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April 2, 2026
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Lower or nil tax deduction certificate through TRACES requires advance electronic filing, PAN, and supporting documents.
Form No. 128 is the electronic application for a certificate authorising lower or nil deduction of income-tax and lower collection of income-tax under section 395(1) and section 395(3) of the Income-tax Act, 2025. The form is optional, must be filed through the TRACES portal before the relevant transaction, and cannot be processed once the TDS/TCS transaction is completed. It requires PAN, supporting documents, and electronic submission with e-verification.
April 2, 2026
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Tax collection at source declaration for non-trading use of goods enables buyers to obtain goods without TCS.
Form No. 127 is the declaration required from a buyer to obtain goods without collection of tax at source where the goods are intended for manufacturing, processing, production, or generation of power and are not meant for trading. The buyer must furnish the declaration to the seller at or before the purchase or payment event, and the seller must verify the declaration, upload monthly details to the e-filing portal by the 7th of the following month, and forward the declaration to the tax authority.
April 2, 2026
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TCS exemption declaration for specified goods requires PAN, timely filing, and seller reporting obligations.
Form No. 127 is a buyer's declaration under section 394(2) of the Income-tax Act, 2025 for obtaining specified goods without collection of tax at source. A resident buyer may furnish the declaration to the seller where the goods are intended for manufacturing, processing, producing articles or things, or generating power, and not for trading. PAN is mandatory, the declaration must be furnished on or before the date of transaction, and once received the seller must report the particulars and include the transactions in the quarterly TCS statement.
April 2, 2026
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Tax deduction relief for non-resident branch operations through a unified Form No. 126 compliance framework.
Form No. 126 is a unified self-declaration and treaty-benefit request for specified non-residents carrying on business or profession in India through a branch to obtain a certificate for receipt of certain sums without deduction of tax at source. Banking companies and insurers, and other eligible non-resident persons, must satisfy the conditions in Rule 209, including tax compliance, branch-based receipt on own account, and, for non-banking applicants, continuous business in India for five years and prescribed fixed assets. The application is filed electronically, processed by the Assessing Officer, and the certificate remains valid for the relevant tax year unless cancelled earlier.
April 2, 2026
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Rupee recovery follows RBI cap on banks' net open position amid capital outflows and crude-driven pressure.
Rupee recovered in early trade after the Reserve Bank of India capped banks' net open position in the onshore forward delivery market and required compliance by April 10, 2026. The currency remained under pressure from foreign capital outflows, a stronger dollar, rising crude oil prices, geopolitical volatility, widening trade deficit, declining remittances and sustained foreign portfolio investor selling.
April 2, 2026
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Customs duty exemption on critical petrochemical imports aims to stabilise supply chains and ease cost pressures.
Full customs duty exemption has been granted on specified critical petrochemical imports as a temporary and targeted measure to protect supply stability amid disruptions in global supply chains caused by the West Asia crisis. The exemption is intended to ensure continued availability of essential petrochemical inputs for domestic industry, reduce cost pressures on downstream sectors, and provide relief to consumers of final products. The exemption remains valid until June 30 and covers Methanol, Anhydrous ammonia, Toluene, Styrene, Dichloromethane, Vinyl chloride monomer, Poly butadiene, Styrene butadiene and Unsaturated polyester resins.
April 2, 2026
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GST fraud through fake firms and fake invoices exposed alleged illegal input tax credit claims and circular trading.
GST fraud involving fake firms, shell companies, fake invoices and circular trading was detected during a police investigation. The alleged racket used fake Aadhaar and PAN details to unlawfully avail input tax credit and underreported sales in GST returns, causing an estimated loss of around Rs 3 crore to the government exchequer, with the total involvement suspected to be higher. One accused was arrested, while efforts continued to trace other persons involved.
April 1, 2026
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GST revenues rise on stronger imports and domestic sales, marking one of the highest monthly collections this fiscal.
GST revenues rose about 9 per cent in March to over two lakh crore rupees, reaching the third highest monthly collection in the 2025-26 fiscal. The increase was supported by higher receipts from imports as well as domestic sales and purchases, reflecting a recovery in tax mop-ups after earlier tax cuts.
April 1, 2026
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State GST collection growth in Haryana leads the country, driven by stronger compliance, economic activity and taxpayer base expansion.
State GST collection growth in Haryana was reported as the highest among all states in FY26, with post-settlement SGST collection rising to Rs 48,289 crore from Rs 39,743 crore in FY25. The increase of 21.5 per cent exceeded the national average SGST growth of 5.7 per cent. Total GST collection in the State also grew by 8.6 per cent, placing Haryana fifth among states and Union Territories in gross domestic GST collection.
April 1, 2026
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Insolvency resolution framework tightened to speed up admissions, reduce delays, and support rescue of viable businesses.
Parliament has amended the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code to speed up admission and resolution of insolvency cases, reduce backlog, and preserve enterprise value. The changes introduce stricter timelines, greater reliance on information utilities, stronger liquidation oversight, and an enabling framework for group and cross-border insolvency. The bill also replaces the underused fast-track process with a creditor-initiated framework, exempts MSMEs from disqualification under specified provisions, and requires insolvency applications to be admitted within 14 days once default is established.
April 1, 2026
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Tax devolution dispute intensifies as Karnataka alleges unfair GST returns, denied compensation, and shrinking fiscal share.
