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March 28, 2026
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Foreign tax credit intimation form streamlines settlement-based claims for previously unclaimed credit under the filing rules.
Form No. 45 provides a structured electronic intimation for settlement of dispute regarding foreign tax for which credit was not claimed. It applies to a resident assessee with foreign income who seeks foreign tax credit after the dispute is finally settled, where Form No. 44 had already been filed for the relevant tax year. The form must be filed within six months from the end of the month in which the dispute is finally settled, with supporting documents, and must be verified by an accountant where Form No. 44 required accountant verification.
March 28, 2026
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Securitization trust income reporting through Form 72, with online filing, prescribed records, and pass-through taxation compliance.
Form 72 is the statement of income paid or credited by a securitization trust to its investors. It must be furnished to the Income-tax Department online by the person responsible for paying or crediting income on behalf of the trust, by 15 June of the financial year following the tax year in which the income was paid or credited. Filing requires the trust's books, audited financial statements, income details from securitised assets, investor particulars, distribution records, and the applicable registration certificate.
March 28, 2026
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Audit report compliance for offshore banking unit investment divisions governs exemption and concessional taxation claims under income tax rules.
Form 71 is the mandatory audit report for a registered investment division of an offshore banking unit where a specified fund seeks exemption under section 11 read with Schedule VI or concessional taxation under section 210(3) of the ITA 2025. It certifies fulfilment of the prescribed eligibility conditions, including separate books, audit by an accountant, relevant documentation, and filing by the specified date. The form is filed electronically with supporting records and, when validly furnished, supports the claim to exemption or concessional rates.
March 28, 2026
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Tax exemption compliance for specified funds depends on timely electronic filing of Form 71 and accountant verification.
Form 71 is the prescribed audit report for verification by an accountant in respect of the computation of exempt income of a specified fund attributable to the investment division of an offshore banking unit. It is linked to the claim of exemption or taxation at concessional rates for eligible income, and its filing is one of the conditions for admissibility of that claim. The form must be filed electronically on the income-tax e-filing portal and verified by the accountant either through digital signature or electronic verification code. It cannot be filed offline, and once validly submitted and acknowledged it cannot be edited.
March 28, 2026
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Specified fund compliance for Form 70 governs exempt income reporting and concessional taxation claims for offshore banking units.
Form 70 is the prescribed e-form for a specified fund to furnish the annual statement of exempt income attributable to the investment division of an offshore banking unit under section 11 read with Schedule VI, together with income taxable at concessional rates under section 210(3) of the ITA 2025. Filing is mandatory for a specified fund seeking exemption or concessional taxation and must be made electronically on the e-filing portal by the due date, with supporting documents, verification by the Trustee or Principal Officer, and the audit report in Form 71 certifying separate accounts and audit of the eligible investment division.
March 28, 2026
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Exempt income reporting through Form 70 requires electronic filing, verification, and timely compliance for specified fund benefits.
Form 70 is the annual statement for a specified fund to report exempt income and income taxable at concessional rates in relation to the investment division of an offshore banking unit. It must be verified by the Principal Officer or Managing Trustee and filed electronically on the Income-tax e-filing portal within the prescribed due date. Filing a valid form is a mandatory condition for claiming exemption or concessional taxation, and the form cannot be filed offline or edited after valid submission. A valid PAN of the fund and the verifier is required, along with prescribed supporting documents and mandatory attachments.
March 28, 2026
