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March 28, 2026
Show AI Summary
Exempt income reporting through Form 70 requires electronic filing, verification, and timely compliance for specified fund benefits.
Form 70 is the annual statement for a specified fund to report exempt income and income taxable at concessional rates in relation to the investment division of an offshore banking unit. It must be verified by the Principal Officer or Managing Trustee and filed electronically on the Income-tax e-filing portal within the prescribed due date. Filing a valid form is a mandatory condition for claiming exemption or concessional taxation, and the form cannot be filed offline or edited after valid submission. A valid PAN of the fund and the verifier is required, along with prescribed supporting documents and mandatory attachments.
March 28, 2026
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Concessional taxation for specified funds depends on timely filing of Form 69 with income and unit-holder details.
Form 69 is the prescribed annual statement for a specified fund to report income attributable to units held by non-residents, other than a permanent establishment in India, for concessional taxation. The form is a mandatory compliance requirement and must be filed electronically on or before the due date, with trustee or principal officer verification. It includes fund particulars, registration details, and computations of income from securities and capital gains, supported by constituting documents, registration certificate, financial statements, securities statements, and unit-holder residency details.
March 28, 2026
Show AI Summary
Concessional taxation for specified funds requires electronic Form 69 filing, verification, and timely supporting disclosures.
Form 69 is the prescribed electronic statement for a specified fund claiming concessional taxation on income attributable to units held by a non-resident, other than a permanent establishment in India. A valid filing within the prescribed due date is a mandatory condition for the concessional rate benefit. The form must be verified by the Principal Officer or Managing Trustee, supported by the prescribed annexures and documents, and cannot be edited after submission and acknowledgment.
March 28, 2026
Show AI Summary
Exempt income reporting under Form 68 streamlined for specified funds with electronic filing and updated verification requirements.
Form 68 is the annual statement prescribed for specified funds seeking exemption under Section 11 read with Schedule VI of ITA 2025 in respect of income attributable to units held by a non-resident, other than a permanent establishment in India. It is filed electronically by the Principal Officer on or before the return due date, and captures particulars of the fund, income, exempt income, unit-holder details, and the working of income attributable to non-resident holders. The guidance note also describes the supporting documents and the simplified filing updates, including IFSCA registration, mandatory document upload, and verification in place of declaration.
March 28, 2026
Show AI Summary
Exempt income statement filing for specified funds requires verified online submission within the prescribed due date.
Form 68 is the prescribed electronic statement for claiming exemption of income of specified funds under section 11 read with Schedule VI [Table: Sl. Nos. 1 to 4] of the Income-tax Act, 2025, in respect of income attributable to units held by a non-resident other than a permanent establishment of such non-resident in India. The form must be verified by the Principal Officer or Managing Trustee, filed only through the Income-tax e-filing portal, and furnished on or before the applicable due date. Valid filing requires mandatory PAN details, specified annexures, and satisfaction of the statutory eligibility conditions.
March 28, 2026
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Alternate Minimum Tax reporting gets a structured Form 67 update with CA certification, itemised computation, and digital filing.
Form 67 is a chartered accountant's report for certifying book profit, adjusted total income and Alternate Minimum Tax liability under the updated section 206 framework. It applies to non-corporate taxpayers subject to the AMT regime, is furnished annually with the return of income, and must be digitally signed. The revised form introduces itemised computation fields, category-based AMT rates, and system-enabled validation through the e-filing process.
March 28, 2026
Show AI Summary
Alternate Minimum Tax compliance through Form 67 requires CA certification, electronic filing, and timely submission with the return.
Form 67 is prescribed for furnishing details relating to the computation of Adjusted Total Income and Alternate Minimum Tax (AMT) under section 206(2) of the Income-tax Act, 2025. It applies to persons other than companies, subject to stated exceptions, and is not required for certain specified taxpayers where adjusted total income does not exceed twenty lakh rupees. The form is used to determine AMT on adjusted total income, with tax payable at the higher of the regular tax or AMT, and it incorporates adjustments such as depreciation and other specified items.
March 28, 2026
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Minimum Alternate Tax reporting through Form 66 demands Chartered Accountant certification, digital filing, and return-linked book profit verification.
Companies liable to Minimum Alternate Tax must furnish Form 66, a Chartered Accountant-certified report on book profit and MAT computation, annually with the income tax return. The form is digitally signed, accepted by the company through the e-filing portal, and linked to the return for processing. It contains company particulars, profit adjustments, transition amount, final MAT computation, auditor certification, and supporting financial and tax documents.
March 27, 2026
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Access to unrelied ED documents denied at pre-cognisance stage in an ongoing money-laundering investigation.
Access to documents seized by the Enforcement Directorate but not relied upon in the chargesheet was refused at the pre-cognisance stage in an ongoing Prevention of Money Laundering Act matter. The court held that the accused had already been supplied with the prosecution complaint and relied-upon documents, and that disclosure of unrelied material was not required before cognisance when the investigation remained pending.
March 27, 2026
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Trade agreement framework balances market access with farmer safeguards, calibrated tariff concessions, and export opportunities across key sectors.
