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    GST fraud unearthed in Meerut, 1 arrested
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April 2, 2026
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GST fraud through fake firms and fake invoices exposed alleged illegal input tax credit claims and circular trading.
GST fraud involving fake firms, shell companies, fake invoices and circular trading was detected during a police investigation. The alleged racket used fake Aadhaar and PAN details to unlawfully avail input tax credit and underreported sales in GST returns, causing an estimated loss of around Rs 3 crore to the government exchequer, with the total involvement suspected to be higher. One accused was arrested, while efforts continued to trace other persons involved.
April 1, 2026
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GST revenues rise on stronger imports and domestic sales, marking one of the highest monthly collections this fiscal.
GST revenues rose about 9 per cent in March to over two lakh crore rupees, reaching the third highest monthly collection in the 2025-26 fiscal. The increase was supported by higher receipts from imports as well as domestic sales and purchases, reflecting a recovery in tax mop-ups after earlier tax cuts.
April 1, 2026
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State GST collection growth in Haryana leads the country, driven by stronger compliance, economic activity and taxpayer base expansion.
State GST collection growth in Haryana was reported as the highest among all states in FY26, with post-settlement SGST collection rising to Rs 48,289 crore from Rs 39,743 crore in FY25. The increase of 21.5 per cent exceeded the national average SGST growth of 5.7 per cent. Total GST collection in the State also grew by 8.6 per cent, placing Haryana fifth among states and Union Territories in gross domestic GST collection.
April 1, 2026
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Insolvency resolution framework tightened to speed up admissions, reduce delays, and support rescue of viable businesses.
Parliament has amended the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code to speed up admission and resolution of insolvency cases, reduce backlog, and preserve enterprise value. The changes introduce stricter timelines, greater reliance on information utilities, stronger liquidation oversight, and an enabling framework for group and cross-border insolvency. The bill also replaces the underused fast-track process with a creditor-initiated framework, exempts MSMEs from disqualification under specified provisions, and requires insolvency applications to be admitted within 14 days once default is established.
April 1, 2026
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Tax devolution dispute intensifies as Karnataka alleges unfair GST returns, denied compensation, and shrinking fiscal share.
Karnataka Chief Minister Siddaramaiah alleged that the Union Government's tax devolution and fiscal policy towards Karnataka amounted to tax terrorism or tax plunder, saying the state receives only a small share in return for its tax contribution. He said Karnataka has repeatedly raised concerns about unfair distribution of taxes, cess, surcharge revenues, GST compensation, and central funding, and claimed these issues have weakened the state's finances and increased dependence on borrowing. He also described GST implementation as flawed and unscientific, leading to significant financial losses.
April 1, 2026
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Money laundering probe leads to searches, cash seizure and firearm recovery in Kolkata-linked premises.
Money laundering investigation under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act led to searches at multiple premises in Kolkata linked to an alleged criminal syndicate, including the residence and commercial premises of an accused history-sheeter, a business entity, and associated persons. During the raids, the Enforcement Directorate seized about Rs 1.2 crore cash from a location linked to one associate and recovered a country-made pistol from the accused's premises.
April 1, 2026
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Corporate resolution under insolvency law gains faster admission, stronger creditor oversight, and MSME promoter participation safeguards.
The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code is presented as a framework for corporate resolution and banking-sector improvement through asset recovery, with liquidation remaining a residual measure where resolution fails. The current amendments focus on expeditious admission based on the existence of default, greater reliance on information utilities, statutory timelines, stronger liquidation oversight, and a creditor-initiated insolvency framework with out-of-court initiation, debtor-in-possession structure, and defined timelines. The amendments also enable group and cross-border insolvency and exempt MSMEs from specified disqualifications so that existing promoters may participate in resolution.
April 1, 2026
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Insolvency and bankruptcy reform debate centers on creditor haircuts, tribunal backlog, and concerns over corporate defaulter protection.
The Rajya Sabha debated the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (Amendment) Bill, 2026, amid criticism of repeated amendments, substantial creditor haircuts, alleged favouritism toward large corporate defaulters, and ongoing pendency and infrastructure bottlenecks in insolvency tribunals. Members raised concerns over proposed creditor-initiated insolvency changes, executive rule-making on cross-border insolvency, and the limited effectiveness of MSME resolution mechanisms, while others supported the Code and urged stronger institutional capacity and better use of insolvency funds.
April 1, 2026
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Tax deduction at source relief for branch-based non-residents through Form No. 126 and Assessing Officer certification.
Form No. 126 is an optional self-declaration and treaty-benefit request for a specified non-resident person carrying on business or profession in India through a branch, to obtain an Assessing Officer certificate authorising receipt of specified sums without deduction of tax at source. Eligibility depends on whether the applicant is a banking company or insurer, or another branch-based business or profession, and the form must be filed online before income is received. The certificate is valid for the relevant tax year unless cancelled earlier.
April 1, 2026
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Specified senior citizen declaration governs pension and interest income reporting, bank deduction, and return-filing exemption.
Form No. 125 is the declaration furnished by a specified senior citizen to the specified bank for pension and interest income. It applies to a resident aged seventy-five years or more who has pension income and only interest from the same specified bank, and who gives the prescribed declaration. The form is used by the deductor for reporting and is stated to exempt the taxpayer from return-filing compliance for the relevant tax year. It is filed once each financial year and requires key personal, bank, pension, and tax-regime details.
April 1, 2026
