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March 26, 2026
Show AI Summary
SEZ reinvestment reserve reporting: Form 33 supports deduction claims for new plant and machinery purchases under section 144.
Form 33 is the prescribed statement for assessees claiming deduction under section 144 in respect of profits and gains derived by newly established units in SEZs. It is filed where amounts are withdrawn from the SEZ Reinvestment Reserve Account for purchase of new plant or machinery, and it must be verified by the proprietor, partner, or director. The form is to be filed along with the return of income, and the deduction is based on the particulars reported in the form.
March 26, 2026
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Audit report form requirements govern deduction claims under specified income-tax provisions, with section-wise disclosures and chartered accountant verification.
Form 32 is the prescribed audit-report form for assessees claiming deductions under the specified provisions of the Income-tax Act, 2025, and it must be verified by a Chartered Accountant. The form is filed by the due date applicable to the audit report and requires basic particulars, section-specific disclosure fields, supporting documents such as agreements, SEZ notifications, start-up certification, turnover and profit details, and capital expenditure details where relevant. Filing is completed by entering the applicable deduction particulars and electronic verification through the Chartered Accountant's DSC.
March 26, 2026
Show AI Summary
Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code misuse allegations surface over creditor voting control and resolution process conduct in a fraud FIR.
Fraud allegations arose from an FIR filed on the basis of an Enforcement Directorate complaint linked to a money laundering probe. The complaint stated that Experion entities were examined in relation to the insolvency proceedings of Dignity Buildcon Private Limited and were said to have misused the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code during the Corporate Insolvency Resolution Process. It further alleged acquisition of debt and debentures to increase voting rights in the Committee of Creditors and pressure on the authorised representative of Alchemist Asset Reconstruction Company to vote for a resolution plan.
March 26, 2026
Show AI Summary
Audit report requirements govern deductions for specified business, start-ups, SEZ units, and North-Eastern eligible businesses.
Form 32 is the audit report required for deductions under the specified provisions of the Income-tax Act, 2025, and must be verified by a Chartered Accountant. It applies to claims for specified business capital expenditure, industrial and infrastructure undertakings, SEZ development, eligible start-ups, housing projects, North-Eastern business units, and newly established SEZ units, and must be filed by the audit-report due date. The document also states the conditions for specified business capital expenditure, start-up eligibility and duration, and the qualifying North-Eastern businesses.
March 26, 2026
Show AI Summary
Rent deduction declaration requires Form 31, with landlord details, rent evidence, and e-verification alongside the return.
Form 31 is the declaration to be furnished by an assessee claiming deduction under section 134 of the Income-tax Act, 2025 in respect of rent paid for residential accommodation. It applies to a resident individual who pays rent for furnished or unfurnished accommodation, does not receive house rent allowance, and does not own residential property at the place of employment or residence. The form is to be filed along with the return of income and requires rent details, landlord particulars, supporting documents, and e-verification through DSC or Aadhaar.
March 26, 2026
Show AI Summary
Rent deduction declaration under section 134 requires Form 31 for eligible resident individuals without house rent allowance.
Form 31 is the declaration required for claiming deduction under section 134 for rent paid for residential accommodation. It applies to a resident individual who does not receive house rent allowance and does not own residential property at the place of employment or residence. The form must be filed along with the return of income, and the deduction is available on the basis of details furnished in the form, subject to the annual ceiling of Rs. 60,000.
March 26, 2026
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Deduction for dependant with disability requires Form 30, supported by medical certification, filing details, and electronic verification.
Deduction for maintenance, medical treatment, training and rehabilitation of a dependant with disability is supported by Form 30, which must be filed by a resident individual claiming expenditure for a dependant with disability or payments under an approved scheme. The form is filed with the return of income, supported by the medical authority certificate, and requires completion of assessee details, patient and disability particulars, upload of the signed verification, and e-verification through DSC or Aadhaar.
March 26, 2026
Show AI Summary
Disability-related tax deduction requires Form 30, medical certification, and timely filing with the return of income.
Deduction is available for maintenance, including medical treatment, training and rehabilitation, of a dependant who is a person with disability, and for payments made under a qualifying insurance or specified scheme. Form 30 is the prescribed statement for claiming the deduction and must be filed by a resident individual along with the return of income. The medical authority certificate must be uploaded online, and a fresh certificate is required when a temporary disability certificate expires.
March 26, 2026
Show AI Summary
Carry forward and set-off of amalgamated losses depends on Form 29 production certification and verified compliance.
Form 29 is the prescribed certificate for an amalgamated company to evidence achievement and maintenance of the prescribed level of production in an undertaking received through amalgamation. It is filed with the return of income to support compliance with the conditions for carry forward and set-off of accumulated loss and unabsorbed depreciation of the amalgamating company. The form must be certified by the principal officer and verified by an accountant, and it requires confirmation that the prescribed production threshold has been achieved and maintained within the specified period.
March 26, 2026
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Freight disruption and export relief measures shape India's response to West Asia-linked logistics stress and production shortages.
West Asia-related disruption in shipping and logistics has led to steep increases in freight charges, container shortages, stranded cargo and shipment cancellations affecting exporters in eastern India. Perishable goods, engineering products, textiles and medicines are among the sectors most affected, while the LPG supply crunch has added to production difficulties and air cargo costs have risen because of route changes and cancellations. The text also refers to relief measures, including waiver-based port concessions, the RELIEF scheme for conflict-linked losses and reimbursement support for eligible MSME exporters.