India and the United States have agreed on a framework for an interim trade agreement intended to expand reciprocal and mutually beneficial trade while protecting domestic sensitivities, particularly in agriculture and dairy. The framework contemplates improved market access, rules of origin, action on non-tariff barriers, and cooperation on standards, digital trade, economic security, technology, supply chain resilience, energy and manufacturing. Limited and calibrated tariff concessions have been offered on select agricultural products through quota-based mechanisms, phased concessions and partial duty reductions, with the quotas kept within existing import levels to avoid adverse impact on domestic farmers.
March 27, 2026
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Rupee weakness deepens as higher crude prices, dollar strength and foreign selling weigh on currency and reserves.
The rupee weakened sharply to a historic low against the US dollar amid sustained pressure from higher crude oil prices, a stronger greenback, foreign investor selling, and energy-led inflation concerns. India's foreign exchange reserves also declined during the reporting week, driven by a fall in gold reserves. The government indicated plans to mobilise substantial borrowing through dated securities in the April-September period, while noting a reduction in gross market borrowing after G-Sec switches.
March 27, 2026
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Government borrowing calendar set for dated securities, green bonds, retail bidding and flexible issuance management.
The Centre plans to raise gross market borrowings through dated securities in the first half of FY 2026-27 to finance the fiscal deficit, with borrowing spread across weekly auctions and multiple maturities. The borrowing calendar includes sovereign green bonds, non-competitive bidding for specified retail investors, and flexibility to modify issuance amounts, maturities, instruments and timing in consultation with the Reserve Bank of India, depending on funding needs and market conditions.
March 27, 2026
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Bilateral trade agreement negotiations advance as India and the US discuss WTO issues, tariffs, and next steps in talks.
India and the United States continued discussions on the next steps in the bilateral trade agreement negotiations, covering the WTO agenda, the India-US BTA, and ways to deepen bilateral economic cooperation and trade ties. A framework for the first phase has been finalised, but the legal text remains unsigned, and the chief negotiators' meeting was postponed because of changes in the US tariff architecture and the need to await the revised global tariff framework before the interim trade agreement is signed.
March 27, 2026
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Energy supply stability assured as government rules out lockdown, citing adequate fuel stocks and anti-hoarding measures.
The government ruled out any lockdown and said India has adequate stocks of petrol, diesel and LPG, with fuel retail operations continuing normally despite energy supply disruptions linked to the war in West Asia. Officials said rumours have caused panic buying, while alternative sourcing, higher domestic LPG production, excise duty cuts, export levies, export diversion directions and intensified anti-hoarding enforcement are being used to stabilise supplies and protect consumers.
March 27, 2026
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Excise duty cut on petrol and diesel aims to shield consumers from global fuel price volatility.
The Union Government reduced excise duty on petrol and diesel by Rs 10 per litre to prevent a retail price increase caused by rising global oil prices. The move was described as a people-centric measure intended to shield consumers from fuel price volatility and wider shortages linked to global instability.
March 27, 2026
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State borrowing costs harden as bond yields rise, forcing partial bids and higher returns in volatile fixed-income markets.
States' borrowing costs hardened in a State Development Loan auction as cut-off yields rose across long-term maturities, with several securities moving above 8 per cent. The increase tracked a broader rise in government bond yields amid global oil price pressures, inflationary concerns and weakness in the rupee, causing some states to accept only partial borrowing amounts or reject bids. The report notes that higher bond yields may keep borrowing costs elevated and increase volatility in fixed-income markets.
March 27, 2026
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Money laundering proceedings over bank loan fraud allegations include diversion of proceeds through offshore entities and property transactions.
Money laundering proceedings under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act concern a former senior executive of Reliance Communications and another accused in an alleged bank loan fraud case. The allegations include concealment, layering and diversion of proceeds of crime through foreign subsidiaries and offshore entities, purchase and sale of a Manhattan condominium during the insolvency process, and routing of sale proceeds through an asserted sham investment arrangement. The allegations also include personal diversion of funds for overseas education-related payments.
March 27, 2026
Show AI Summary
Minimum alternate tax and book profit reporting through Form 66, with CA certification, exemptions, and MAT credit rules.
Form No. 66 is the prescribed electronic statement for furnishing details of book profit and minimum alternate tax under section 206(1) of the Income-tax Act, 2025. It applies to companies where normal tax is lower than the minimum tax, must be filed along with the return of income, and requires certification by an Accountant/Chartered Accountant. The FAQ explains book-profit adjustments, MAT credit, exemptions, Ind-AS transition amounts, and the consequences of incorrect or missing filing.
March 27, 2026
Show AI Summary
Patent box regime filing through Form 65 enables eligible resident assessees to opt for concessional royalty taxation.
Form 65 is the prescribed application for an eligible resident assessee to exercise the option under Section 194(1) of the Income-tax Act, 2025 for royalty income from a patent developed and registered in India. It relates to the concessional 10% tax rate under the patent box regime and requires the assessee to forgo deductions or allowances against such royalty income. The form is filed electronically by the return-filing due date, with patent details, royalty particulars, expenditure information and verification requirements.
March 27, 2026
Show AI Summary
Concessional royalty taxation under Form 65 requires resident eligibility, electronic filing, and a five-year lock-in period.
Form 65 is the prescribed income-tax application by which a resident assessee opts for concessional taxation on royalty income from a patent developed and registered in India. The form enables taxation at a flat 10% rate on gross royalty, with surcharge and cess, subject to conditions including denial of deductions, Indian patent registration, and development in India. The option must be filed electronically by the return due date, cannot be revised or withdrawn for that year, and carries a five-tax-year lock-in.

