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March 26, 2026
Show AI Summary
Deduction for dependant with disability requires Form 30, supported by medical certification, filing details, and electronic verification.
Deduction for maintenance, medical treatment, training and rehabilitation of a dependant with disability is supported by Form 30, which must be filed by a resident individual claiming expenditure for a dependant with disability or payments under an approved scheme. The form is filed with the return of income, supported by the medical authority certificate, and requires completion of assessee details, patient and disability particulars, upload of the signed verification, and e-verification through DSC or Aadhaar.
March 26, 2026
Show AI Summary
Disability-related tax deduction requires Form 30, medical certification, and timely filing with the return of income.
Deduction is available for maintenance, including medical treatment, training and rehabilitation, of a dependant who is a person with disability, and for payments made under a qualifying insurance or specified scheme. Form 30 is the prescribed statement for claiming the deduction and must be filed by a resident individual along with the return of income. The medical authority certificate must be uploaded online, and a fresh certificate is required when a temporary disability certificate expires.
March 26, 2026
Show AI Summary
Carry forward and set-off of amalgamated losses depends on Form 29 production certification and verified compliance.
Form 29 is the prescribed certificate for an amalgamated company to evidence achievement and maintenance of the prescribed level of production in an undertaking received through amalgamation. It is filed with the return of income to support compliance with the conditions for carry forward and set-off of accumulated loss and unabsorbed depreciation of the amalgamating company. The form must be certified by the principal officer and verified by an accountant, and it requires confirmation that the prescribed production threshold has been achieved and maintained within the specified period.
March 26, 2026
Show AI Summary
Freight disruption and export relief measures shape India's response to West Asia-linked logistics stress and production shortages.
West Asia-related disruption in shipping and logistics has led to steep increases in freight charges, container shortages, stranded cargo and shipment cancellations affecting exporters in eastern India. Perishable goods, engineering products, textiles and medicines are among the sectors most affected, while the LPG supply crunch has added to production difficulties and air cargo costs have risen because of route changes and cancellations. The text also refers to relief measures, including waiver-based port concessions, the RELIEF scheme for conflict-linked losses and reimbursement support for eligible MSME exporters.
March 26, 2026
Show AI Summary
Production compliance certificate governs carry forward and set-off benefits for amalgamated companies under the income tax rules.
Form 29 is the mandatory certificate under Rule 60 for an amalgamated company claiming carry forward and set-off of accumulated losses and unabsorbed depreciation under Section 116(4)(b)(iii). It certifies achievement and maintenance of the prescribed production level in acquired industrial undertakings, requires electronic filing with the return of income, and may cover multiple amalgamating companies. The production condition is 50% of installed capacity within four years of amalgamation and maintenance up to five years, with possible governmental relaxation in suitable cases.
March 26, 2026
Show AI Summary
Slump sale reporting requires accountant certification of net worth and capital gains through online Form 28 filing.
Accountant's report in Form No. 28 (Form No. 3CEA) is required for an assessee undertaking a slump sale to certify the computation of net worth and capital gains under the Income Tax Act, 2025. The form applies where an undertaking or division is transferred as a going concern for a lump-sum consideration without assigning individual values to assets and liabilities. It must be furnished online on the income tax e-filing portal on or before the due date for filing the assessee's income tax return.
March 26, 2026
Show AI Summary
Slump sale reporting under income tax law requires mandatory accountant certification, online filing, and timely submission through Form 28.
Form No. 28 is the accountant's report required under section 77(4) of the Income-tax Act, 2025 for computation of capital gains in a slump sale. It applies where an undertaking or division is transferred as a going concern for lump-sum consideration without assigning separate values to assets and liabilities, and it is mandatory for certifying net worth and capital gains. The form must be filed once in a year on or before the due date for the income-tax return, only online, and cannot be edited after submission. A valid PAN is required.
March 26, 2026
Show AI Summary
Capital gains attribution framework for specified entities filing Form 27 with valuation support and electronic certification.
Form 27 is filed by every specified entity to furnish details of the amount attributed to capital assets remaining with the entity where a specified person receives capital asset or stock-in-trade on dissolution or reconstitution. It supports computation under Rule 50 and must be certified on the basis of a registered valuer's report. The form is filed electronically with the return of income and includes particulars of the amount taxable, its attribution to remaining assets, and the valuer's details.
