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March 28, 2026
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Government borrowing plan finalised with dated securities, green bonds, treasury bills and liquidity support arrangements.
Government borrowing for the first half of FY 2026-27 has been finalised in consultation with the Reserve Bank of India, through dated securities, sovereign green bonds and treasury bills. The plan distributes borrowing across weekly auctions and multiple maturities, provides for switching and buyback of securities to smoothen the redemption profile, reserves a greenshoe option, and sets the Ways and Mean Advances limit to address temporary mismatches in government accounts.
March 28, 2026
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Treasury bill issuance calendar fixes quarterly auction schedule and preserves flexibility to adjust timing and amounts as needed.
Treasury bill issuance calendar for the quarter ending June 2026 fixes the proposed auction and issue schedule for 91-day, 182-day and 364-day Treasury Bills through weekly auctions in April, May and June 2026. The Government of India, in consultation with the Reserve Bank of India, retains flexibility to modify the indicated auction amounts and timing depending on requirements, evolving market conditions and other relevant factors, after due notice to the market. The calendar is subject to change where circumstances so warrant, and auctions remain subject to the governing notification and its amendments.
March 28, 2026
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Insurance for All by 2047 drives Oriental Insurance growth, with premium milestone and expanded risk protection offerings.
Oriental Insurance Company Limited has crossed a gross premium milestone for FY 2025-2026, reflecting growing trust in public sector insurance institutions and alignment with the Government's objective of expanding financial inclusion under the vision of Insurance for All by 2047. Growth is attributed to strong contributions from Group Personal Accident, Health, Fire and Motor insurance portfolios, together with innovative offerings and planned new products addressing evolving risk needs.
March 28, 2026
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Investor facilitation camps streamline unclaimed dividends, unclaimed shares, and IEPF claim redressal through single-window support.
Investor facilitation camps under the Investor Education and Protection Fund framework provide single-window support for claim redressal, unclaimed dividends, unclaimed shares and pending IEPFA claims. The Bhubaneswar "Niveshak Shivir" offered on-the-spot KYC and nomination updates, direct interaction with company representatives and RTAs, and assistance through a Search Facility Help Desk for identifying unclaimed investments transferred to the IEPF. Participants were guided on locating potential claims and proceeding through Form IEPF-5.
March 28, 2026
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Startup ecosystem collaboration expands support for fuel-tech innovation, market access, mentorship and technology-driven solutions.
Structured support for startups in fuel-tech, manufacturing, deep-tech and allied sectors is to be advanced through a memorandum of understanding. The collaboration covers innovation challenges and hackathons, investor connect programmes, skill development initiatives, pilot opportunities and market access for early-stage innovators. It also seeks to support startups from ideation through prototyping, use the Startup India platform for wider outreach, and strengthen industry-startup linkages for technology-driven solutions and indigenous innovation.
March 28, 2026
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Pass-through taxation for venture capital income through Form 74, with online filing and investor-level reporting requirements.
Form 74 is a statement to be furnished by a Venture Capital Fund or Venture Capital Company in relation to income paid or credited to investors for section 222. It is filed online by the specified fund or company by 15 June of the following financial year, with supporting registration, deed, audited accounts, and certified income distribution records kept in possession. The form supports pass-through taxation, so the income is reported in the hands of investors according to its character.
March 28, 2026
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Decriminalisation and proportionate regulation reshape compliance through civil penalties, graded enforcement, and faster adjudication.
The Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Bill, 2026 proposes amendment of 784 provisions across 79 Central Acts and decriminalisation of 717 provisions to promote Ease of Doing Business, together with 67 amendments to facilitate Ease of Living. It shifts minor, technical, or procedural defaults from criminal penalties to civil and administrative enforcement, including warnings, monetary penalties, graded enforcement, and rationalisation of fines in proportion to the offence. The Bill also provides for Adjudicating Officers and Appellate Authorities to support time-bound enforcement and natural justice.