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Concessional taxation for specified funds depends on timely filing of Form 69 with income and unit-holder details.
Form 69 is the prescribed annual statement for a specified fund to report income attributable to units held by non-residents, other than a permanent establishment in India, for concessional taxation. The form is a mandatory compliance requirement and must be filed electronically on or before the due date, with trustee or principal officer verification. It includes fund particulars, registration details, and computations of income from securities and capital gains, supported by constituting documents, registration certificate, financial statements, securities statements, and unit-holder residency details.
March 28, 2026
Show AI Summary
Concessional taxation for specified funds requires electronic Form 69 filing, verification, and timely supporting disclosures.
Form 69 is the prescribed electronic statement for a specified fund claiming concessional taxation on income attributable to units held by a non-resident, other than a permanent establishment in India. A valid filing within the prescribed due date is a mandatory condition for the concessional rate benefit. The form must be verified by the Principal Officer or Managing Trustee, supported by the prescribed annexures and documents, and cannot be edited after submission and acknowledgment.
March 28, 2026
Show AI Summary
Exempt income reporting under Form 68 streamlined for specified funds with electronic filing and updated verification requirements.
Form 68 is the annual statement prescribed for specified funds seeking exemption under Section 11 read with Schedule VI of ITA 2025 in respect of income attributable to units held by a non-resident, other than a permanent establishment in India. It is filed electronically by the Principal Officer on or before the return due date, and captures particulars of the fund, income, exempt income, unit-holder details, and the working of income attributable to non-resident holders. The guidance note also describes the supporting documents and the simplified filing updates, including IFSCA registration, mandatory document upload, and verification in place of declaration.
March 28, 2026
Show AI Summary
Exempt income statement filing for specified funds requires verified online submission within the prescribed due date.
Form 68 is the prescribed electronic statement for claiming exemption of income of specified funds under section 11 read with Schedule VI [Table: Sl. Nos. 1 to 4] of the Income-tax Act, 2025, in respect of income attributable to units held by a non-resident other than a permanent establishment of such non-resident in India. The form must be verified by the Principal Officer or Managing Trustee, filed only through the Income-tax e-filing portal, and furnished on or before the applicable due date. Valid filing requires mandatory PAN details, specified annexures, and satisfaction of the statutory eligibility conditions.
March 28, 2026
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Alternate Minimum Tax reporting gets a structured Form 67 update with CA certification, itemised computation, and digital filing.
Form 67 is a chartered accountant's report for certifying book profit, adjusted total income and Alternate Minimum Tax liability under the updated section 206 framework. It applies to non-corporate taxpayers subject to the AMT regime, is furnished annually with the return of income, and must be digitally signed. The revised form introduces itemised computation fields, category-based AMT rates, and system-enabled validation through the e-filing process.
March 28, 2026
Show AI Summary
Alternate Minimum Tax compliance through Form 67 requires CA certification, electronic filing, and timely submission with the return.
Form 67 is prescribed for furnishing details relating to the computation of Adjusted Total Income and Alternate Minimum Tax (AMT) under section 206(2) of the Income-tax Act, 2025. It applies to persons other than companies, subject to stated exceptions, and is not required for certain specified taxpayers where adjusted total income does not exceed twenty lakh rupees. The form is used to determine AMT on adjusted total income, with tax payable at the higher of the regular tax or AMT, and it incorporates adjustments such as depreciation and other specified items.
March 28, 2026
Show AI Summary
Minimum Alternate Tax reporting through Form 66 demands Chartered Accountant certification, digital filing, and return-linked book profit verification.
Companies liable to Minimum Alternate Tax must furnish Form 66, a Chartered Accountant-certified report on book profit and MAT computation, annually with the income tax return. The form is digitally signed, accepted by the company through the e-filing portal, and linked to the return for processing. It contains company particulars, profit adjustments, transition amount, final MAT computation, auditor certification, and supporting financial and tax documents.