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Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code amendments aim to speed resolution, cut backlog, and strengthen the financial ecosystem.
Amendments to the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code were passed to accelerate insolvency resolution, reduce case backlog, and strengthen the financial ecosystem. The changes focus on shortening the time taken for admission of insolvency resolution applications and improving the efficiency of the resolution framework. The government accepted all recommendations made by the Lok Sabha Select Committee and added one further recommendation from the Ministry of Corporate Affairs.
April 1, 2026
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Specified senior citizen declaration governs return-filing exemption for pension and interest income through a specified bank.
Form No. 125 is the declaration to be furnished by a specified senior citizen in relation to pension income and interest received or receivable through a specified bank. The declaration is confined to pension and interest income and does not extend to other income. Filing the form enables exemption from filing an income-tax return, while the specified bank computes total income and deducts tax accordingly. The form must be submitted once for each tax year, may be filed in paper or electronically, and may be revised or withdrawn if income details change.
April 1, 2026
Show AI Summary
Tax deduction at source claims form requires employee details, supporting evidence, and annual disclosure to employer.
Form No. 124 is the employee's statement of particulars of claims for deduction of tax at source under section 392(5)(b) of the Income-tax Act, 2025 read with Rule 205 of the Income-tax Rules, 2026. It is furnished to the current employer so that deductions, exemptions and allowances may be considered for correct tax deduction from salary. The form is filed once every financial year and requires employee details, claim particulars, supporting evidence and a declaration that the particulars are correct and complete.
April 1, 2026
Show AI Summary
Employee tax benefit declarations guide salary TDS computation through Form No. 124 and supporting evidence.
Form No. 124 is the employee statement furnished to an employer for consideration of deductions, exemptions, allowances, and other tax benefits while computing taxable salary and TDS liability. It applies where the employee seeks employer recognition of claims relating to house rent allowance, leave travel allowance, interest on housing loan, and investment- or expenditure-based deductions, together with supporting evidence. The form has Part A for employee particulars and Part B for the tax benefits claimed with annexures in support of those claims.
April 1, 2026
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Statistical data dissemination and SDG monitoring strengthened through a centralized dashboard, expert review, and public access tools.
MoSPI maintains a centralized digital mechanism for public access to its statistical publications and has developed the India SDG Dashboard in partnership with the United Nations Resident Coordinator Office as a centralized data platform for monitoring SDG indicators aligned with the National Indicator Framework. The Ministry's publications compile social and environmental statistics for evidence-based planning, policymaking, research, and analysis, while expert committees, the e-Sankhyiki portal, the Advance Release Calendar, and stakeholder consultations are used to improve coverage, dissemination, transparency, and usability.
April 1, 2026
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Perquisites and fringe benefit reporting through Form 123 for employee salary disclosures and tax valuation compliance.
Form No. 123 is the employer-issued statement for reporting the value of perquisites, fringe benefits, amenities and profits in lieu of salary provided to an employee during a financial year. It is issued where salary paid or payable exceeds one lakh and fifty thousand rupees, and it is due by 30 April of the following year. The form captures employer and employee details, valuation of perquisites, tax deducted or paid, and a declaration certifying correctness and completeness.
April 1, 2026
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Digitalisation of official statistics uses AI, machine learning and secure data systems to improve dissemination and access.
Digitalisation and technological upgradation in the Official Statistical System include modules for data collection, processing, analysis and dissemination, with a Data Innovation Lab integrating Artificial Intelligence and Machine Learning. Security by design principles, cyber security guidelines, agency-based compliance monitoring, a Chief Information Security Officer, and security audit with SSL certification support the deployment of applications. These reforms are continuous and are expected to improve data collection, validation, processing and dissemination.
April 1, 2026
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Concessional customs duty relief for eligible SEZ units enables limited DTA sales with value addition and export-linked caps.
A one-time customs relief window allows eligible SEZ manufacturing units to sell manufactured goods in the Domestic Tariff Area at concessional duty rates for a limited period. Eligibility is confined to units that commenced production on or before 31 March 2025, and the goods must have undergone minimum 20% value addition over inputs. DTA sales under the relief are capped at 30% of the highest annual FOB value of exports in any of the three preceding financial years, with certain sensitive sectors excluded and faceless assessment applying to clearances.
April 1, 2026
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Perquisite valuation statement under income tax rules continues to govern employee benefits, tax details, and return compliance.
Form No. 123 is the employer-issued statement of perquisites, fringe benefits or amenities, and profits in lieu of salary for an employee, replacing the earlier Form 12BA. It certifies valuation of monetary and non-monetary perquisites for income-tax return purposes and is generally required where salary exceeds the prescribed threshold. The form contains Part A with employer and employee particulars and Part B with perquisite-wise valuation and salary tax details, including tax deducted at source and remittance particulars.
April 1, 2026
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Form No. 122 consolidates employee salary, perquisite and tax details from multiple employers for correct tax deduction.
Form No. 122 is a consolidated income-tax statement for an employee to furnish salary details from another employer, taxable allowances, perquisites, provident fund accretions, tax deducted, house property loss, other income and tax deducted or collected at source, so the current employer can compute the correct tax liability and deduct tax at source. It is meant for employees who have changed jobs during the same tax year and should be filed as early as possible, but not later than 31 March of the financial year. The form includes employee particulars, salary details, other income details and an annexure covering taxable perquisites and provident fund items.