March 28, 2026
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Consensus-based WTO reform: India urges inclusive, member-driven negotiations, development concerns, and safeguards against multilateral fragmentation.
Consensus-based decision-making was emphasised as central to the WTO's legitimacy, with India calling for reform discussions to address structural asymmetries inherited from the Uruguay Round and to preserve the sovereign right of Members not to accept rules they do not agree to. India supported a careful stock-take of the current impasse, with reform deliberations conducted in a transparent, inclusive and Member-driven manner, and warned that fragmentation within the institutional framework would weaken the multilateral trading system.
March 28, 2026
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Duty Deferment Scheme for manufacturer importers eases liquidity, speeds clearance, and supports compliant monthly duty payment.
Duty Deferment Scheme for Eligible Manufacturer Importers permits deferred payment of import duties for qualifying manufacturer importers, with duties payable monthly after goods are cleared. The scheme is framed as a trade facilitation measure to improve liquidity, support faster cargo clearance, reduce dwell time, strengthen import planning and inventory management, and enhance supply chain efficiency and payment discipline. Eligibility depends on a valid importer-exporter code, prescribed EXIM filing history, GST compliance, financial solvency, and a clean compliance record. Applications are submitted online through the AEO portal without physical interface.
March 28, 2026
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Pass-through income reporting through Form 73 enables securitisation trust investors to classify income correctly for tax returns.
Form 73 is the investor-wise statement furnished by a Securitisation Trust under the pass-through income framework. It is auto-generated from Form 72 and records income paid, credited or deemed to be credited during the tax year so that investors can report the income under the correct heads in their return. The form is not separately filed with the department; it is downloaded, verified and furnished to each investor by the trust. It includes trust particulars, investor details, head-wise income breakup, verification by the authorised person, and the date of payment or credit.
March 28, 2026
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Securitisation trust income reporting through Form 73 enables investor disclosure, income classification, and pass-through compliance.
Form 73 is the prescribed statement of income distributed by a securitisation trust to each investor under section 221. It is not filed separately, but generated as a child form from the parent Form 72 by the person responsible to pay on behalf of the securitisation trust, and then furnished to each investor. The form is auto-generated through the e-filing portal from the data filed in Form 72, with no separate documents required and no offline filing facility.
March 28, 2026
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Pass-through taxation for securitisation trusts drives Form 72 reporting, investor statements, and income classification compliance.
Form 72 is the annual consolidated statement required from every securitisation trust for reporting income paid or credited to investors under section 221 of the Income Tax Act, 2025, and is filed electronically under rule 145. The form captures trust particulars, registration details, total income by head, investor-wise income distribution, authorised-person verification, and accountant certification. It is due by 15 June of the financial year following the tax year, and supports the pass-through taxation mechanism by enabling Form 73 statements to be auto-generated for investors after filing.
March 28, 2026
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Foreign tax credit compliance through Form No. 45 requires electronic intimation after dispute settlement and supporting undertakings.
Form No. 45 is a new electronic intimation form for a resident assessee to report settlement of a dispute relating to foreign tax for which credit was not earlier claimed, where foreign tax credit is now intended to be claimed. Filing is mandatory in the specified circumstances, must be made through the Income-tax e-filing portal, and is due within six months from the end of the month in which the dispute is finally settled after Form No. 44 has been filed. The form requires supporting evidence, undertakings, and accountant verification in cases where Form No. 44 required such verification.
March 28, 2026
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Foreign tax credit intimation form streamlines settlement-based claims for previously unclaimed credit under the filing rules.
