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March 26, 2026
Show AI Summary
Disability-related tax deduction requires Form 30, medical certification, and timely filing with the return of income.
Deduction is available for maintenance, including medical treatment, training and rehabilitation, of a dependant who is a person with disability, and for payments made under a qualifying insurance or specified scheme. Form 30 is the prescribed statement for claiming the deduction and must be filed by a resident individual along with the return of income. The medical authority certificate must be uploaded online, and a fresh certificate is required when a temporary disability certificate expires.
March 26, 2026
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Carry forward and set-off of amalgamated losses depends on Form 29 production certification and verified compliance.
Form 29 is the prescribed certificate for an amalgamated company to evidence achievement and maintenance of the prescribed level of production in an undertaking received through amalgamation. It is filed with the return of income to support compliance with the conditions for carry forward and set-off of accumulated loss and unabsorbed depreciation of the amalgamating company. The form must be certified by the principal officer and verified by an accountant, and it requires confirmation that the prescribed production threshold has been achieved and maintained within the specified period.
March 26, 2026
Show AI Summary
Freight disruption and export relief measures shape India's response to West Asia-linked logistics stress and production shortages.
West Asia-related disruption in shipping and logistics has led to steep increases in freight charges, container shortages, stranded cargo and shipment cancellations affecting exporters in eastern India. Perishable goods, engineering products, textiles and medicines are among the sectors most affected, while the LPG supply crunch has added to production difficulties and air cargo costs have risen because of route changes and cancellations. The text also refers to relief measures, including waiver-based port concessions, the RELIEF scheme for conflict-linked losses and reimbursement support for eligible MSME exporters.
March 26, 2026
Show AI Summary
Production compliance certificate governs carry forward and set-off benefits for amalgamated companies under the income tax rules.
Form 29 is the mandatory certificate under Rule 60 for an amalgamated company claiming carry forward and set-off of accumulated losses and unabsorbed depreciation under Section 116(4)(b)(iii). It certifies achievement and maintenance of the prescribed production level in acquired industrial undertakings, requires electronic filing with the return of income, and may cover multiple amalgamating companies. The production condition is 50% of installed capacity within four years of amalgamation and maintenance up to five years, with possible governmental relaxation in suitable cases.
March 26, 2026
Show AI Summary
Slump sale reporting requires accountant certification of net worth and capital gains through online Form 28 filing.
Accountant's report in Form No. 28 (Form No. 3CEA) is required for an assessee undertaking a slump sale to certify the computation of net worth and capital gains under the Income Tax Act, 2025. The form applies where an undertaking or division is transferred as a going concern for a lump-sum consideration without assigning individual values to assets and liabilities. It must be furnished online on the income tax e-filing portal on or before the due date for filing the assessee's income tax return.
March 26, 2026
Show AI Summary
Slump sale reporting under income tax law requires mandatory accountant certification, online filing, and timely submission through Form 28.
Form No. 28 is the accountant's report required under section 77(4) of the Income-tax Act, 2025 for computation of capital gains in a slump sale. It applies where an undertaking or division is transferred as a going concern for lump-sum consideration without assigning separate values to assets and liabilities, and it is mandatory for certifying net worth and capital gains. The form must be filed once in a year on or before the due date for the income-tax return, only online, and cannot be edited after submission. A valid PAN is required.
March 26, 2026
Show AI Summary
Capital gains attribution framework for specified entities filing Form 27 with valuation support and electronic certification.
Form 27 is filed by every specified entity to furnish details of the amount attributed to capital assets remaining with the entity where a specified person receives capital asset or stock-in-trade on dissolution or reconstitution. It supports computation under Rule 50 and must be certified on the basis of a registered valuer's report. The form is filed electronically with the return of income and includes particulars of the amount taxable, its attribution to remaining assets, and the valuer's details.