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Corp. Laws / SEBI / IBC

SC does not interfere with order allowing Adani to acquire JAL, asks NCLAT to decide promptly

April 6, 2026

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New Delhi, Apr 6 (PTI) The Supreme Court on Monday declined to stay the implementation of the Adani group's Rs 14,535-crore bid to acquire the debt-ridden Jaiprakash Associates Limited (JAL), but provided a safeguard by restraining the firm's monitoring committee from taking any "major policy decisions" without prior nod of the National Company Law Appellate Tribunal.

A bench of Chief Justice Surya Kant and Justice Joymalya Bagchi asked mining giant Vedanta Ltd, which is opposing the resolution plan, and Adani Enterprises Ltd to raise contentions and counterclaims before the National Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT), which will start final hearing on the row on April 10.

The top court asked the NCLAT to decide the plea and the counter petition expeditiously by hearing them on an "out of turn basis" on the dispute over the acquisition of JAL by the Adani group.

"In view of the fact that the company appeals are now listed for final hearing at the NCLAT on April 10, 2026, we see no reason to interfere with the impugned order. However, having regard to the nature of the issue, we request the NCLAT to hear the appeal on an out-of-turn basis on the date fixed or immediately on the next working day if arguments do not conclude. Both sides have assured us full cooperation on the date fixed," it ordered.