Form No. 45 provides a structured electronic intimation for settlement of dispute regarding foreign tax for which credit was not claimed. It applies to a resident assessee with foreign income who seeks foreign tax credit after the dispute is finally settled, where Form No. 44 had already been filed for the relevant tax year. The form must be filed within six months from the end of the month in which the dispute is finally settled, with supporting documents, and must be verified by an accountant where Form No. 44 required accountant verification.
March 28, 2026
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Securitization trust income reporting through Form 72, with online filing, prescribed records, and pass-through taxation compliance.
Form 72 is the statement of income paid or credited by a securitization trust to its investors. It must be furnished to the Income-tax Department online by the person responsible for paying or crediting income on behalf of the trust, by 15 June of the financial year following the tax year in which the income was paid or credited. Filing requires the trust's books, audited financial statements, income details from securitised assets, investor particulars, distribution records, and the applicable registration certificate.
March 28, 2026
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Audit report compliance for offshore banking unit investment divisions governs exemption and concessional taxation claims under income tax rules.
Form 71 is the mandatory audit report for a registered investment division of an offshore banking unit where a specified fund seeks exemption under section 11 read with Schedule VI or concessional taxation under section 210(3) of the ITA 2025. It certifies fulfilment of the prescribed eligibility conditions, including separate books, audit by an accountant, relevant documentation, and filing by the specified date. The form is filed electronically with supporting records and, when validly furnished, supports the claim to exemption or concessional rates.
March 28, 2026
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Tax exemption compliance for specified funds depends on timely electronic filing of Form 71 and accountant verification.
Form 71 is the prescribed audit report for verification by an accountant in respect of the computation of exempt income of a specified fund attributable to the investment division of an offshore banking unit. It is linked to the claim of exemption or taxation at concessional rates for eligible income, and its filing is one of the conditions for admissibility of that claim. The form must be filed electronically on the income-tax e-filing portal and verified by the accountant either through digital signature or electronic verification code. It cannot be filed offline, and once validly submitted and acknowledged it cannot be edited.
March 28, 2026
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Specified fund compliance for Form 70 governs exempt income reporting and concessional taxation claims for offshore banking units.
Form 70 is the prescribed e-form for a specified fund to furnish the annual statement of exempt income attributable to the investment division of an offshore banking unit under section 11 read with Schedule VI, together with income taxable at concessional rates under section 210(3) of the ITA 2025. Filing is mandatory for a specified fund seeking exemption or concessional taxation and must be made electronically on the e-filing portal by the due date, with supporting documents, verification by the Trustee or Principal Officer, and the audit report in Form 71 certifying separate accounts and audit of the eligible investment division.
March 28, 2026
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Exempt income reporting through Form 70 requires electronic filing, verification, and timely compliance for specified fund benefits.
Form 70 is the annual statement for a specified fund to report exempt income and income taxable at concessional rates in relation to the investment division of an offshore banking unit. It must be verified by the Principal Officer or Managing Trustee and filed electronically on the Income-tax e-filing portal within the prescribed due date. Filing a valid form is a mandatory condition for claiming exemption or concessional taxation, and the form cannot be filed offline or edited after valid submission. A valid PAN of the fund and the verifier is required, along with prescribed supporting documents and mandatory attachments.
March 28, 2026
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Concessional taxation for specified funds depends on timely filing of Form 69 with income and unit-holder details.
Form 69 is the prescribed annual statement for a specified fund to report income attributable to units held by non-residents, other than a permanent establishment in India, for concessional taxation. The form is a mandatory compliance requirement and must be filed electronically on or before the due date, with trustee or principal officer verification. It includes fund particulars, registration details, and computations of income from securities and capital gains, supported by constituting documents, registration certificate, financial statements, securities statements, and unit-holder residency details.

