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    I-T dept notifies all 7 ITR forms for AY 2026-27
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March 31, 2026
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Income tax return forms notified for assessment year 2026-27, setting filing eligibility across taxpayer categories and updated returns.
Income Tax Department notified all income tax return forms for assessment year 2026-27, enabling individuals, businesses and other entities to file returns for income earned in financial year 2025-26. The notification covers ITR forms 1 to 7 as well as ITR-U for updated returns, with the return-filing deadline for individuals and other non-audited taxpayers stated as 31 July. ITR-1 (Sahaj) is available to resident individuals with total annual income up to Rs 50 lakh deriving income from salary, one house property, other sources and agricultural income up to Rs 5,000. ITR-4 (Sugam) applies to individuals, Hindu Undivided Families and firms other than limited liability partnerships having total annual income up to Rs 50 lakh and income from business or profession. ITR-2 is for individuals and HUFs without business or professional income but having capital gains, while ITR-3 is for individuals and HUFs with income from proprietary business or profession.
March 31, 2026
Show AI Summary
Regular registration and approval for non-profit organisations through a common online form with event-based filing rules.
Form No. 105 is the common online application for regular registration of a non-profit organisation and for regular approval of a registered non-profit organisation or specified funds so that donor deductions may be available. It is mandatory only for applicants seeking these benefits, requires PAN, must be furnished electronically to the jurisdictional Principal Commissioner or Commissioner, and is filed within the prescribed time limits depending on commencement of activities, expiry of provisional status, expiry of existing registration or approval, inoperative registration, or modification of objects. The form is generally event-based, the regular registration or approval is ordinarily valid for five tax years, and a one-time re-application, withdrawal within seven days, correction before the order, and specified supporting documents are permitted.
March 31, 2026
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Provisional registration and approval for non-profit organisations under Form 104 are granted through a simplified electronic application process.
Form No. 104 is the common electronic application for provisional registration or provisional approval for eligible non-profit organisations, registered non-profit organisations, regimental funds, and non-public funds established by the armed forces. It requires prescribed identification, incorporation, registration, ownership, return-filing, and supporting document details, and must be filed with the Commissioner of Income Tax (CPC) through the e-filing portal. Provisional registration or approval is granted through a written order with a Unique Registration Number, may be cancelled for false or non-compliant filings, may be surrendered if no exemption benefits were ever claimed, and may be withdrawn within seven days of filing.
March 31, 2026
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Provisional registration and approval for non-profit organisations depend on online Form No. 104, mandatory PAN, and commenced activities rules.
Form No. 104 is the common electronic application for provisional registration under section 332(3) and provisional approval under section 354(2) for applicants whose activities have not commenced. It is filed online with the Commissioner of Income Tax (CPC), who must pass an order in Form No. 106 within one month from the end of the month of filing, unless the application is non-est. The provisional registration or approval is valid for three tax years or up to six months from commencement of activities, whichever is earlier, and may be cancelled for false information or defective filing. PAN is mandatory, offline filing is not permitted, and the form cannot be edited after submission.
March 31, 2026
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PAN allotment forms simplified into category-specific applications with mandatory contact details, supporting documents and improved verification.
PAN allotment applications are to be made in revised Forms 93, 94, 95 and 96 for four applicant categories: individual citizens of India, Indian entities, individuals who are not citizens of India, and foreign entities. The forms are category-specific, self-explanatory and aligned with the Income-tax Act and rules, with online or physical filing through PAN service providers, document verification, transmission to the Income Tax Department, and PAN generation with dispatch of the physical card where opted.
March 31, 2026
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Permanent Account Number application rules set forms, documents, fees, and correction procedures for Indian and foreign applicants.
Permanent Account Number (PAN) application is governed through prescribed forms for different applicant categories: Form 93 for individuals being citizens of India, Form 94 for non-individual Indian entities, Form 95 for individuals not being citizens of India, and Form 96 for non-individual foreign entities. PAN is a unique taxpayer identifier required for income-tax return filing and specified financial transactions. The application process requires prescribed supporting documents, incomplete or deficient applications are treated as invalid, and correction requests may be made separately after allotment.
March 31, 2026
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Corporate governance through independent director appointment and audit committee leadership to improve oversight, controls and compliance.
Appointment of an independent director and audit committee chair to strengthen corporate governance, financial oversight and compliance mechanisms. The role is stated to include supervision of financial reporting integrity, internal controls, enterprise risk management, regulatory compliance and audit processes, with the appointment intended to deepen board oversight and support disciplined, responsible and sustainable growth.
March 31, 2026
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Manufacturing activity rebounds as energy costs, supply-chain risks, and weak demand cloud China's growth outlook.
China's manufacturing activity returned to expansion in March as the official purchasing managers index rose above 50, ending two months of contraction. Analysts said the outlook remains vulnerable to higher energy costs, possible supply-chain disruption, a prolonged property-sector slump, and weaker global demand, while exports continue to play a key role in supporting growth.
March 30, 2026
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Asset restitution under PMLA advances recovery for PACL investors after attachment of properties in alleged investment fraud.
Assets worth more than Rs 15,000 crore have been restored under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act to a Supreme Court-appointed committee for distribution to investors allegedly defrauded in the PACL collective investment scheme. A special PMLA court ordered restitution of 455 immovable properties to the Justice Lodha Committee, reflecting the statutory remedy of restoration of attached assets to victims of fraud and proceeds of crime. The ED's action is part of an investigation into allegations of an illegal collective investment scheme and the attachment of properties held by PACL entities, family members and associates.
March 30, 2026
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Rupee volatility intensifies as geopolitical tensions, dollar strength and RBI net open position caps pressure forex markets.
