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March 26, 2026
Show AI Summary
Rent deduction declaration requires Form 31, with landlord details, rent evidence, and e-verification alongside the return.
Form 31 is the declaration to be furnished by an assessee claiming deduction under section 134 of the Income-tax Act, 2025 in respect of rent paid for residential accommodation. It applies to a resident individual who pays rent for furnished or unfurnished accommodation, does not receive house rent allowance, and does not own residential property at the place of employment or residence. The form is to be filed along with the return of income and requires rent details, landlord particulars, supporting documents, and e-verification through DSC or Aadhaar.
March 26, 2026
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Rent deduction declaration under section 134 requires Form 31 for eligible resident individuals without house rent allowance.
Form 31 is the declaration required for claiming deduction under section 134 for rent paid for residential accommodation. It applies to a resident individual who does not receive house rent allowance and does not own residential property at the place of employment or residence. The form must be filed along with the return of income, and the deduction is available on the basis of details furnished in the form, subject to the annual ceiling of Rs. 60,000.
March 26, 2026
Show AI Summary
Deduction for dependant with disability requires Form 30, supported by medical certification, filing details, and electronic verification.
Deduction for maintenance, medical treatment, training and rehabilitation of a dependant with disability is supported by Form 30, which must be filed by a resident individual claiming expenditure for a dependant with disability or payments under an approved scheme. The form is filed with the return of income, supported by the medical authority certificate, and requires completion of assessee details, patient and disability particulars, upload of the signed verification, and e-verification through DSC or Aadhaar.
March 26, 2026
Show AI Summary
Disability-related tax deduction requires Form 30, medical certification, and timely filing with the return of income.
Deduction is available for maintenance, including medical treatment, training and rehabilitation, of a dependant who is a person with disability, and for payments made under a qualifying insurance or specified scheme. Form 30 is the prescribed statement for claiming the deduction and must be filed by a resident individual along with the return of income. The medical authority certificate must be uploaded online, and a fresh certificate is required when a temporary disability certificate expires.
March 26, 2026
Show AI Summary
Carry forward and set-off of amalgamated losses depends on Form 29 production certification and verified compliance.
Form 29 is the prescribed certificate for an amalgamated company to evidence achievement and maintenance of the prescribed level of production in an undertaking received through amalgamation. It is filed with the return of income to support compliance with the conditions for carry forward and set-off of accumulated loss and unabsorbed depreciation of the amalgamating company. The form must be certified by the principal officer and verified by an accountant, and it requires confirmation that the prescribed production threshold has been achieved and maintained within the specified period.
March 26, 2026
Show AI Summary
Freight disruption and export relief measures shape India's response to West Asia-linked logistics stress and production shortages.
West Asia-related disruption in shipping and logistics has led to steep increases in freight charges, container shortages, stranded cargo and shipment cancellations affecting exporters in eastern India. Perishable goods, engineering products, textiles and medicines are among the sectors most affected, while the LPG supply crunch has added to production difficulties and air cargo costs have risen because of route changes and cancellations. The text also refers to relief measures, including waiver-based port concessions, the RELIEF scheme for conflict-linked losses and reimbursement support for eligible MSME exporters.
March 26, 2026
Show AI Summary
Production compliance certificate governs carry forward and set-off benefits for amalgamated companies under the income tax rules.
Form 29 is the mandatory certificate under Rule 60 for an amalgamated company claiming carry forward and set-off of accumulated losses and unabsorbed depreciation under Section 116(4)(b)(iii). It certifies achievement and maintenance of the prescribed production level in acquired industrial undertakings, requires electronic filing with the return of income, and may cover multiple amalgamating companies. The production condition is 50% of installed capacity within four years of amalgamation and maintenance up to five years, with possible governmental relaxation in suitable cases.