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Corp. Laws / SEBI / IBC

Opposition slams govt on insolvency law in Rajya Sabha

April 1, 2026

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New Delhi, Apr 1 (PTI) The Opposition in the Rajya Sabha criticised the government on Wednesday for frequent amendments to the Insolvency & Bankruptcy Code, significant haircuts, alleged favouritism towards large corporate defaulters, and ongoing infrastructure issues at the NCLT, alongside increasing backlogs before the tribunal.

The Rajya Sabha was debating the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (Amendment) Bill, 2026. The bill has proposed 12 amendments to the Insolvency & Bankruptcy Code (IBC), which came into force in 2016.

Sukhendu Sekhar Ray, AITC, said the government has brought the insolvency law in a hurried manner to create an exit route for defaulting companies, as in the last nine years, six amendments have been made.

"Even after bringing so many amendments as of September 2025, approximately 8,659 cases were admitted by the NCLT, and only 3,865 cases have been resolved. And as per the pendency rate, according to experts, it will take 10 years if this pendency is to be cleared off," he said.

Moreover, creditors have faced an average haircut of approximately 67 to 70 per cent on their admitted claims. This means creditors, including banks, typically recover only 30 to 33 per cent of the debt owed to them.

"In some cases, it reached as high as 81 to 83 per cent," Ray said, adding that "estimates suggest that overall, nationalised banks have foregone roughly Rs 8 lakh crore through haircut alone since the inception of IBC".

Till late 2025, creditors realised approximately Rs 3.99 trillion against admitted claims worth of roughly Rs 12.31 trillion.

"This bill fails to curb massive haircuts for creditors, which is a tool to reap assets rather than truly resolve them," he said, adding that the insolvency system is also facing infrastructure bottlenecks as strict timelines, 40-day admissions, are not achievable as the NCLT and NCLAT are severely hindered by vacancies and backlogs, making the amendments impractical.

Moreover, the new creditor-initiated insolvency resolution process allows selected financial institutions to initiate insolvency without judicial oversight, which could be misused, fuel litigation, and trigger insolvencies prematurely, based solely on default rather than viability, he added.

Referring to a recent observation by Chief Justice of India Surya Kant, where he said unfortunately, the IBC platform is now being misused, Ray said assets of defaulter companies are undervalued, then "you indulge in a kind of auction", which is also a completely pre-planned game.

"Somebody from the family or the close friends comes and buys it. This is the crux of the thing. This is why this bill was introduced in 2016, and so many amendments have been preferred by the government within nine years to help the Tory capitalists and the defaulting corporates," he said.

Rajathi of DMK said the amendment will delegate more legislative functions of this Parliament and give away responsibility to the executive. Clause 67 of the amendment will empower the government to prescribe rules relating to cross-border insolvency proceedings, which is like outsourcing a parliamentary function.

She also raised the issue of the infrastructure bottleneck at the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT).

The Economic Survey, tabled in February this year, indicated that the NCLT has more than 30,000 pending cases as of March 2025. Experts indicate that more than 10 years will be taken to address this backlog, while IBC stipulates a 330-day timeline to complete the resolution process, including litigation.

There are 7.83 crore MSMEs in India. The prepackaged insolvency resolution process for MSMEs was introduced in April 2021, and according to the data available in the public domain, only 13 MSME cases have been admitted, and five have reached the resolution stage in the last five years.

"This indicates two things. One, that there is not enough trust in the system. Two, that the system is failing the MSMEs in giving a solution," she said.

Sanjay Singh of AAP said that through the IBC, the government is granting protection to large defaulters, who have large debts. They have defaulted on money in banks, which is deposited by ordinary people.

"You don't give that money to poor people, you don't give it for their employment, you don't give it for the MSME sector. You give it to your few wealthy friends, with whom you take donations from behind and give business," Singh said, adding that "when those friends default, you bring this bill to save them".

Now, the term "hair cut has become Gardan (neck) cut".

So, altogether, this is a bill to legalise bank robberies, as out of Rs 5.44 lakh crore, the collection is only 1.60 lakh crore, and the rest has been forgiven.

Ayodhya Rama Reddy of YSRCP appreciated the good work done by the government through IBC.

He said over 30,000 cases are pending before the benches of the NCLT. There is a huge infrastructure gap which needs to be addressed.

"We also need to speed up the utilisation of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Fund to provide temporary funding to stressed companies, protecting jobs and value during the resolution process," he said.

Muzibulla Khan of BJD said this amendment removes the fast-track insolvency resolution process, which is worrisome. This system was created specifically for small businesses, employees and non-profits, which are the backbone of our economy.

Sanjay Yadav of RJD and Chowdry Mohammad Ramzan J&KNC also participated in the discussion. Madan Rathore of the BJP highlighted the achievements of the IBC. PTI KRH KRH BAL BAL

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