The rupee fell sharply in intra-day trade and briefly crossed the 95-per-US dollar level before closing at 94.70, with volatility attributed to heightened geopolitical tensions, risk-off sentiment, a firm dollar index and higher crude oil prices. The Reserve Bank of India reduced the net open position that banks may maintain overnight and capped Net Open Position (NOP-INR) at USD 100 million through a circular dated March 27, 2026, with compliance required by April 10, as part of monitoring currency exposure in a volatile foreign exchange market.
March 30, 2026
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Money laundering attachment under PMLA targets immovable assets linked to alleged diversion and siphoning of company funds.
Provisional attachment under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act was issued in respect of land parcels and other immovable assets valued at more than Rs 271 crore. The attached properties included land parcels in Panvel and Shahapur talukas of Maharashtra, in connection with an ongoing money-laundering investigation concerning Rajendra Lodha, a former director of Lodha Developers. The allegations concerned diversion and siphoning of company funds and assets through unauthorised transfer of properties at undervalued prices, fabrication of Memorandums of Understanding, and misappropriation of inflated amounts.
March 30, 2026
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Summons compliance in excise policy probe challenged as the agency disputes acquittal and alleges deliberate non-appearance.
The Enforcement Directorate has challenged the acquittal of Arvind Kejriwal in two summons-compliance cases arising from the excise policy matter, alleging intentional failure to appear despite repeated summonses and deliberate creation of grounds to avoid the probe. The trial court had found that the ED failed to prove intentional disobedience. The broader excise policy and money-laundering proceedings remain pending in connected forums.
March 30, 2026
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Rupee depreciation and forex speculation curb as the Reserve Bank limits bank net open positions in the onshore market.
The rupee fell sharply against the US dollar in FY26 because of foreign fund outflows, high crude prices, global dollar strength, tariff pressure, geopolitical tensions, and volatile markets. The Reserve Bank of India intervened by selling dollars and later introduced a measure requiring banks to limit net open positions in the onshore currency market to curb excessive speculation and reduce one-sided bets against the rupee.
March 30, 2026
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Insolvency resolution process dispute tests value maximisation, fair bidding and creditor discretion in Jaiprakash Associates acquisition plan.
Vedanta Ltd has challenged the approval of Adani Enterprises Ltd.'s resolution plan for Jaiprakash Associates Ltd. in insolvency proceedings and sought a stay on its implementation. The dispute concerns the validity of the resolution plan, the approvals granted by the Committee of Creditors and the adjudicating authority, and the application of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code principles of value maximisation, fair bidding, feasibility and execution. The appellate tribunal has sought a response from the Committee of Creditors and noted that implementation of the plan will remain subject to the outcome of the appeals.
March 30, 2026
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Money laundering and fugitive offender laws address bank fraud attachments, confiscation, and restrictions on economic offenders abroad.
The Enforcement Directorate has investigated bank fraud matters under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, with arrests, prosecution complaints, convictions, attachment of proceeds of crime, and confiscation and restitution of assets in some cases. The Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018 is described as a measure to deter offenders from evading Indian law by staying abroad and provides for confiscation of properties, proceeds of crime and benami properties, lookout notices, and restrictions on raising capital, acquiring shares, or voting rights.
March 30, 2026
Show AI Summary
Notice of demand under the income tax law sets payment timelines, appellate details, and options for instalments or extension.
Form 103 is the notice of demand issued by the Assessing Officer under section 289 of the Income-tax Act, 2025 read with rule 179 of the Income-tax Rules, 2026, to communicate tax, interest, penalty or any other sum payable for a tax year or block period. It is based on an assessment order, penalty order, TDS default, rectification, order giving effect, or other order creating a recoverable demand. The demand is ordinarily payable within 30 days, may be modified by the Assessing Officer, and reduction below 30 days needs prior approval of the Joint Commissioner.
March 30, 2026
Show AI Summary
Social and environmental statistics dissemination strengthens evidence-based policymaking through MoSPI's digital platforms, SDG dashboard, and stakeholder consultations.
MoSPI regularly releases social and environmental statistics publications through its official website and related digital platforms, including environment statistics, environment accounts, SDG indicator reports, and thematic demographic reports. The Ministry also uses the India SDG Dashboard, e-Sankhyiki portal, and Advance Release Calendar to support centralized data access, monitoring, and timely dissemination, while expert groups and stakeholder consultations are used to improve coverage, quality, relevance, accessibility, and public awareness.
March 30, 2026
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Artificial intelligence integration improves data discovery and user interaction on the Ministry's eSankhyiki portal and revamped website.
Artificial intelligence is being integrated into the eSankhyiki portal and the Ministry's revamped website to improve accessibility, searchability and usability of reports, datasets and publications. An AI-enabled chatbot has also been hosted to improve data discovery and user interaction, while no specific timeline has been fixed for full implementation of the AI-enabled tools.
March 30, 2026
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Energy statistics compilation highlights expanded energy-sector data coverage, harmonised end-use reporting, and growth in renewables and consumption.
The National Statistics Office has released the annual publication Energy Statistics India 2026, an integrated statistical compendium on India's energy sector. The publication brings together data on reserves, capacity, production, consumption, and import-export of major energy commodities, and includes energy balance tables, graphs, and sustainable energy indicators aligned with international standards. The 33rd edition expands coverage by adding credit flow, world energy statistics, coal consumption through e-auction, imported non-coking coal, sector-wise electricity consumption, and bunker supply data, while harmonising end-use consumption statistics across energy commodities.
March 30, 2026
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Notice of demand in Form 103 sets out tax dues, payment timelines, and options for extension or instalments.
Notice of demand in Form 103 is issued by the Assessing Officer under section 289 of the Income-tax Act, 2025 read with Rule 179 of the Income-tax Rules, 2026 to communicate tax, interest, penalty or other sums payable for a tax year or block period. The demand is ordinarily payable within 30 days from service of the notice, though the Assessing Officer may alter the due date; any shortening requires prior approval of the Joint Commissioner. The assessee may pay through prescribed modes or seek extension or instalments before expiry of the payment period.