March 27, 2026
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Access to unrelied ED documents denied at pre-cognisance stage in an ongoing money-laundering investigation.
Access to documents seized by the Enforcement Directorate but not relied upon in the chargesheet was refused at the pre-cognisance stage in an ongoing Prevention of Money Laundering Act matter. The court held that the accused had already been supplied with the prosecution complaint and relied-upon documents, and that disclosure of unrelied material was not required before cognisance when the investigation remained pending.
March 27, 2026
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Trade agreement framework balances market access with farmer safeguards, calibrated tariff concessions, and export opportunities across key sectors.
India and the United States have agreed on a framework for an interim trade agreement intended to expand reciprocal and mutually beneficial trade while protecting domestic sensitivities, particularly in agriculture and dairy. The framework contemplates improved market access, rules of origin, action on non-tariff barriers, and cooperation on standards, digital trade, economic security, technology, supply chain resilience, energy and manufacturing. Limited and calibrated tariff concessions have been offered on select agricultural products through quota-based mechanisms, phased concessions and partial duty reductions, with the quotas kept within existing import levels to avoid adverse impact on domestic farmers.
March 27, 2026
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Rupee weakness deepens as higher crude prices, dollar strength and foreign selling weigh on currency and reserves.
The rupee weakened sharply to a historic low against the US dollar amid sustained pressure from higher crude oil prices, a stronger greenback, foreign investor selling, and energy-led inflation concerns. India's foreign exchange reserves also declined during the reporting week, driven by a fall in gold reserves. The government indicated plans to mobilise substantial borrowing through dated securities in the April-September period, while noting a reduction in gross market borrowing after G-Sec switches.
March 27, 2026
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Government borrowing calendar set for dated securities, green bonds, retail bidding and flexible issuance management.
The Centre plans to raise gross market borrowings through dated securities in the first half of FY 2026-27 to finance the fiscal deficit, with borrowing spread across weekly auctions and multiple maturities. The borrowing calendar includes sovereign green bonds, non-competitive bidding for specified retail investors, and flexibility to modify issuance amounts, maturities, instruments and timing in consultation with the Reserve Bank of India, depending on funding needs and market conditions.
March 27, 2026
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Bilateral trade agreement negotiations advance as India and the US discuss WTO issues, tariffs, and next steps in talks.
India and the United States continued discussions on the next steps in the bilateral trade agreement negotiations, covering the WTO agenda, the India-US BTA, and ways to deepen bilateral economic cooperation and trade ties. A framework for the first phase has been finalised, but the legal text remains unsigned, and the chief negotiators' meeting was postponed because of changes in the US tariff architecture and the need to await the revised global tariff framework before the interim trade agreement is signed.
March 27, 2026
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Energy supply stability assured as government rules out lockdown, citing adequate fuel stocks and anti-hoarding measures.
The government ruled out any lockdown and said India has adequate stocks of petrol, diesel and LPG, with fuel retail operations continuing normally despite energy supply disruptions linked to the war in West Asia. Officials said rumours have caused panic buying, while alternative sourcing, higher domestic LPG production, excise duty cuts, export levies, export diversion directions and intensified anti-hoarding enforcement are being used to stabilise supplies and protect consumers.
March 27, 2026
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Excise duty cut on petrol and diesel aims to shield consumers from global fuel price volatility.
The Union Government reduced excise duty on petrol and diesel by Rs 10 per litre to prevent a retail price increase caused by rising global oil prices. The move was described as a people-centric measure intended to shield consumers from fuel price volatility and wider shortages linked to global instability.