March 26, 2026
Show AI Summary
Slump sale reporting requires accountant certification of net worth and capital gains through online Form 28 filing.
Accountant's report in Form No. 28 (Form No. 3CEA) is required for an assessee undertaking a slump sale to certify the computation of net worth and capital gains under the Income Tax Act, 2025. The form applies where an undertaking or division is transferred as a going concern for a lump-sum consideration without assigning individual values to assets and liabilities. It must be furnished online on the income tax e-filing portal on or before the due date for filing the assessee's income tax return.
March 26, 2026
Show AI Summary
Slump sale reporting under income tax law requires mandatory accountant certification, online filing, and timely submission through Form 28.
Form No. 28 is the accountant's report required under section 77(4) of the Income-tax Act, 2025 for computation of capital gains in a slump sale. It applies where an undertaking or division is transferred as a going concern for lump-sum consideration without assigning separate values to assets and liabilities, and it is mandatory for certifying net worth and capital gains. The form must be filed once in a year on or before the due date for the income-tax return, only online, and cannot be edited after submission. A valid PAN is required.
March 26, 2026
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Capital gains attribution framework for specified entities filing Form 27 with valuation support and electronic certification.
Form 27 is filed by every specified entity to furnish details of the amount attributed to capital assets remaining with the entity where a specified person receives capital asset or stock-in-trade on dissolution or reconstitution. It supports computation under Rule 50 and must be certified on the basis of a registered valuer's report. The form is filed electronically with the return of income and includes particulars of the amount taxable, its attribution to remaining assets, and the valuer's details.
March 26, 2026
Show AI Summary
Form No. 27 reporting requirement governs valuation-based attribution of income on dissolution or reconstitution of a specified entity.
Form No. 27 is a mandatory income-tax reporting form prescribed under Rule 50 for a specified entity where income becomes taxable under section 67(10) on dissolution or reconstitution and a specified person receives capital asset, stock-in-trade, or both. It operationalises the attribution of such taxable income to the capital assets remaining with the specified entity and must be furnished for each tax year in which the relevant event occurs. The form requires electronic filing with the return of income and valuation-based attribution supported by a registered valuer's report.
March 26, 2026
Show AI Summary
Tax audit Form No. 26 standardises disclosures, audit reporting, and filing requirements under the new income tax framework.
Prescribed Form No. 26 is the audit report and statement of particulars under section 63 of the Income-tax Act, 2025 read with rule 47 of the Income-tax Rules, 2026. Parts A and B contain the substantive disclosures for tax audit compliance, including books of account, method of accounting, income, expenses, losses, depreciation, deductions, international taxation, TDS/TCS, indirect taxation and quantitative details. Part C applies where accounts are audited under another law, while Part D applies where they are not. The form is required for specified business and professional thresholds and certain presumptive taxation cases, and is furnished through a structured online filing process.
March 26, 2026
Show AI Summary
Mandatory audit reporting under Form No. 26 introduces clause-wise disclosures, UDIN compliance, and schedule-based tax audit filing.
Form No. 26 is the mandatory audit report and statement of particulars for persons carrying on business or profession whose accounts are required to be audited under section 63. It applies from tax years commencing on or after 1 April 2026, is due one month before the return filing deadline, and must be signed by an Accountant with UDIN, and FRN where applicable. The form uses Part B clause-wise Yes/No reporting with trigger-based schedules, and Parts C and D for audit reporting depending on whether accounts are audited under another law.
March 26, 2026
Show AI Summary
Daily case register requirements for medical professionals under tax rules, including maintenance, exceptions, and non-filing status.