Karnataka Chief Minister Siddaramaiah alleged that the Union Government's tax devolution and fiscal policy towards Karnataka amounted to tax terrorism or tax plunder, saying the state receives only a small share in return for its tax contribution. He said Karnataka has repeatedly raised concerns about unfair distribution of taxes, cess, surcharge revenues, GST compensation, and central funding, and claimed these issues have weakened the state's finances and increased dependence on borrowing. He also described GST implementation as flawed and unscientific, leading to significant financial losses.
April 1, 2026
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Money laundering probe leads to searches, cash seizure and firearm recovery in Kolkata-linked premises.
Money laundering investigation under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act led to searches at multiple premises in Kolkata linked to an alleged criminal syndicate, including the residence and commercial premises of an accused history-sheeter, a business entity, and associated persons. During the raids, the Enforcement Directorate seized about Rs 1.2 crore cash from a location linked to one associate and recovered a country-made pistol from the accused's premises.
April 1, 2026
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Corporate resolution under insolvency law gains faster admission, stronger creditor oversight, and MSME promoter participation safeguards.
The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code is presented as a framework for corporate resolution and banking-sector improvement through asset recovery, with liquidation remaining a residual measure where resolution fails. The current amendments focus on expeditious admission based on the existence of default, greater reliance on information utilities, statutory timelines, stronger liquidation oversight, and a creditor-initiated insolvency framework with out-of-court initiation, debtor-in-possession structure, and defined timelines. The amendments also enable group and cross-border insolvency and exempt MSMEs from specified disqualifications so that existing promoters may participate in resolution.
April 1, 2026
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Insolvency and bankruptcy reform debate centers on creditor haircuts, tribunal backlog, and concerns over corporate defaulter protection.
The Rajya Sabha debated the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (Amendment) Bill, 2026, amid criticism of repeated amendments, substantial creditor haircuts, alleged favouritism toward large corporate defaulters, and ongoing pendency and infrastructure bottlenecks in insolvency tribunals. Members raised concerns over proposed creditor-initiated insolvency changes, executive rule-making on cross-border insolvency, and the limited effectiveness of MSME resolution mechanisms, while others supported the Code and urged stronger institutional capacity and better use of insolvency funds.
April 1, 2026
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Tax deduction at source relief for branch-based non-residents through Form No. 126 and Assessing Officer certification.
Form No. 126 is an optional self-declaration and treaty-benefit request for a specified non-resident person carrying on business or profession in India through a branch, to obtain an Assessing Officer certificate authorising receipt of specified sums without deduction of tax at source. Eligibility depends on whether the applicant is a banking company or insurer, or another branch-based business or profession, and the form must be filed online before income is received. The certificate is valid for the relevant tax year unless cancelled earlier.
April 1, 2026
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Specified senior citizen declaration governs pension and interest income reporting, bank deduction, and return-filing exemption.
Form No. 125 is the declaration furnished by a specified senior citizen to the specified bank for pension and interest income. It applies to a resident aged seventy-five years or more who has pension income and only interest from the same specified bank, and who gives the prescribed declaration. The form is used by the deductor for reporting and is stated to exempt the taxpayer from return-filing compliance for the relevant tax year. It is filed once each financial year and requires key personal, bank, pension, and tax-regime details.
April 1, 2026
Show AI Summary
Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code amendments aim to speed resolution, cut backlog, and strengthen the financial ecosystem.
Amendments to the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code were passed to accelerate insolvency resolution, reduce case backlog, and strengthen the financial ecosystem. The changes focus on shortening the time taken for admission of insolvency resolution applications and improving the efficiency of the resolution framework. The government accepted all recommendations made by the Lok Sabha Select Committee and added one further recommendation from the Ministry of Corporate Affairs.
April 1, 2026
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Specified senior citizen declaration governs return-filing exemption for pension and interest income through a specified bank.
Form No. 125 is the declaration to be furnished by a specified senior citizen in relation to pension income and interest received or receivable through a specified bank. The declaration is confined to pension and interest income and does not extend to other income. Filing the form enables exemption from filing an income-tax return, while the specified bank computes total income and deducts tax accordingly. The form must be submitted once for each tax year, may be filed in paper or electronically, and may be revised or withdrawn if income details change.
April 1, 2026
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Tax deduction at source claims form requires employee details, supporting evidence, and annual disclosure to employer.
Form No. 124 is the employee's statement of particulars of claims for deduction of tax at source under section 392(5)(b) of the Income-tax Act, 2025 read with Rule 205 of the Income-tax Rules, 2026. It is furnished to the current employer so that deductions, exemptions and allowances may be considered for correct tax deduction from salary. The form is filed once every financial year and requires employee details, claim particulars, supporting evidence and a declaration that the particulars are correct and complete.
April 1, 2026
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Employee tax benefit declarations guide salary TDS computation through Form No. 124 and supporting evidence.
Form No. 124 is the employee statement furnished to an employer for consideration of deductions, exemptions, allowances, and other tax benefits while computing taxable salary and TDS liability. It applies where the employee seeks employer recognition of claims relating to house rent allowance, leave travel allowance, interest on housing loan, and investment- or expenditure-based deductions, together with supporting evidence. The form has Part A for employee particulars and Part B for the tax benefits claimed with annexures in support of those claims.

