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March 26, 2026
Show AI Summary
Deduction for dependant with disability requires Form 30, supported by medical certification, filing details, and electronic verification.
Deduction for maintenance, medical treatment, training and rehabilitation of a dependant with disability is supported by Form 30, which must be filed by a resident individual claiming expenditure for a dependant with disability or payments under an approved scheme. The form is filed with the return of income, supported by the medical authority certificate, and requires completion of assessee details, patient and disability particulars, upload of the signed verification, and e-verification through DSC or Aadhaar.
March 26, 2026
Show AI Summary
Disability-related tax deduction requires Form 30, medical certification, and timely filing with the return of income.
Deduction is available for maintenance, including medical treatment, training and rehabilitation, of a dependant who is a person with disability, and for payments made under a qualifying insurance or specified scheme. Form 30 is the prescribed statement for claiming the deduction and must be filed by a resident individual along with the return of income. The medical authority certificate must be uploaded online, and a fresh certificate is required when a temporary disability certificate expires.
March 26, 2026
Show AI Summary
Carry forward and set-off of amalgamated losses depends on Form 29 production certification and verified compliance.
Form 29 is the prescribed certificate for an amalgamated company to evidence achievement and maintenance of the prescribed level of production in an undertaking received through amalgamation. It is filed with the return of income to support compliance with the conditions for carry forward and set-off of accumulated loss and unabsorbed depreciation of the amalgamating company. The form must be certified by the principal officer and verified by an accountant, and it requires confirmation that the prescribed production threshold has been achieved and maintained within the specified period.
March 26, 2026
Show AI Summary
Freight disruption and export relief measures shape India's response to West Asia-linked logistics stress and production shortages.
West Asia-related disruption in shipping and logistics has led to steep increases in freight charges, container shortages, stranded cargo and shipment cancellations affecting exporters in eastern India. Perishable goods, engineering products, textiles and medicines are among the sectors most affected, while the LPG supply crunch has added to production difficulties and air cargo costs have risen because of route changes and cancellations. The text also refers to relief measures, including waiver-based port concessions, the RELIEF scheme for conflict-linked losses and reimbursement support for eligible MSME exporters.
March 26, 2026
Show AI Summary
Production compliance certificate governs carry forward and set-off benefits for amalgamated companies under the income tax rules.
Form 29 is the mandatory certificate under Rule 60 for an amalgamated company claiming carry forward and set-off of accumulated losses and unabsorbed depreciation under Section 116(4)(b)(iii). It certifies achievement and maintenance of the prescribed production level in acquired industrial undertakings, requires electronic filing with the return of income, and may cover multiple amalgamating companies. The production condition is 50% of installed capacity within four years of amalgamation and maintenance up to five years, with possible governmental relaxation in suitable cases.
March 26, 2026
Show AI Summary
Slump sale reporting requires accountant certification of net worth and capital gains through online Form 28 filing.
Accountant's report in Form No. 28 (Form No. 3CEA) is required for an assessee undertaking a slump sale to certify the computation of net worth and capital gains under the Income Tax Act, 2025. The form applies where an undertaking or division is transferred as a going concern for a lump-sum consideration without assigning individual values to assets and liabilities. It must be furnished online on the income tax e-filing portal on or before the due date for filing the assessee's income tax return.
March 26, 2026
Show AI Summary
Slump sale reporting under income tax law requires mandatory accountant certification, online filing, and timely submission through Form 28.