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Corp. Laws / SEBI / IBC

SC does not interfere with order allowing Adani to acquire JAL, asks NCLAT to decide promptly

April 6, 2026

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New Delhi, Apr 6 (PTI) The Supreme Court on Monday declined to stay the implementation of the Adani group's Rs 14,535-crore bid to acquire the debt-ridden Jaiprakash Associates Limited (JAL), but provided a safeguard by restraining the firm's monitoring committee from taking any "major policy decisions" without prior nod of the National Company Law Appellate Tribunal.

A bench of Chief Justice Surya Kant and Justice Joymalya Bagchi asked mining giant Vedanta Ltd, which is opposing the resolution plan, and Adani Enterprises Ltd to raise contentions and counterclaims before the National Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT), which will start final hearing on the row on April 10.

The top court asked the NCLAT to decide the plea and the counter petition expeditiously by hearing them on an "out of turn basis" on the dispute over the acquisition of JAL by the Adani group.

"In view of the fact that the company appeals are now listed for final hearing at the NCLAT on April 10, 2026, we see no reason to interfere with the impugned order. However, having regard to the nature of the issue, we request the NCLAT to hear the appeal on an out-of-turn basis on the date fixed or immediately on the next working day if arguments do not conclude. Both sides have assured us full cooperation on the date fixed," it ordered.

