

He noted that proceedings in the present case and in the predicate offence had been effectively stayed by the Delhi High Court, and that in the present case the accused "has not only served excessive detention during trial but also stands to suffer further prolonged detention without trial".

The high court had stayed the proceedings in the predicate case, which was at the stage of prosecution submitting its evidence, on September 30, 2019, while the ED case, at the stage of the accused leading defence evidence, had been stayed through its order dated January 6, 2024.

Rejecting the agency's "strident opposition" to the bail plea, the judge said that speedy trial of the accused was improbable and that "the circumstances of the accused" were "ripe" for extending him the near-mandatory benefit under Section 479 (1) of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS).

The provision mandates that a person who has spent half of the maximum imprisonment period as an undertrial, except for offences punishable with death or life imprisonment, would be released on bail.

Allowing the plea, the judge said, "The court would record a plea of its judicial conscience to state that while liberty may, more often than not, lend itself to absolutism, arguments advocating wanton restraint upon liberty merit no such indulgence." The court directed the accused to furnish a personal bond and surety bond of Rs 5 lakh each, besides imposing several other stringent conditions.

These include the accused not contacting, influencing or coercing any person or witness, furnishing his address and mobile phone number, surrendering his passport and not leaving the country.

The present court had earlier granted him bail in the Delhi Police's case for the scheduled offences under the Indian Penal Code (IPC) and the Prevention of Corruption Act provisions on August 30, 2024. PTI MNR MNR KSS KSS

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