Form No. 28 is the accountant's report required under section 77(4) of the Income-tax Act, 2025 for computation of capital gains in a slump sale. It applies where an undertaking or division is transferred as a going concern for lump-sum consideration without assigning separate values to assets and liabilities, and it is mandatory for certifying net worth and capital gains. The form must be filed once in a year on or before the due date for the income-tax return, only online, and cannot be edited after submission. A valid PAN is required.
March 26, 2026
Show AI Summary
Capital gains attribution framework for specified entities filing Form 27 with valuation support and electronic certification.
Form 27 is filed by every specified entity to furnish details of the amount attributed to capital assets remaining with the entity where a specified person receives capital asset or stock-in-trade on dissolution or reconstitution. It supports computation under Rule 50 and must be certified on the basis of a registered valuer's report. The form is filed electronically with the return of income and includes particulars of the amount taxable, its attribution to remaining assets, and the valuer's details.
March 26, 2026
Show AI Summary
Form No. 27 reporting requirement governs valuation-based attribution of income on dissolution or reconstitution of a specified entity.
Form No. 27 is a mandatory income-tax reporting form prescribed under Rule 50 for a specified entity where income becomes taxable under section 67(10) on dissolution or reconstitution and a specified person receives capital asset, stock-in-trade, or both. It operationalises the attribution of such taxable income to the capital assets remaining with the specified entity and must be furnished for each tax year in which the relevant event occurs. The form requires electronic filing with the return of income and valuation-based attribution supported by a registered valuer's report.
March 26, 2026
Show AI Summary
Tax audit Form No. 26 standardises disclosures, audit reporting, and filing requirements under the new income tax framework.
Prescribed Form No. 26 is the audit report and statement of particulars under section 63 of the Income-tax Act, 2025 read with rule 47 of the Income-tax Rules, 2026. Parts A and B contain the substantive disclosures for tax audit compliance, including books of account, method of accounting, income, expenses, losses, depreciation, deductions, international taxation, TDS/TCS, indirect taxation and quantitative details. Part C applies where accounts are audited under another law, while Part D applies where they are not. The form is required for specified business and professional thresholds and certain presumptive taxation cases, and is furnished through a structured online filing process.
March 26, 2026
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Mandatory audit reporting under Form No. 26 introduces clause-wise disclosures, UDIN compliance, and schedule-based tax audit filing.
Form No. 26 is the mandatory audit report and statement of particulars for persons carrying on business or profession whose accounts are required to be audited under section 63. It applies from tax years commencing on or after 1 April 2026, is due one month before the return filing deadline, and must be signed by an Accountant with UDIN, and FRN where applicable. The form uses Part B clause-wise Yes/No reporting with trigger-based schedules, and Parts C and D for audit reporting depending on whether accounts are audited under another law.
March 26, 2026
Show AI Summary
Daily case register requirements for medical professionals under tax rules, including maintenance, exceptions, and non-filing status.
Form No. 25 prescribes a daily case register for medical professionals under Rule 46 of the Income-tax Rules, 2026. It records the patient's name, nature of service, fees charged, and date of receipt of fees. The form is mandatory for persons engaged in the medical profession, subject to the stated gross-receipts exceptions, and is maintained in addition to books of account. It is not furnished to the Department and has no due date.
March 26, 2026
Show AI Summary
Daily case register compliance for medical practitioners requires tabular records, electronic access safeguards, and preservation obligations.
Form No. 25 is the prescribed daily case register for practitioners of any system of medicine under Rule 46 of the Income-tax Rules, 2026, subject to the prescribed gross receipt threshold and the position of newly set-up medical practices. It records patient and fee particulars in tabular form, is not furnished to the Income-tax Department, but must be maintained daily, produced before the Assessing Officer when called for, may be kept electronically with India-based access and backups, and must be preserved for seven tax years or until completion of reassessment proceedings.
March 26, 2026
Show AI Summary