Form No. 25 prescribes a daily case register for medical professionals under Rule 46 of the Income-tax Rules, 2026. It records the patient's name, nature of service, fees charged, and date of receipt of fees. The form is mandatory for persons engaged in the medical profession, subject to the stated gross-receipts exceptions, and is maintained in addition to books of account. It is not furnished to the Department and has no due date.
March 26, 2026
Show AI Summary
Daily case register compliance for medical practitioners requires tabular records, electronic access safeguards, and preservation obligations.
Form No. 25 is the prescribed daily case register for practitioners of any system of medicine under Rule 46 of the Income-tax Rules, 2026, subject to the prescribed gross receipt threshold and the position of newly set-up medical practices. It records patient and fee particulars in tabular form, is not furnished to the Income-tax Department, but must be maintained daily, produced before the Assessing Officer when called for, may be kept electronically with India-based access and backups, and must be preserved for seven tax years or until completion of reassessment proceedings.
March 26, 2026
Show AI Summary
Permanent establishment audit reporting for royalty and technical services income now uses a structured Chartered Accountant certification format.
Form No. 24 is a statutory audit report for non-residents and foreign companies earning royalty or fees for technical services from India through a permanent establishment or fixed place of profession in India. It requires a Chartered Accountant's certification of the correctness of income computation, verification of the PE or fixed place, maintenance of books of account, and deduction only of expenses attributable to the PE while computing income under section 59. The form is filed annually, contains structured particulars of the assessee, agreement, PE, books examined, and income computation, and is submitted through the e-filing portal with digital signature verification.
March 26, 2026
Show AI Summary
Competition approval for additional shareholding acquisition in Valuedrive Technologies through an alternative investment and trust co-investment structure.
The Competition Commission of India approved the proposed acquisition of additional shareholding in Valuedrive Technologies Private Limited by Setu AIF Trust, Konark Trust and MMPL Trust. The transaction concerns acquisition of shares on a fully diluted basis through an alternative investment fund and private trust co-investment structure. Valuedrive Technologies Private Limited operates as an operating-cum-holding company for the Spinny Group and carries on an electronic platform business for used motor vehicles, together with related subsidiary activities.
March 26, 2026
Show AI Summary
Competition law approval for acquisition of shares in a listed NBFC by a Japan-based banking institution.
Competition Commission of India approval was granted for the acquisition of certain shares in Shriram Finance Limited by MUFG Bank Ltd. The acquirer is a Japan-based banking institution wholly owned and controlled by Mitsubishi UFJ Financial Group, Inc., and carries on banking-related activities in India including corporate banking loans, deposit accounts, remittances, trade finance, bank guarantees and hedging. The target is a listed non-banking financial company registered with the Reserve Bank of India, classified as an Investment and Credit Company and an NBFC-Upper Layer, engaged in financing commercial goods and passenger vehicles, construction equipment, farm equipment, MSMEs, two-wheelers, gold and personal loans.
March 26, 2026
Show AI Summary
Competition approval for acquisition of Groww Asset Management shareholding by State Street Global Advisors
Competition approval was granted for the proposed acquisition of shareholding in Groww Asset Management Limited by State Street Global Advisors, Inc. The target manages schemes of Groww Mutual Fund, including equity, hybrid, debt and exchange traded fund schemes. State Street operates under the State Street Investment Management brand as the asset management arm of State Street Corporation. The detailed order of the Commission would follow.
March 26, 2026
Show AI Summary
Competition combination approval for Coursera and Udemy merger, creating sole control over Udemy through a subsidiary merger.
Competition Commission of India approved a proposed combination involving the merger of Chess Merger Sub, a wholly owned subsidiary of Coursera Inc., with and into Udemy Inc., with Udemy surviving as a wholly owned subsidiary of Coursera. The transaction results in Coursera acquiring sole control over Udemy, and the combined company is expected to have post-closing shareholding in which existing Coursera stockholders hold approximately 59% and existing Udemy stockholders approximately 41% on a fully diluted basis.