March 26, 2026
Show AI Summary
Production compliance certificate governs carry forward and set-off benefits for amalgamated companies under the income tax rules.
Form 29 is the mandatory certificate under Rule 60 for an amalgamated company claiming carry forward and set-off of accumulated losses and unabsorbed depreciation under Section 116(4)(b)(iii). It certifies achievement and maintenance of the prescribed production level in acquired industrial undertakings, requires electronic filing with the return of income, and may cover multiple amalgamating companies. The production condition is 50% of installed capacity within four years of amalgamation and maintenance up to five years, with possible governmental relaxation in suitable cases.
March 26, 2026
Show AI Summary
Slump sale reporting requires accountant certification of net worth and capital gains through online Form 28 filing.
Accountant's report in Form No. 28 (Form No. 3CEA) is required for an assessee undertaking a slump sale to certify the computation of net worth and capital gains under the Income Tax Act, 2025. The form applies where an undertaking or division is transferred as a going concern for a lump-sum consideration without assigning individual values to assets and liabilities. It must be furnished online on the income tax e-filing portal on or before the due date for filing the assessee's income tax return.
March 26, 2026
Show AI Summary
Slump sale reporting under income tax law requires mandatory accountant certification, online filing, and timely submission through Form 28.
Form No. 28 is the accountant's report required under section 77(4) of the Income-tax Act, 2025 for computation of capital gains in a slump sale. It applies where an undertaking or division is transferred as a going concern for lump-sum consideration without assigning separate values to assets and liabilities, and it is mandatory for certifying net worth and capital gains. The form must be filed once in a year on or before the due date for the income-tax return, only online, and cannot be edited after submission. A valid PAN is required.
March 26, 2026
Show AI Summary
Capital gains attribution framework for specified entities filing Form 27 with valuation support and electronic certification.
Form 27 is filed by every specified entity to furnish details of the amount attributed to capital assets remaining with the entity where a specified person receives capital asset or stock-in-trade on dissolution or reconstitution. It supports computation under Rule 50 and must be certified on the basis of a registered valuer's report. The form is filed electronically with the return of income and includes particulars of the amount taxable, its attribution to remaining assets, and the valuer's details.
March 26, 2026
Show AI Summary
Form No. 27 reporting requirement governs valuation-based attribution of income on dissolution or reconstitution of a specified entity.
Form No. 27 is a mandatory income-tax reporting form prescribed under Rule 50 for a specified entity where income becomes taxable under section 67(10) on dissolution or reconstitution and a specified person receives capital asset, stock-in-trade, or both. It operationalises the attribution of such taxable income to the capital assets remaining with the specified entity and must be furnished for each tax year in which the relevant event occurs. The form requires electronic filing with the return of income and valuation-based attribution supported by a registered valuer's report.
March 26, 2026
Show AI Summary
Tax audit Form No. 26 standardises disclosures, audit reporting, and filing requirements under the new income tax framework.
Prescribed Form No. 26 is the audit report and statement of particulars under section 63 of the Income-tax Act, 2025 read with rule 47 of the Income-tax Rules, 2026. Parts A and B contain the substantive disclosures for tax audit compliance, including books of account, method of accounting, income, expenses, losses, depreciation, deductions, international taxation, TDS/TCS, indirect taxation and quantitative details. Part C applies where accounts are audited under another law, while Part D applies where they are not. The form is required for specified business and professional thresholds and certain presumptive taxation cases, and is furnished through a structured online filing process.
March 26, 2026
Show AI Summary
Mandatory audit reporting under Form No. 26 introduces clause-wise disclosures, UDIN compliance, and schedule-based tax audit filing.
Form No. 26 is the mandatory audit report and statement of particulars for persons carrying on business or profession whose accounts are required to be audited under section 63. It applies from tax years commencing on or after 1 April 2026, is due one month before the return filing deadline, and must be signed by an Accountant with UDIN, and FRN where applicable. The form uses Part B clause-wise Yes/No reporting with trigger-based schedules, and Parts C and D for audit reporting depending on whether accounts are audited under another law.
March 26, 2026
Show AI Summary
Daily case register requirements for medical professionals under tax rules, including maintenance, exceptions, and non-filing status.
Form No. 25 prescribes a daily case register for medical professionals under Rule 46 of the Income-tax Rules, 2026. It records the patient's name, nature of service, fees charged, and date of receipt of fees. The form is mandatory for persons engaged in the medical profession, subject to the stated gross-receipts exceptions, and is maintained in addition to books of account. It is not furnished to the Department and has no due date.
March 26, 2026
Show AI Summary
Daily case register compliance for medical practitioners requires tabular records, electronic access safeguards, and preservation obligations.
Form No. 25 is the prescribed daily case register for practitioners of any system of medicine under Rule 46 of the Income-tax Rules, 2026, subject to the prescribed gross receipt threshold and the position of newly set-up medical practices. It records patient and fee particulars in tabular form, is not furnished to the Income-tax Department, but must be maintained daily, produced before the Assessing Officer when called for, may be kept electronically with India-based access and backups, and must be preserved for seven tax years or until completion of reassessment proceedings.
March 26, 2026
Show AI Summary
Permanent establishment audit reporting for royalty and technical services income now uses a structured Chartered Accountant certification format.
Form No. 24 is a statutory audit report for non-residents and foreign companies earning royalty or fees for technical services from India through a permanent establishment or fixed place of profession in India. It requires a Chartered Accountant's certification of the correctness of income computation, verification of the PE or fixed place, maintenance of books of account, and deduction only of expenses attributable to the PE while computing income under section 59. The form is filed annually, contains structured particulars of the assessee, agreement, PE, books examined, and income computation, and is submitted through the e-filing portal with digital signature verification.