"Since the appeal is likely to be decided very soon and the interest of the appellant has been adequately protected in the impugned order, there seems to be no necessity to issue any other direction. If the monitoring committee decides to take any major policy decision, they will take leave of the NCLAT," the bench said.

Senior advocate Kapil Sibal, appearing for Vedanta Ltd, said the NCLAT itself says there were issues to be decided and their bid was the highest.

"If this (resolution) plan is implemented, then you see what the creditors get. My number is Rs 17, 926.21 crore.

"They (Adani) are paying 14,000-odd crore. Creditors will get more. Qua net present value and total amount, I am the highest. Creditors are willing to give Jaypee for 3,000 crore less," Sibal said.

The committee of creditors was represented by Solicitor General Tushar Mehta. The Adani group was represented by senior advocate Mukul Rohatgi with a team from the legal firm Karanjawala and Co.

The CJI said the issue was at an interim stage only.

The solicitor general said the difference between the two bids is Rs 500 crore and, moreover, there are several other parameters.

Earlier, Vedanta moved the top court seeking a stay on the National Company Law Tribunal's (NCLT's) order approving Adani Group's Rs 14,535-crore bid to acquire JAL. Vedanta filed its appeal on March 25, a day after the NCLAT refused to stay the implementation of the plan.

The NCLAT on March 24 declined any interim stay over Vedanta's plea against the order passed by the NCLT approving the Adani Group's bid.

It also directed to list the matter on April 10 for the next hearing.

The Vedanta group was in the race to acquire JAL through an insolvency process, but the lenders in November last year approved the resolution plan of Adani Enterprises Ltd. The NCLT approved the Adani Group's bid.

Challenging the NCLT order, the Vedanta group filed two appeals before the NCLAT. In the first, it challenged the validity of the resolution plan, and in the second, it challenged the approval of the plan by the committee of creditors (CoC) and the adjudicating authority -- the NCLT.

In its hearing, the NCLAT said all the parties have agreed that, looking at the nature of the issues raised in the appeal, the matter needs to be decided at an early date.

The NCLAT clarified that the implementation of the plan would be subject to the outcome of the appeals filed by the Anil Agarwal-led Vedanta Group.

On March 17, the NCLT, Allahabad bench, approved Adani's bid to acquire JAL through the insolvency process. This was challenged by Vedanta before the NCLAT, which directed that Adani Enterprises be a party.

During the proceedings of the NCLAT, the counsel representing Vedanta had contended that it was declared the highest bidder by JAL's Committee of Creditors. Vedanta's bid value was Rs 16,726 crore, and Adani Enterprises' bid was Rs 14,535 crore.

In November last year, the CoC approved the resolution plan by business tycoon Gautam Adani to acquire JAL.

Adani Enterprises had outbid Vedanta and Dalmia Bharat to win the bid for JAL. Adani got the maximum 89 per cent votes from creditors, followed by Dalmia Cement (Bharat) and Vedanta Group.

Adani's bid was preferred as it offered around Rs 6,000 crore upfront and faster payments within two years, compared with Vedanta's longer payment timeline of up to five years.

JAL, which has high-quality assets and business interests spanning real estate, cement manufacturing, hospitality, power, engineering and construction, was admitted to the Corporate Insolvency Resolution Process (CIRP) in June 2024 after it defaulted on payments of loans aggregating Rs 57,185 crore.

JAL has major real estate projects like Jaypee Greens in Greater Noida, a part of Jaypee Greens Wishtown in Noida -- both on the outskirts of the national capital -- and the Jaypee International Sports City, located near the upcoming Jewar International Airport.

It has three commercial office spaces in Delhi-NCR, while its hotel division has five properties in the National Capital Region (NCR), Mussoorie and Agra.

JAL has four cement plants in Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh, and a few leased limestone mines in Madhya Pradesh.

It also has investments in subsidiaries, including Jaiprakash Power Ventures Ltd, Yamuna Expressway Tolling Ltd, Jaypee Infrastructure Development Ltd and several other companies. PTI SJK MNL KSS KSS

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