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Form No. 141 - Frequently Asked Questions

April 2, 2026

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Form No. 141 (Earlier Form Nos. 26QB/QC/QD/QE)

Form No. 141 - Frequently Asked Questions

Challan-cum-Statement of deduction of tax under section 393(1) [Table: Sl. No. 2(i), 3(i), 6(ii) & 8(vi)] of the Income-tax Act, 2025

Name of form as per Income Tax Rules, 1962

26QB. 26QC, 26QD & 26QE

Name of form as per Income Tax Rules, 2026

141

Corresponding Section of Income Tax Act, 1961

194-IA, 194-IB, 194M & 194S

Corresponding section of Income Tax Act, 2025

393(1) [Table: Sl. Nos. 2(i), 3(i), 6(ii) & 8(vi)]

Corresponding Rule of Income Tax Rules, 1962

30 & 31A

Corresponding Rule of Income Tax Rules, 2026

218 & 219

1. What is Form No. 141?

Ans: The Form No. 141 is a single unified form introduced to enable reporting and payment of tax deducted at source for specified transactions through multiple dedicated schedules instead of separate forms.

2. Which forms have been merged into the Form No. 141?

Ans: The consolidated Form 141 replaces:

  • Form 26QB
  • Form 26QC
  • Form 26QD
  • Form 26QE

3. How is reporting for different transactions structured in this form?

Ans: This form contains separate schedules, each corresponding to a specific type of transaction earlier reported through a separate form.