"Since the appeal is likely to be decided very soon and the interest of the appellant has been adequately protected in the impugned order, there seems to be no necessity to issue any other direction. If the monitoring committee decides to take any major policy decision, they will take leave of the NCLAT," the bench said.

Senior advocate Kapil Sibal, appearing for Vedanta Ltd, said the NCLAT itself says there were issues to be decided and their bid was the highest.

"If this (resolution) plan is implemented, then you see what the creditors get. My number is Rs 17, 926.21 crore.

"They (Adani) are paying 14,000-odd crore. Creditors will get more. Qua net present value and total amount, I am the highest. Creditors are willing to give Jaypee for 3,000 crore less," Sibal said.

The committee of creditors was represented by Solicitor General Tushar Mehta. The Adani group was represented by senior advocate Mukul Rohatgi with a team from the legal firm Karanjawala and Co.

The CJI said the issue was at an interim stage only.

The solicitor general said the difference between the two bids is Rs 500 crore and, moreover, there are several other parameters.

Earlier, Vedanta moved the top court seeking a stay on the National Company Law Tribunal's (NCLT's) order approving Adani Group's Rs 14,535-crore bid to acquire JAL. Vedanta filed its appeal on March 25, a day after the NCLAT refused to stay the implementation of the plan.

The NCLAT on March 24 declined any interim stay over Vedanta's plea against the order passed by the NCLT approving the Adani Group's bid.

It also directed to list the matter on April 10 for the next hearing.

The Vedanta group was in the race to acquire JAL through an insolvency process, but the lenders in November last year approved the resolution plan of Adani Enterprises Ltd. The NCLT approved the Adani Group's bid.

Challenging the NCLT order, the Vedanta group filed two appeals before the NCLAT. In the first, it challenged the validity of the resolution plan, and in the second, it challenged the approval of the plan by the committee of creditors (CoC) and the adjudicating authority -- the NCLT.

In its hearing, the NCLAT said all the parties have agreed that, looking at the nature of the issues raised in the appeal, the matter needs to be decided at an early date.

The NCLAT clarified that the implementation of the plan would be subject to the outcome of the appeals filed by the Anil Agarwal-led Vedanta Group.

On March 17, the NCLT, Allahabad bench, approved Adani's bid to acquire JAL through the insolvency process. This was challenged by Vedanta before the NCLAT, which directed that Adani Enterprises be a party.

During the proceedings of the NCLAT, the counsel representing Vedanta had contended that it was declared the highest bidder by JAL's Committee of Creditors. Vedanta's bid value was Rs 16,726 crore, and Adani Enterprises' bid was Rs 14,535 crore.

In November last year, the CoC approved the resolution plan by business tycoon Gautam Adani to acquire JAL.

Adani Enterprises had outbid Vedanta and Dalmia Bharat to win the bid for JAL. Adani got the maximum 89 per cent votes from creditors, followed by Dalmia Cement (Bharat) and Vedanta Group.

Adani's bid was preferred as it offered around Rs 6,000 crore upfront and faster payments within two years, compared with Vedanta's longer payment timeline of up to five years.

JAL, which has high-quality assets and business interests spanning real estate, cement manufacturing, hospitality, power, engineering and construction, was admitted to the Corporate Insolvency Resolution Process (CIRP) in June 2024 after it defaulted on payments of loans aggregating Rs 57,185 crore.

JAL has major real estate projects like Jaypee Greens in Greater Noida, a part of Jaypee Greens Wishtown in Noida -- both on the outskirts of the national capital -- and the Jaypee International Sports City, located near the upcoming Jewar International Airport.

It has three commercial office spaces in Delhi-NCR, while its hotel division has five properties in the National Capital Region (NCR), Mussoorie and Agra.

JAL has four cement plants in Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh, and a few leased limestone mines in Madhya Pradesh.

It also has investments in subsidiaries, including Jaiprakash Power Ventures Ltd, Yamuna Expressway Tolling Ltd, Jaypee Infrastructure Development Ltd and several other companies. PTI SJK MNL KSS KSS

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