March 26, 2026
Show AI Summary
Form No. 27 reporting requirement governs valuation-based attribution of income on dissolution or reconstitution of a specified entity.
Form No. 27 is a mandatory income-tax reporting form prescribed under Rule 50 for a specified entity where income becomes taxable under section 67(10) on dissolution or reconstitution and a specified person receives capital asset, stock-in-trade, or both. It operationalises the attribution of such taxable income to the capital assets remaining with the specified entity and must be furnished for each tax year in which the relevant event occurs. The form requires electronic filing with the return of income and valuation-based attribution supported by a registered valuer's report.
March 26, 2026
Show AI Summary
Tax audit Form No. 26 standardises disclosures, audit reporting, and filing requirements under the new income tax framework.
Prescribed Form No. 26 is the audit report and statement of particulars under section 63 of the Income-tax Act, 2025 read with rule 47 of the Income-tax Rules, 2026. Parts A and B contain the substantive disclosures for tax audit compliance, including books of account, method of accounting, income, expenses, losses, depreciation, deductions, international taxation, TDS/TCS, indirect taxation and quantitative details. Part C applies where accounts are audited under another law, while Part D applies where they are not. The form is required for specified business and professional thresholds and certain presumptive taxation cases, and is furnished through a structured online filing process.
March 26, 2026
Show AI Summary
Mandatory audit reporting under Form No. 26 introduces clause-wise disclosures, UDIN compliance, and schedule-based tax audit filing.
Form No. 26 is the mandatory audit report and statement of particulars for persons carrying on business or profession whose accounts are required to be audited under section 63. It applies from tax years commencing on or after 1 April 2026, is due one month before the return filing deadline, and must be signed by an Accountant with UDIN, and FRN where applicable. The form uses Part B clause-wise Yes/No reporting with trigger-based schedules, and Parts C and D for audit reporting depending on whether accounts are audited under another law.
March 26, 2026
Show AI Summary
Daily case register requirements for medical professionals under tax rules, including maintenance, exceptions, and non-filing status.
Form No. 25 prescribes a daily case register for medical professionals under Rule 46 of the Income-tax Rules, 2026. It records the patient's name, nature of service, fees charged, and date of receipt of fees. The form is mandatory for persons engaged in the medical profession, subject to the stated gross-receipts exceptions, and is maintained in addition to books of account. It is not furnished to the Department and has no due date.
March 26, 2026
Show AI Summary
Daily case register compliance for medical practitioners requires tabular records, electronic access safeguards, and preservation obligations.
Form No. 25 is the prescribed daily case register for practitioners of any system of medicine under Rule 46 of the Income-tax Rules, 2026, subject to the prescribed gross receipt threshold and the position of newly set-up medical practices. It records patient and fee particulars in tabular form, is not furnished to the Income-tax Department, but must be maintained daily, produced before the Assessing Officer when called for, may be kept electronically with India-based access and backups, and must be preserved for seven tax years or until completion of reassessment proceedings.
March 26, 2026
Show AI Summary
Permanent establishment audit reporting for royalty and technical services income now uses a structured Chartered Accountant certification format.
Form No. 24 is a statutory audit report for non-residents and foreign companies earning royalty or fees for technical services from India through a permanent establishment or fixed place of profession in India. It requires a Chartered Accountant's certification of the correctness of income computation, verification of the PE or fixed place, maintenance of books of account, and deduction only of expenses attributable to the PE while computing income under section 59. The form is filed annually, contains structured particulars of the assessee, agreement, PE, books examined, and income computation, and is submitted through the e-filing portal with digital signature verification.
March 26, 2026