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FORM NO. 120 – FREQUENTLY ASKED QUESTIONS (FAQS)

April 1, 2026

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FORM NO. 120 – FREQUENTLY ASKED QUESTIONS (FAQS)

Name of form as per I.T. Rules, 1962

Form 34C, 34D, 34DA, 34E & 34EA

Name of form as per I.T. Rules, 2026

Form No. 120

Corresponding section of I.T. Act, 1961

245N to 245W

Corresponding section of I.T. Act, 2025

380 to 389

Corresponding Rule of I.T. Rules, 1962

44E, 44F and 44FA

Corresponding Rule of I.T. Rules, 2026

200 to 202

1. What is Form No. 120?

Ans: Form No. 120 is an application form primarily used by non-resident applicants to seek a determination or ruling from the Board for Advance Rulings (BAR) on questions of law or fact relating to proposed or undertaken transactions by the applicant. These forms facilitate clarity and certainty on tax liability issues in advance, avoiding future disputes and litigations.

2. Who should file Form No. 120 and what is prescribed fee for seeking an Advance Ruling?

Ans: Form No. 120 can be filed by following category of applicants by paying prescribed fee as mentioned against respective category of applicants/transaction value below:

Applicant Category

Basis for Fee Determination

Transaction Value

Application Fee

Non-resident applicants

Aggregate value of transaction(s)

Amount not exceeding Rs. 100 crores.

₹2 lacs

Amount exceeding Rs. 100 Crores but not exceeding Rs. 300 Crores.

₹5 lacs

Amount exceeding Rs. 300 Crores.

₹10 lacs

Resident applicants transacting with non-residents

Aggregate value of transaction(s)

Amount not exceeding Rs. 100 crores.

₹2 lacs

Amount exceeding Rs. 100 Crores but not exceeding Rs. 300 Crores.

₹5 lacs

Amount exceeding Rs. 300 Crores

₹10 lacs

Specified resident applicants (including high-value residents)

Aggregate value of transaction(s)

Amount not exceeding Rs. 100 crores.

₹2 lacs

Amount exceeding Rs. 100 Crores but not exceeding Rs. 300 Crores.

₹5 lacs

Amount exceeding Rs. 300 Crores.

₹10 lacs

Public Sector Companies

In all cases

₹10,000

GAAR applicants

(resident or non-resident)

In all cases

₹10,000

3. When is Form No. 120 required to be filed?

Ans: Form No. 120 is required to be filed only if the applicant/taxpayer intends to seek a determination or ruling from the Board for Advance Rulings (BAR) on questions of law or fact relating to proposed or undertaken transactions by the applicant.