Permanent establishment audit reporting for royalty and technical services income now uses a structured Chartered Accountant certification format.
Form No. 24 is a statutory audit report for non-residents and foreign companies earning royalty or fees for technical services from India through a permanent establishment or fixed place of profession in India. It requires a Chartered Accountant's certification of the correctness of income computation, verification of the PE or fixed place, maintenance of books of account, and deduction only of expenses attributable to the PE while computing income under section 59. The form is filed annually, contains structured particulars of the assessee, agreement, PE, books examined, and income computation, and is submitted through the e-filing portal with digital signature verification.
March 26, 2026
Show AI Summary
Competition approval for additional shareholding acquisition in Valuedrive Technologies through an alternative investment and trust co-investment structure.
The Competition Commission of India approved the proposed acquisition of additional shareholding in Valuedrive Technologies Private Limited by Setu AIF Trust, Konark Trust and MMPL Trust. The transaction concerns acquisition of shares on a fully diluted basis through an alternative investment fund and private trust co-investment structure. Valuedrive Technologies Private Limited operates as an operating-cum-holding company for the Spinny Group and carries on an electronic platform business for used motor vehicles, together with related subsidiary activities.
March 26, 2026
Show AI Summary
Competition law approval for acquisition of shares in a listed NBFC by a Japan-based banking institution.
Competition Commission of India approval was granted for the acquisition of certain shares in Shriram Finance Limited by MUFG Bank Ltd. The acquirer is a Japan-based banking institution wholly owned and controlled by Mitsubishi UFJ Financial Group, Inc., and carries on banking-related activities in India including corporate banking loans, deposit accounts, remittances, trade finance, bank guarantees and hedging. The target is a listed non-banking financial company registered with the Reserve Bank of India, classified as an Investment and Credit Company and an NBFC-Upper Layer, engaged in financing commercial goods and passenger vehicles, construction equipment, farm equipment, MSMEs, two-wheelers, gold and personal loans.
March 26, 2026
Show AI Summary
Competition approval for acquisition of Groww Asset Management shareholding by State Street Global Advisors
Competition approval was granted for the proposed acquisition of shareholding in Groww Asset Management Limited by State Street Global Advisors, Inc. The target manages schemes of Groww Mutual Fund, including equity, hybrid, debt and exchange traded fund schemes. State Street operates under the State Street Investment Management brand as the asset management arm of State Street Corporation. The detailed order of the Commission would follow.
March 26, 2026
Show AI Summary
Competition combination approval for Coursera and Udemy merger, creating sole control over Udemy through a subsidiary merger.
Competition Commission of India approved a proposed combination involving the merger of Chess Merger Sub, a wholly owned subsidiary of Coursera Inc., with and into Udemy Inc., with Udemy surviving as a wholly owned subsidiary of Coursera. The transaction results in Coursera acquiring sole control over Udemy, and the combined company is expected to have post-closing shareholding in which existing Coursera stockholders hold approximately 59% and existing Udemy stockholders approximately 41% on a fully diluted basis.
March 26, 2026
Show AI Summary
Competition approval for renewable energy investment in Aditya Birla Renewables through equity subscription by GIP EM Star.
Competition Commission of India approved the subscription of certain equity share capital of Aditya Birla Renewables Limited by GIP EM Star Pte. Ltd. The acquirer is incorporated in Singapore and is ultimately linked to Global Infrastructure Management, LLC and BlackRock, Inc. The target, headquartered in Mumbai, is engaged in renewable energy power generation, including solar and wind power.
March 25, 2026
Show AI Summary
Inflation targeting framework retained with a 4 per cent objective and a 2 per cent tolerance band for the next cycle.
The central government, in consultation with the Reserve Bank, has notified the inflation target for 1 April 2026 to 31 March 2031 at 4 per cent, with an upper tolerance level of 6 per cent and a lower tolerance level of 2 per cent. The framework continues to place the Monetary Policy Committee in charge of setting the policy rate needed to achieve the inflation objective within the prescribed band.