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Corp. Laws / SEBI / IBC

SC does not interfere with order allowing Adani to acquire JAL, asks NCLAT to decide promptly

April 6, 2026

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New Delhi, Apr 6 (PTI) The Supreme Court on Monday declined to stay the implementation of the Adani group's Rs 14,535-crore bid to acquire the debt-ridden Jaiprakash Associates Limited (JAL), but provided a safeguard by restraining the firm's monitoring committee from taking any "major policy decisions" without prior nod of the National Company Law Appellate Tribunal.

A bench of Chief Justice Surya Kant and Justice Joymalya Bagchi asked mining giant Vedanta Ltd, which is opposing the resolution plan, and Adani Enterprises Ltd to raise contentions and counterclaims before the National Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT), which will start final hearing on the row on April 10.

The top court asked the NCLAT to decide the plea and the counter petition expeditiously by hearing them on an "out of turn basis" on the dispute over the acquisition of JAL by the Adani group.

"In view of the fact that the company appeals are now listed for final hearing at the NCLAT on April 10, 2026, we see no reason to interfere with the impugned order. However, having regard to the nature of the issue, we request the NCLAT to hear the appeal on an out-of-turn basis on the date fixed or immediately on the next working day if arguments do not conclude. Both sides have assured us full cooperation on the date fixed," it ordered.