4. What is the time limit for filing Form No. 120?

Ans: There is no time limit for filing Form No. 120. Filing of Form No. 120 purely depends upon the intention of assessee i.e. whether he intends to obtain advance ruling in respect of a transaction already completed or proposed to be completed in future.

5. How many times can Form No. 120 be filed in a year?

Ans: Form No. 120 is transaction/event based and is only filed in case of an applicant intending to obtain advance ruling from the Board of Advance Rulings (BAR). There is no fixed annual frequency; it depends upon the number of transactions in respect of which an applicant wishes to obtain advance ruling. It is quite important to mention here that an applicant cannot file multiple Form No. 120 in respect of a single transaction.

6. What documents are required to file Form No. 120?

Ans: Proof of payment of application fee (challan, bank receipt, etc.).

  • PAN card copy (for residents and non-residents if allotted).
  • Taxpayer Identification Number (TIN) or equivalent for non-residents.
  • Certificate of incorporation/registration (company, trust, partnership, etc.).
  • Address and identity proof of applicant.
  • Proof of being Non-resident.
  • Details and documents regarding business/profession (Memorandum of Association, Partnership/Trust deed, etc.).
  • Question(s) relating to the transaction on which advance ruling is required.
  • Statement of relevant facts having a bearing on the question(s).
  • Statement of interpretation of law or facts.
  • Copies of relevant agreements/arrangements giving rise to transaction, if any.
  • Supporting documents for group structure/beneficial ownership (for non-residents).
  • Details of other parties to arrangement (Identity, PAN, Relation).
  • Document indicating Tax year(s) during which the tax benefit is likely to arise (give year wise break-up).
  • Any relevant assessment orders, appellate orders, or documents if proceedings/arbitrations are pending or decided.
  • Authorization letter/power of attorney if the application is filed by an authorized representative.
  • Any other document as required by the Board or mentioned in instructions relevant to the case.
  • The applicant shall, along with the attachment, provide an index of the documents uploaded with the description and corresponding page numbers.

7. Do I need to attach proof of fee payment?

Ans: Yes. Proof of fee payment (challans/BSR codes) is mandatory for filing of Form No. 120.

8. How and where is the fee paid?

Ans: The fee must be paid online through the Bharat Kosh portal, and the receipt must be attached with the application.

9. If I don’t have PAN and I have never been assessed to tax in India, can I still apply for an advance ruling before BAR?

Ans: Yes. If you do not have a PAN and have never been assessed to tax in India, you can still apply for an advance ruling before the Board for Advance Rulings (BAR). In such cases, the Department will allot a PAN after obtaining the required particulars from you.

10. While filling Part A, can I leave mobile number blank?

Ans: Mobile number ensures faster communication and verification; it is recommended to provide it.

11. What if I don’t upload requisite documents at the time of filing Form No. 120?

Ans: Your application for seeking advance ruling will be processed only when the requisite documents are submitted. If your application is found defective, the Secretary, BAR shall seek an explanation from you as to why the application may not be rejected and direct you to submit any relevant material or information in support of such application within such time as allowed by the BAR.

12. Can I file Form No. 120 after filing an appeal against the order of any Income Tax Authority, the Appellate Tribunal or any court?

Ans: No. Form No. 120 can only be filed in respect of question(s) or transaction(s) on which on which the advance ruling is sought, which is/are not pending before any Income Tax Authority, the Appellate Tribunal or any court.

13. Can Form No. 120 be filed offline?

Ans: No. Henceforth, Form No. 120 can only be submitted online through the Income Tax e-Filing Portal.

14. Can I edit Form No. 120 after submission?

Ans: No. Once Form No. 120 is submitted and acknowledgment is generated, it cannot be edited. Ensure all details are correct before submission.

15. What are common mistakes to avoid?

Ans: Following common mistakes should be avoided: -

  • Incomplete or unsigned forms
  • Missing Annexures or Proof of Fee Payment
  • Inadequate disclosure of Group Structure and Beneficial Ownership
  • Submitting from an unregistered Email ID.

16. Is advance ruling available only before entering into a transaction?

Ans: No. An advance ruling can be sought both before or after undertaking a transaction, as long as the issue is not pending before any income-tax authority, Tribunal, or Court (except for PSUs).