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Competition approval for additional shareholding acquisition in Valuedrive Technologies through an alternative investment and trust co-investment structure.
The Competition Commission of India approved the proposed acquisition of additional shareholding in Valuedrive Technologies Private Limited by Setu AIF Trust, Konark Trust and MMPL Trust. The transaction concerns acquisition of shares on a fully diluted basis through an alternative investment fund and private trust co-investment structure. Valuedrive Technologies Private Limited operates as an operating-cum-holding company for the Spinny Group and carries on an electronic platform business for used motor vehicles, together with related subsidiary activities.
March 26, 2026
Show AI Summary
Competition law approval for acquisition of shares in a listed NBFC by a Japan-based banking institution.
Competition Commission of India approval was granted for the acquisition of certain shares in Shriram Finance Limited by MUFG Bank Ltd. The acquirer is a Japan-based banking institution wholly owned and controlled by Mitsubishi UFJ Financial Group, Inc., and carries on banking-related activities in India including corporate banking loans, deposit accounts, remittances, trade finance, bank guarantees and hedging. The target is a listed non-banking financial company registered with the Reserve Bank of India, classified as an Investment and Credit Company and an NBFC-Upper Layer, engaged in financing commercial goods and passenger vehicles, construction equipment, farm equipment, MSMEs, two-wheelers, gold and personal loans.
March 26, 2026
Show AI Summary
Competition approval for acquisition of Groww Asset Management shareholding by State Street Global Advisors
Competition approval was granted for the proposed acquisition of shareholding in Groww Asset Management Limited by State Street Global Advisors, Inc. The target manages schemes of Groww Mutual Fund, including equity, hybrid, debt and exchange traded fund schemes. State Street operates under the State Street Investment Management brand as the asset management arm of State Street Corporation. The detailed order of the Commission would follow.
March 26, 2026
Show AI Summary
Competition combination approval for Coursera and Udemy merger, creating sole control over Udemy through a subsidiary merger.
Competition Commission of India approved a proposed combination involving the merger of Chess Merger Sub, a wholly owned subsidiary of Coursera Inc., with and into Udemy Inc., with Udemy surviving as a wholly owned subsidiary of Coursera. The transaction results in Coursera acquiring sole control over Udemy, and the combined company is expected to have post-closing shareholding in which existing Coursera stockholders hold approximately 59% and existing Udemy stockholders approximately 41% on a fully diluted basis.
March 26, 2026
Show AI Summary
Competition approval for renewable energy investment in Aditya Birla Renewables through equity subscription by GIP EM Star.
Competition Commission of India approved the subscription of certain equity share capital of Aditya Birla Renewables Limited by GIP EM Star Pte. Ltd. The acquirer is incorporated in Singapore and is ultimately linked to Global Infrastructure Management, LLC and BlackRock, Inc. The target, headquartered in Mumbai, is engaged in renewable energy power generation, including solar and wind power.
March 25, 2026
Show AI Summary
Inflation targeting framework retained with a 4 per cent objective and a 2 per cent tolerance band for the next cycle.
The central government, in consultation with the Reserve Bank, has notified the inflation target for 1 April 2026 to 31 March 2031 at 4 per cent, with an upper tolerance level of 6 per cent and a lower tolerance level of 2 per cent. The framework continues to place the Monetary Policy Committee in charge of setting the policy rate needed to achieve the inflation objective within the prescribed band.
March 25, 2026
Show AI Summary
Insolvency resolution delays under the bankruptcy code draw debate over tribunal capacity, creditor recoveries, and reform priorities.
Delay in insolvency resolution under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code remained the central issue in parliamentary discussion on the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (Amendment) Bill, 2025. Members referred to tribunal capacity constraints, overburdened case loads, delayed liquidation and resolution timelines, value deterioration, and low realisations to creditors as continuing problems in the insolvency ecosystem. The select committee report was noted as seeking to address these structural concerns through amendments aimed at improving the functioning of the insolvency and bankruptcy framework.