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Form 119 – Frequently Asked Questions

April 1, 2026

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Form 119 – Frequently Asked Questions

Application to the Dispute Resolution Committee under section 379 of the Act

Name of form as per I.T. Rules, 1962

Form 34BC

Name of form as per I.T. Rules, 2026

119

Corresponding section of I.T. Act, 1961

245MA

Corresponding section of I.T. Act, 2025

379

Corresponding Rule of I.T. Rules, 1962

44DAB

Corresponding Rule of I.T. Rules, 2026

197

1. What is Form 119?

Ans:

Form 119 is an electronic form prescribed for making an application to the Dispute Resolution Committee (DRC) under section 379 of the Income-tax Act, 2025. It enables an eligible assessee to seek resolution of disputes arising from a specified order passed by an Income-tax Authority, in accordance with the dispute resolution mechanism provided under the Act.

2. Who can file Form 119?

Ans:

Form 119 may be filed by an eligible assessee (individual or any other person) who:

  • Is aggrieved by a specified order passed by an Income-tax Authority, and
  • Is eligible to approach the Dispute Resolution Committee under section 379, and
  • Satisfies the prescribed conditions regarding payment of tax on returned income and other statutory requirements.

3. Is filing of Form 119 mandatory?

Ans:

No. Filing of Form 119 is optional.

It is required only where the assessee chooses to seek dispute resolution through the Dispute Resolution Committee instead of pursuing remedies available under the regular appellate mechanism.

4. What is meant by a “specified order” for the purpose of Form 119?

Ans:

A “specified order” refers to an order passed by an Income-tax Authority under the relevant provisions of the Act, against which an application can be made to the Dispute Resolution Committee as provided under section 379(4).

5. Can Form 119 be filed for more than one tax year?

Ans:

Yes. Separate Form 119 applications must be filed for each tax year and for each specified order, subject to eligibility and other conditions prescribed under the Act.

6. What details are required in Part A of Form 119?

Ans:

Part A requires personal and identification details of the applicant, including:

  • Name of the applicant
  • Complete address
  • PAN
  • TAN (if applicable)
  • Valid mobile number and email ID for communication

The name and address must be filled strictly in accordance with the instructions and notes provided in the form.

7. What information is to be furnished in Part B of Form 119?

Ans:

Part B captures details of the order against which the application is filed, such as:

  • Tax year involved
  • Section and sub-section under which the order is passed
  • Date of the order
  • Date of service of the order or notice of demand
  • Name and designation of the Income-tax Authority passing the order

8. What is required to be reported in Part C (Application Details)?

Ans:

Part C requires quantitative details relating to the dispute, including:

  • Amount of income assessed
  • Total additions made or loss disallowed
  • Amount of addition or disallowance disputed
  • Amount of disputed demand (or NIL in case of loss)

All amounts are to be reported in Indian Rupees.

9. What is the purpose of Part D relating to pending applications?

Ans:

Part D seeks disclosure of whether any other application is pending before any Dispute Resolution Committee for another tax year in the case of the assessee. If yes, detailed particulars of such pending application must be furnished to ensure transparency and coordinated resolution.

10. Is payment of tax a pre-condition for filing Form 119?

Ans:

Yes. Where a return of income has been filed, tax due on the income returned must be paid in full, as required under the provisions governing the Dispute Resolution Committee.

Details of the return of income and taxes paid are to be furnished in Part E.

11. What details of Return of Income are required to be furnished?

Ans:

Where applicable, the following details are required:

  • Acknowledgement number of the return
  • Date of filing of the return
  • Total income as per return
  • Total tax due and total tax paid

12. What is required to be submitted in Part F of Form 119?

Ans:

Part F consists of the Statement of Facts, Grounds of Application, and documentary evidence, which must be furnished as annexures, namely:

  • Facts of the case
  • List of documentary evidence relied upon
  • List of additional documentary evidence, if any
  • Grounds of application, clearly and concisely stated

These must be filed in the prescribed annexure format.

13. Can additional evidence be filed along with Form 119?

Ans:

Yes. Additional documentary evidence may be filed, provided:

  • Such evidence is clearly listed in the relevant annexure, and
  • A declaration is made in the verification confirming that no evidence other than those disclosed has been filed.

14. How is application fee paid and reported in Form 119?

Ans:

Details of application fee paid are to be furnished in Part G, including:

  • BSR Code
  • Date of payment
  • Challan serial number
  • Amount paid

15. Can Form 119 be filed offline?

Ans:

No. Form 119 is required to be filed electronically through the Income-tax e-filing portal.

16. Can Form 119 be revised after submission?

Ans:

No. Once Form 119 is submitted and verified, it cannot be revised. Applicants are advised to carefully verify all details before submission.

17. Who can verify Form 119?

Ans:

Form 119 must be verified by the applicant or by an authorised person who is competent to do so, in accordance with the verification requirements specified in the form.

18. Why is Form 119 important?

Ans:

Form 119 facilitates:

  • Speedy and structured dispute resolution
  • Reduction of litigation
  • Transparent disclosure of disputed issues
  • Effective functioning of the Dispute Resolution Committee mechanism  

Topics

Acts Income Tax