17. What type of questions can I ask in an advance ruling application?

Ans: You may ask questions of law, fact, or mixed questions directly relating to your tax liability, including:

  • DTAA interpretation
  • Permanent Establishment
  • Withholding tax
  • Taxability of services, royalties, fees
  • GAAR applicability

18. Can multiple questions be raised in one application?

Ans: Yes. Multiple questions may be raised, provided they arise from the same transaction/arrangement and are clearly framed.

19. Can advance rulings be sought for proposed or ongoing/completed transactions?

Ans: Yes. Advance rulings may be sought for transactions proposed or already undertaken, provided the question is not pending before any income-tax authority, Tribunal, or Court (subject to PSU relaxation).

20. Can I withdraw my advance ruling application?

Ans: Yes. An application may be withdrawn within 30 days from the date of filing.

21. I want to declare that no question(s) on which advance ruling is sought is pending before any Income Tax Authority, the Appellate Tribunal or any court. Where should this be mentioned?

Ans: This is mandatory part of the Verification Section of Form No. 120.

22. What happens if my application is found defective?

Ans: If the application is defective, the Secretary of the BAR will intimate the defects and grant a reasonable opportunity to rectify them. The application will be treated as filed only after defects are removed.

23. Will my application be rejected automatically if the tax department does not send records?

Ans: If the jurisdictional PCIT/CIT fails to furnish records, the BAR may still proceed to allow or reject the application without waiting for those records.

24. Is the applicant entitled to a hearing before rejection or final disposal?

Ans: Yes. Before rejection or final disposal, the applicant must be given a reasonable opportunity of being heard.

25. Can I modify or reframe questions after filing the application?

Ans: Normally, questions cannot be amended. However, in deserving cases, the BAR may permit modification or reframing of questions before the hearing.

26. What are the conditions which may cause my application to be summarily rejected?

Ans: Under section 384(3) of the Income Tax Act, 2025 certain restrictions have been imposed on the admissibility of the application. The BAR is bound to reject applications which raise the following three categories of questions.

  • The question is pending before any income-tax authority, Tribunal, or Court (except PSU relaxation);
  • It involves determination of fair market value of property; or
  • It relates to a transaction designed primarily for tax avoidance (other than GAAR rulings).

27. What are the legal consequences of a ruling (binding effect, appeal, voidness, limitation)?

Ans:

  • Binding effect: Binding on the applicant and jurisdictional income-tax authorities for the specific transaction.
  • Voidness: Can be declared void ab initio if obtained by fraud/misrepresentation.
  • Appeal: Appeal lies to the jurisdictional High Court within 60 days of communication.
  • Limitation: Pendency period before BAR is excluded while computing limitation for assessment/reassessment.

28. Can BAR ask for additional facts or documents later?

Ans: Yes. BAR may permit or require submission of additional facts, which must be duly verified.

29. Can the advance ruling be appealed?

Ans: Yes. Either the taxpayer or the Department may appeal to the High Court within 60 days of communication.

30. Is the time taken by BAR excluded from limitation periods?

Ans: Yes. The period during which the advance ruling application is pending is excluded while computing limitation periods for assessment.

31. Can an advance ruling be declared void later?

Ans: Yes. If the ruling is obtained by fraud or misrepresentation, BAR may declare it void ab initio.

32. Can the BAR amend or correct its own order?

Ans: Yes. The BAR may rectify mistakes apparent from the record, either on its own motion or on an application by the taxpayer or the Department, after giving an opportunity of being heard.

33. Is an advance ruling binding forever?

Ans: No. The ruling is binding only so long as there is no change in facts or law. Any material change can render the ruling inapplicable.

34. Can Public Sector Companies seek advance rulings despite pendency of proceedings?

Ans: Yes. Public Sector Companies are permitted to seek advance rulings even if proceedings are pending on the same or similar issues before income-tax authorities or appellate forums.

35. Is GAAR determination available to all categories of persons?

Ans: Yes. Any person (resident or non-resident) may seek an advance ruling on whether an arrangement constitutes an impermissible avoidance arrangement under GAAR.

36. What practical benefit does an advance ruling offer in cross-border transactions?

Ans: Advance rulings offer certainty on DTAA interpretation, withholding tax, PE exposure, and income characterization, enabling taxpayers to structure cross-border transactions confidently and compliantly.

37. Who can be an Authorized Representative?

Ans: An applicant’s authorized representative should fulfil the requirements spelt out in section 515(3)(a) of the Income Tax Act, 2025. The expression “authorized representative”, in relation to the PCIT/ CIT, means a person authorized by it in writing to appear, plead and act for it in any proceedings before the BAR.

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Acts Income Tax