"Since the appeal is likely to be decided very soon and the interest of the appellant has been adequately protected in the impugned order, there seems to be no necessity to issue any other direction. If the monitoring committee decides to take any major policy decision, they will take leave of the NCLAT," the bench said.

Senior advocate Kapil Sibal, appearing for Vedanta Ltd, said the NCLAT itself says there were issues to be decided and their bid was the highest.

"If this (resolution) plan is implemented, then you see what the creditors get. My number is Rs 17, 926.21 crore.

"They (Adani) are paying 14,000-odd crore. Creditors will get more. Qua net present value and total amount, I am the highest. Creditors are willing to give Jaypee for 3,000 crore less," Sibal said.

The committee of creditors was represented by Solicitor General Tushar Mehta. The Adani group was represented by senior advocate Mukul Rohatgi with a team from the legal firm Karanjawala and Co.

The CJI said the issue was at an interim stage only.

The solicitor general said the difference between the two bids is Rs 500 crore and, moreover, there are several other parameters.

Earlier, Vedanta moved the top court seeking a stay on the National Company Law Tribunal's (NCLT's) order approving Adani Group's Rs 14,535-crore bid to acquire JAL. Vedanta filed its appeal on March 25, a day after the NCLAT refused to stay the implementation of the plan.

The NCLAT on March 24 declined any interim stay over Vedanta's plea against the order passed by the NCLT approving the Adani Group's bid.

It also directed to list the matter on April 10 for the next hearing.

The Vedanta group was in the race to acquire JAL through an insolvency process, but the lenders in November last year approved the resolution plan of Adani Enterprises Ltd. The NCLT approved the Adani Group's bid.

Challenging the NCLT order, the Vedanta group filed two appeals before the NCLAT. In the first, it challenged the validity of the resolution plan, and in the second, it challenged the approval of the plan by the committee of creditors (CoC) and the adjudicating authority -- the NCLT.

In its hearing, the NCLAT said all the parties have agreed that, looking at the nature of the issues raised in the appeal, the matter needs to be decided at an early date.

The NCLAT clarified that the implementation of the plan would be subject to the outcome of the appeals filed by the Anil Agarwal-led Vedanta Group.

On March 17, the NCLT, Allahabad bench, approved Adani's bid to acquire JAL through the insolvency process. This was challenged by Vedanta before the NCLAT, which directed that Adani Enterprises be a party.

During the proceedings of the NCLAT, the counsel representing Vedanta had contended that it was declared the highest bidder by JAL's Committee of Creditors. Vedanta's bid value was Rs 16,726 crore, and Adani Enterprises' bid was Rs 14,535 crore.

In November last year, the CoC approved the resolution plan by business tycoon Gautam Adani to acquire JAL.

Adani Enterprises had outbid Vedanta and Dalmia Bharat to win the bid for JAL. Adani got the maximum 89 per cent votes from creditors, followed by Dalmia Cement (Bharat) and Vedanta Group.

Adani's bid was preferred as it offered around Rs 6,000 crore upfront and faster payments within two years, compared with Vedanta's longer payment timeline of up to five years.

JAL, which has high-quality assets and business interests spanning real estate, cement manufacturing, hospitality, power, engineering and construction, was admitted to the Corporate Insolvency Resolution Process (CIRP) in June 2024 after it defaulted on payments of loans aggregating Rs 57,185 crore.

JAL has major real estate projects like Jaypee Greens in Greater Noida, a part of Jaypee Greens Wishtown in Noida -- both on the outskirts of the national capital -- and the Jaypee International Sports City, located near the upcoming Jewar International Airport.

It has three commercial office spaces in Delhi-NCR, while its hotel division has five properties in the National Capital Region (NCR), Mussoorie and Agra.

JAL has four cement plants in Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh, and a few leased limestone mines in Madhya Pradesh.

It also has investments in subsidiaries, including Jaiprakash Power Ventures Ltd, Yamuna Expressway Tolling Ltd, Jaypee Infrastructure Development Ltd and several other companies. PTI SJK MNL KSS KSS

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