4. Which schedules correspond to which erstwhile forms?

Ans: The mapping is as follows:

Schedule A – Rent payments (earlier Form 26QC)

Schedule B – Purchase of immovable property (earlier Form 26QB)

Schedule C – Payments to resident contractors or professionals (earlier Form 26QD)

Schedule D – Transfer of virtual digital assets (earlier Form 26QE)

5. Is the deductor required to fill all schedules in the consolidated form?

Ans: No. The deductor is required to fill only the relevant schedule applicable to the transaction being reported.

6. Who is required to file the Form No. 141?

Ans: A person (tenant/buyer/payer/buyer of VDA) who is deducting tax at source under the specified provisions of Income-tax Act, 2025 is required to file this form.

7. Is TAN mandatory for filing Form No. 141?

Ans: No. Filing is to be done using PAN of the deductor.

8. How does the deductor select the appropriate schedule?

Ans: The deductor must select the schedule based on the nature of the transaction and the applicable section of the Act.

9. What transactions are to be reported in Schedule A?

Ans: Schedule A is applicable for reporting rent payments under section 393(1) [Table Sl. No. 2(i)] where tax is deducted by person other than specified person.

10. What transactions are to be reported in Schedule B?

Ans: Schedule B is applicable for reporting purchase of immovable property under section 393(1) [Table Sl. No. 3(i)].

11. What transactions are to be reported in Schedule C?

Ans: Schedule C is applicable for reporting payments to resident contractors or professionals under section 393(1) [Table Sl. No. 6(ii)].

12. What transactions are to be reported in Schedule D?

Ans: Schedule D is applicable for reporting transactions involving transfer of virtual digital assets under section 393(1) [Table Sl. No. 8(vi)].

13. Can multiple schedules be used in a single form?

Ans: No. Each Form No. 141 is meant for one transaction type only, and therefore only one schedule may be filled per filing.

14. Is a separate Form No. 141 required for each transaction of same nature?

Ans: No. A single Form No. 141 is sufficient for multiple transactions of same nature having same month of deduction. Transactions with different month of deductions cannot be clubbed in a single form.

15. How should transactions involving multiple sellers or buyers be reported?

Ans: Separate forms are required to be filed for each deductor for its proportionate share, within the relevant schedule. One deductor can report multiple transactions of same nature having same month of deduction. Multiple deductees can be used in the same form, however, in case of more than one deductor, separate forms are required to be filed for each deductor for its proportionate share.

16. What is the due date for filing Form No. 141?

Ans: The due date is within 30 days from the end of the month in which tax is deducted.

17. How is payment of tax made under Form No. 141?

Ans: Payment of tax is made electronically along with submission of the Form No. 141.

18. What happens after payment is made successfully?

Ans: Upon successful payment of tax, a Challan Identification Number (CIN) is generated automatically against particular acknowledgement number linked to the statement.

19. Can the Form No. 141 be revised?

Ans: Yes. A correction statement may be filed to rectify errors in any schedule within two years from the end of the tax year in which such statement is required to be delivered.

20. What happens if deductee PAN is invalid or incorrect?

Ans: In such cases, credit will not be reflected in the deductee’s ATS/ Form 26AS and deductor will be liable to deduct tax at a higher rate, wherever applicable.

21. Is late fees applicable for delayed filing?

Ans: Yes. Late fee under section 427 of Income-tax Act, 2025 shall be levied for delay in filing the form.

22. Is interest applicable for late deduction or payment?

Ans: Yes. Interest under section 398(3)(a) shall apply, as per the Income-tax Act, 2025.

23. Will TDS certificates continue to be issued?

Ans: Yes. Based on the schedule used and upon successful processing, the deductor can download relevant TDS certificate in Form No. 132 from TRACES and issue it to the deductee(s).

24. What are the threshold limits for different nature of payments in Form No. 141?

Ans: Threshold limits prescribed under the respective nature of payments are as under:

Nature of Payments

Threshold limits

On payment of rent

₹50,000 for a month or part of a month

On transfer of immovable property

₹50 lakh or more

On professional / contract / commission / brokerage payments

₹50 lakh

On transfer of VDA

No monetary limit is prescribed

25. What will be the applicability of Form No. 141?

Ans: The Form No. 141 shall be applicable for the transactions pertaining to Tax Year 2026- 27 onwards.

26. Can an authorised representative file the consolidated form?

Ans: Yes. Filing of original statement may be done through an authorised representative using valid credentials at e-filing portal only.

27. What proof will deductor have after submission of this form?

Ans: The ARN (Acknowledgement Receipt Number) is generated after submission of form and the deductor will also have the facility to download the submitted form.

Topics

Acts Income Tax