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Guidance Note – Form 120

April 1, 2026

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Form No. 120 – Form seeking Advance Rulings Before Board for Advance Rulings

Purpose:

The purpose of filling forms for advance rulings under the Income-tax Act is to seek a determination or ruling from the Board for Advance Rulings (BAR) on questions of law or fact relating to proposed or undertaken transactions by the applicant. These forms facilitate clarity and certainty on tax liability issues in advance, avoiding future disputes and litigations. The forms include details of the applicant, the transaction, relevant facts, legal interpretations, and fee payment proof, ensuring a structured, transparent, and efficient process.

Who Should File:

S. No.

New Form No.

Applicant Category

Description

Existing Form No.

1

120

Non-resident

A non-resident in regard to tax liability arising out of a transaction undertaken or proposed to be undertaken in India.

34C

2

Resident undertaking transaction with non-resident

A resident undertaking or proposing to undertake a transaction with a non-resident to determine the tax liability of the non-resident.

34D

3

Resident with high-value transactions

A resident who has undertaken or proposes to undertake one or more transactions with a total value of Rs. 100 crore or more.

34DA

4

Public Sector Company

A public sector company seeking advance rulings on income-tax issues pending before any income-tax authority or appellate tribunal.

34E

5

Any person (resident or non-resident)

Any person can seek a ruling on whether a proposed arrangement is an impermissible avoidance arrangement under GAAR provisions.

34EA

Frequency & Due Dates:

  • Filing Frequency:
  • There is no fixed frequency or periodic schedule for submitting advance ruling applications. Forms are filed as and when an applicant has a transaction (proposed or undertaken) needing tax certainty or a legal decision.
  • Due Dates:
  • An application can be filed prior to or after entering into the transaction, depending on the applicant's requirement.
  • There is no statutory last date for filing; it is transaction-driven and at the applicant’s discretion.
  • Withdrawal window: An applicant may withdraw their application within 30 days from the date of filing.
  • Fee payment: Proof of payment must be attached at the time of application submission.

Structure of Form No. 120:

  • Applicant’s identification: name, PAN, address, contact details, citizenship, and status.
  • Details of residency (resident/non-resident).
  • Date of Incorporation and details of Authorized Representative in India.
  • Fee payment details (amount, challan number, date, and bank info).
  • Statement of relevant facts concerning the ruling request.
  • Statement interpreting the law or facts as per the applicant.
  • Information about the transaction/arrangement subject to advance ruling, including the tax benefit, parties involved.
  • Disclosure of any pending related proceedings or issues decided by tax authorities or courts.
  • Verification by the applicant.

Documents required to file the Form No. 120:

Following documents are required for filing Form No. 120 :

  • Proof of payment of application fee (challan, bank receipt, etc.).
  • PAN card copy (for residents and non-residents if allotted).
  • Taxpayer Identification Number (TIN) or equivalent for non-residents.
  • Certificate of incorporation/registration (company, trust, partnership, etc.).
  • Address and identity proof of applicant.
  • Proof of being Non-resident.
  • Details and documents regarding business/profession (Memorandum of Association, Partnership/Trust deed, etc.).
  • Question(s) relating to the transaction on which advance ruling is required.
  • Statement of relevant facts having a bearing on the question(s).
  • Statement of interpretation of law or facts.
  • Copies of relevant agreements/arrangements giving rise to transaction, if any.
  • Supporting documents for group structure/beneficial ownership (for non-residents).
  • Details of other parties to arrangement (Identity, PAN, Relation).
  • Document indicating Tax year(s) during which the tax benefit is likely to arise (give year wise breakup).
  • Any relevant assessment orders, appellate orders, or documents if proceedings/arbitrations are pending or decided.
  • Authorization letter/power of attorney if the application is filed by an authorized representative.
  • Any other document as required by the Board or mentioned in instructions relevant to the case.
  • The applicant shall, along with the attachment, provide an index of the documents uploaded with the description and corresponding page numbers.

Filing Count:

43 Applications of Form 34C, 34D, 34DA, 34E and 34EA have been filed over the past five years.

S. No.

Form No.

No. of Filings in past Five Years

1.

34C

26

2.

34D

11

3.

34DA

5

4.

34E

1

5.

34EA

0

Process Flow of filing Form No. 120:

The process flow includes following steps:

  • Prepare the application: Fill Form No. 120, ensuring all sections are complete with accurate applicant details, transaction/arrangement info, questions on which ruling is sought, facts, and interpretations.
  • Attach mandatory documents: Documents relevant to statement of facts and interpretation of law/facts, plus all supporting documents, agreement copies, and proof of fee payment.
  • Sign/verify: Application, annexures, and all attached statements must be signed or digitally signed by the authorized person (as per applicant type), and furnished from the registered email address.
  • Submit online: Henceforth, new Form No. 120 can only be submitted online through the Income Tax e-Filing Portal.
  • Rectify defects: If application is found defective, rectify and resubmit within allowed time.
  • An application is scrutinized for completeness and correctness.