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Corp. Laws / SEBI / IBC

Opposition slams govt on insolvency law in Rajya Sabha

April 1, 2026

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New Delhi, Apr 1 (PTI) The Opposition in the Rajya Sabha criticised the government on Wednesday for frequent amendments to the Insolvency & Bankruptcy Code, significant haircuts, alleged favouritism towards large corporate defaulters, and ongoing infrastructure issues at the NCLT, alongside increasing backlogs before the tribunal.

The Rajya Sabha was debating the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (Amendment) Bill, 2026. The bill has proposed 12 amendments to the Insolvency & Bankruptcy Code (IBC), which came into force in 2016.

Sukhendu Sekhar Ray, AITC, said the government has brought the insolvency law in a hurried manner to create an exit route for defaulting companies, as in the last nine years, six amendments have been made.

"Even after bringing so many amendments as of September 2025, approximately 8,659 cases were admitted by the NCLT, and only 3,865 cases have been resolved. And as per the pendency rate, according to experts, it will take 10 years if this pendency is to be cleared off," he said.

Moreover, creditors have faced an average haircut of approximately 67 to 70 per cent on their admitted claims. This means creditors, including banks, typically recover only 30 to 33 per cent of the debt owed to them.

"In some cases, it reached as high as 81 to 83 per cent," Ray said, adding that "estimates suggest that overall, nationalised banks have foregone roughly Rs 8 lakh crore through haircut alone since the inception of IBC".

Till late 2025, creditors realised approximately Rs 3.99 trillion against admitted claims worth of roughly Rs 12.31 trillion.

"This bill fails to curb massive haircuts for creditors, which is a tool to reap assets rather than truly resolve them," he said, adding that the insolvency system is also facing infrastructure bottlenecks as strict timelines, 40-day admissions, are not achievable as the NCLT and NCLAT are severely hindered by vacancies and backlogs, making the amendments impractical.

Moreover, the new creditor-initiated insolvency resolution process allows selected financial institutions to initiate insolvency without judicial oversight, which could be misused, fuel litigation, and trigger insolvencies prematurely, based solely on default rather than viability, he added.

Referring to a recent observation by Chief Justice of India Surya Kant, where he said unfortunately, the IBC platform is now being misused, Ray said assets of defaulter companies are undervalued, then "you indulge in a kind of auction", which is also a completely pre-planned game.

"Somebody from the family or the close friends comes and buys it. This is the crux of the thing. This is why this bill was introduced in 2016, and so many amendments have been preferred by the government within nine years to help the Tory capitalists and the defaulting corporates," he said.

Rajathi of DMK said the amendment will delegate more legislative functions of this Parliament and give away responsibility to the executive. Clause 67 of the amendment will empower the government to prescribe rules relating to cross-border insolvency proceedings, which is like outsourcing a parliamentary function.

She also raised the issue of the infrastructure bottleneck at the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT).

The Economic Survey, tabled in February this year, indicated that the NCLT has more than 30,000 pending cases as of March 2025. Experts indicate that more than 10 years will be taken to address this backlog, while IBC stipulates a 330-day timeline to complete the resolution process, including litigation.

There are 7.83 crore MSMEs in India. The prepackaged insolvency resolution process for MSMEs was introduced in April 2021, and according to the data available in the public domain, only 13 MSME cases have been admitted, and five have reached the resolution stage in the last five years.

"This indicates two things. One, that there is not enough trust in the system. Two, that the system is failing the MSMEs in giving a solution," she said.

Sanjay Singh of AAP said that through the IBC, the government is granting protection to large defaulters, who have large debts. They have defaulted on money in banks, which is deposited by ordinary people.

"You don't give that money to poor people, you don't give it for their employment, you don't give it for the MSME sector. You give it to your few wealthy friends, with whom you take donations from behind and give business," Singh said, adding that "when those friends default, you bring this bill to save them".

Now, the term "hair cut has become Gardan (neck) cut".

So, altogether, this is a bill to legalise bank robberies, as out of Rs 5.44 lakh crore, the collection is only 1.60 lakh crore, and the rest has been forgiven.

Ayodhya Rama Reddy of YSRCP appreciated the good work done by the government through IBC.

He said over 30,000 cases are pending before the benches of the NCLT. There is a huge infrastructure gap which needs to be addressed.

"We also need to speed up the utilisation of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Fund to provide temporary funding to stressed companies, protecting jobs and value during the resolution process," he said.

Muzibulla Khan of BJD said this amendment removes the fast-track insolvency resolution process, which is worrisome. This system was created specifically for small businesses, employees and non-profits, which are the backbone of our economy.

Sanjay Yadav of RJD and Chowdry Mohammad Ramzan J&KNC also participated in the discussion. Madan Rathore of the BJP highlighted the achievements of the IBC. PTI KRH KRH BAL BAL

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Acts Income Tax