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Form 152 – Frequently Asked Questions

April 3, 2026

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Form 152 – Frequently Asked Questions

Intimation to the Assessing Officer under section 407(8) regarding the notice of demand under section 289 of the Act for payment of advance tax under section 407(2)/407(5) of the Act

Name of form as per I.T. Rules, 1962

Form 28A

Name of form as per I.T. Rules, 2026

152

Corresponding section of I.T. Act, 1961

156 /210

Corresponding section of I.T. Act, 2025

289/407

Corresponding Rule of I.T. Rules, 1962

39

Corresponding Rule of I.T. Rules, 2026

222

1. What is Form 152?

Ans: Form 152 is prescribed for intimating the Assessing Officer under section 407(8) of the Income-tax Act that the notice of demand issued under section 289 for payment of advance tax, pursuant to an order under section 407(2) or section 407(5), is excessive, and for furnishing a revised estimate of income subject to advance tax.

2. Who should file Form 152?

Ans: Form 152 may be filed by a person:

  • On whom a notice of demand under section 289 for payment of advance tax has been served, and
  • Who is of the opinion that the estimate of income or advance tax made by the Assessing Officer is higher than the correct estimate for the relevant tax year.

3. Is filing of Form 152 mandatory?

Ans: No.

Form 152 is optional and is required to be filed only if the assessee disputes the advance tax estimate made by the Assessing Officer and seeks to intimate a lower and revised estimate under section 407(8).

4. Before whom should Form 152 be filed?

Ans: Form 152 shall be filed before the Assessing Officer who has issued the notice of demand under section 289.

5. What is the purpose of filing Form 152?

Ans: The purpose of Form 152 is to:

  • Inform the Assessing Officer that the advance tax demand is excessive,
  • Specify the reasons for such excess, and
  • Furnish a detailed revised estimate of income subject to advance tax for the relevant tax year.

6. What reasons can be stated for disputing the advance tax demand in Form 152?

Ans: The assessee may state one or more of the following reasons, as provided in the form:

  • Arithmetical error in the computation contained in Form No. 151,
  • Existence of a mistake apparent from record within the meaning of section 287 for which rectification has been filed or is proposed to be filed,
  • Loss or absence of income under the head “Capital gains” during the current tax year,
  • Absence of income of the nature referred to in section 2(49)(n), or
  • Any other specific reason, which must be clearly specified.

7. What details are required to be furnished in Form 152?

Ans: Form 152 requires the assessee to furnish:

  • Reference to the notice of demand and date of service,
  • Reasons for disputing the estimate made by the Assessing Officer, and
  • A comprehensive head-wise revised estimate of income, including salaries, capital gains, house property, business or profession, and income from other sources.

8. How should income from business or profession be reported in Form 152?

Ans: Income from business or profession should be reported separately for:

  • Profits and gains from business or profession carried on by the assessee,
  • Share of income from firm(s), and
  • Income from an association of persons or body of individuals, along with name, address, registration status, and amount of profit or loss, wherever applicable.

9. What is meant by “income subject to advance tax” in Form 152?

Ans: “Income subject to advance tax” means the aggregate estimated income chargeable to tax, computed after:

  • Aggregating income under all heads,
  • Allowing set-off of carried forward losses, and
  • Allowing deductions admissible under Chapter VIII of the Act.

10. Are deductions and tax credits required to be considered while computing the revised estimate?

Ans: Yes.

While computing the revised estimate, the assessee is required to take into account:

  • Income on which tax is not payable or rebate is admissible,
  • Tax deductible or collectible at source under sections 392 and 393,
  • Relief on account of double taxation, if any, and
  • Advance tax already paid under section 406.

11. Who is required to fill Para 2 of Form 152?

Ans: Para 2 of Form 152 is required to be filled only by:

  • Individuals,
  • Unregistered firms,
  • Associations of persons or bodies of individuals referred to in section 2(77)(e), and
  • Artificial juridical persons referred to in section 2(77)(g) of the Act.

12. Who should sign and verify Form 152?

Ans: Form 152 must be signed by a person authorised to sign the return of income under section 265 of the Act, such as:

  • The individual assessee,
  • A partner of the firm, or
  • A director or other authorised signatory, as applicable.

13. Is Form 152 applicable in the case of registered firms?

Ans: Yes.

A registered firm is required to submit its own estimate of advance tax payable, if any, in accordance with Part III of the First Schedule to the relevant Finance Act, and individual partners are also required to submit their respective estimates including their share of income from the firm.

14. Can annexures be attached to Form 152?

Ans: Yes.

Details of arithmetical errors or mistakes apparent from record referred to in Para 2 of the form may be annexed, wherever necessary.

15. Can Form 152 be revised after submission?

Ans: No.

Once Form 152 is furnished, it cannot be revised, and therefore due care must be taken while preparing the revised estimate.

16. Are the Notes appended to Form 152 mandatory?

Ans: Yes.

The Notes form an integral part of Form 152 and must be complied with, particularly with regard to:

  • Authorised signatory,
  • Applicability of the form,
  • Meaning of agricultural income, and
  • Annexure and currency requirements.

17. Why is Form 152 important?

Ans: Filing Form 152:

  • Provides a statutory mechanism to contest excessive advance tax demands,
  • Ensures fair and accurate estimation of advance tax liability,
  • Reduces undue financial burden on taxpayers, and
  • Facilitates responsive and efficient advance tax administration.  

Topics

Acts Income Tax