Outcome of Processed Form No. 120:

  • Application is sent for comments, records may be called from the jurisdictional Pr. CsIT/CsIT; applicant may be asked for clarifications.
  • Applicant may withdraw its application within 30 days, or BAR may reject the application if it does not fulfill eligibility or if questions are pending elsewhere.
  • The Board may allow/reschedule hearings—fully online through video conferencing.
  • After examination and hearing (if needed), the BAR pronounces its advance ruling on the specific question(s) raised in the application.
  • The ruling is communicated to both applicant and the Revenue.
  • If dissatisfied, either party (applicant or Revenue) can appeal against the ruling to the jurisdictional High Court.
  • The period during which the application is pending before the BAR is excluded from the limitation period for assessment.

Brief note on broad or qualitative changes proposed:

Key updates include the following:

  • Expanded and Structured Information Requirements:
  • The new form introduces more granular particulars regarding beneficial ownership, parent company structures, and parties involved—reflecting strengthened focus on transparency and international tax compliance.
  • Adaptation to New Regulatory Contexts:
  • There are specific documentation for similar/related proceedings, and disclosure of concurrent litigation or prior decisions.
  • Improved Applicant Experience, Expedited Process:
  • Multiple old forms (34C, 34D, 34DA, 34E, 34EA) are now combined into a single Form No.120 for all categories of applicants, with streamlined fields for non-resident, resident, PSU, or GAAR queries.
  • Simplification of Rules and Forms has also led to approximate reduction of 4,690 words (58.86 percent).
  • Currently none of the BAR Forms are available online. The Committee has recommended that the new combined BAR Form i.e. Form No. 120 be made available online. Further, Systems has been apprised of the requirements. In the proposed system, following issuance of a notice by the Secretary, BAR, on ITBA, an intimation should be sent to the concerned Assessing Officer (AO) through ITBA to abate proceedings and disable related functionalities, preventing any further action by the AO. Systems have been apprised of this requirement.

Challenges and Solutions:

Challenges in Old Forms 34C, 34D, 34DA, 34E, and 34EA (Advance Rulings):

  • Insufficient Disclosure Requirements:

Forms collected only basic facts; they often lacked detailed fields for group structures, beneficial ownership, or relationships—leading to queries, delays, or additional requests.

Solutions in New Form No. 120

  • Enhanced and Standardized Information:

All forms require detailed and standardized disclosures including identity, group structure, beneficial ownership, transaction parties, and parent/ultimate holding companies.

Common Changes made across Forms:

• Single Unified Online Form:

Multiple old forms (34C, 34D, 34DA, 34E, 34EA) have now been combined into a single digital Form No. 120 for all categories of applicants, with streamlined (Drop-Down based Optional) fields for nonresident, resident, PSU, or GAAR queries.

• Enhanced and Standardized Information:

New Form No. 120 require detailed and standardized disclosures including identity, group structure, beneficial ownership, transaction parties, and immediate/ultimate parent holding companies.

• Mandatory Attachments & Annexures:

Applicants must now submit structured annexures/statements on facts, legal interpretations, and ownership diagrams, improving clarity and completeness.

• Digital Filing and Verification:

New Form No. 120 is proposed to be made available online, authenticated using digital signatures, reducing manual paperwork and increasing reliability.

• Group Structure & Beneficial Owner Definitions:

Every applicant must provide comprehensive details on group structures and beneficial owners as per latest definitions (Companies Act, PMLA, FATF).

• Simplified & Detailed Instructions:

The new Form No. 120 provides detailed notes, definitions and ensuring applicants are well-guided. Stepwise instructions, definitions, and explanatory notes in the new form to improve accuracy.

Topics

Acts Income Tax