March 26, 2026
Show AI Summary
Form No. 27 reporting requirement governs valuation-based attribution of income on dissolution or reconstitution of a specified entity.
Form No. 27 is a mandatory income-tax reporting form prescribed under Rule 50 for a specified entity where income becomes taxable under section 67(10) on dissolution or reconstitution and a specified person receives capital asset, stock-in-trade, or both. It operationalises the attribution of such taxable income to the capital assets remaining with the specified entity and must be furnished for each tax year in which the relevant event occurs. The form requires electronic filing with the return of income and valuation-based attribution supported by a registered valuer's report.
March 26, 2026
Show AI Summary
Tax audit Form No. 26 standardises disclosures, audit reporting, and filing requirements under the new income tax framework.
Prescribed Form No. 26 is the audit report and statement of particulars under section 63 of the Income-tax Act, 2025 read with rule 47 of the Income-tax Rules, 2026. Parts A and B contain the substantive disclosures for tax audit compliance, including books of account, method of accounting, income, expenses, losses, depreciation, deductions, international taxation, TDS/TCS, indirect taxation and quantitative details. Part C applies where accounts are audited under another law, while Part D applies where they are not. The form is required for specified business and professional thresholds and certain presumptive taxation cases, and is furnished through a structured online filing process.
March 26, 2026
Show AI Summary
Mandatory audit reporting under Form No. 26 introduces clause-wise disclosures, UDIN compliance, and schedule-based tax audit filing.
Form No. 26 is the mandatory audit report and statement of particulars for persons carrying on business or profession whose accounts are required to be audited under section 63. It applies from tax years commencing on or after 1 April 2026, is due one month before the return filing deadline, and must be signed by an Accountant with UDIN, and FRN where applicable. The form uses Part B clause-wise Yes/No reporting with trigger-based schedules, and Parts C and D for audit reporting depending on whether accounts are audited under another law.
March 26, 2026
Show AI Summary
Daily case register requirements for medical professionals under tax rules, including maintenance, exceptions, and non-filing status.
Form No. 25 prescribes a daily case register for medical professionals under Rule 46 of the Income-tax Rules, 2026. It records the patient's name, nature of service, fees charged, and date of receipt of fees. The form is mandatory for persons engaged in the medical profession, subject to the stated gross-receipts exceptions, and is maintained in addition to books of account. It is not furnished to the Department and has no due date.
March 26, 2026
Show AI Summary
Daily case register compliance for medical practitioners requires tabular records, electronic access safeguards, and preservation obligations.
Form No. 25 is the prescribed daily case register for practitioners of any system of medicine under Rule 46 of the Income-tax Rules, 2026, subject to the prescribed gross receipt threshold and the position of newly set-up medical practices. It records patient and fee particulars in tabular form, is not furnished to the Income-tax Department, but must be maintained daily, produced before the Assessing Officer when called for, may be kept electronically with India-based access and backups, and must be preserved for seven tax years or until completion of reassessment proceedings.
March 26, 2026
Show AI Summary
Permanent establishment audit reporting for royalty and technical services income now uses a structured Chartered Accountant certification format.
Form No. 24 is a statutory audit report for non-residents and foreign companies earning royalty or fees for technical services from India through a permanent establishment or fixed place of profession in India. It requires a Chartered Accountant's certification of the correctness of income computation, verification of the PE or fixed place, maintenance of books of account, and deduction only of expenses attributable to the PE while computing income under section 59. The form is filed annually, contains structured particulars of the assessee, agreement, PE, books examined, and income computation, and is submitted through the e-filing portal with digital signature verification.
March 26, 2026
Show AI Summary
Competition approval for additional shareholding acquisition in Valuedrive Technologies through an alternative investment and trust co-investment structure.
The Competition Commission of India approved the proposed acquisition of additional shareholding in Valuedrive Technologies Private Limited by Setu AIF Trust, Konark Trust and MMPL Trust. The transaction concerns acquisition of shares on a fully diluted basis through an alternative investment fund and private trust co-investment structure. Valuedrive Technologies Private Limited operates as an operating-cum-holding company for the Spinny Group and carries on an electronic platform business for used motor vehicles, together with related subsidiary activities.
March 26, 2026
Show AI Summary
Competition law approval for acquisition of shares in a listed NBFC by a Japan-based banking institution.
Competition Commission of India approval was granted for the acquisition of certain shares in Shriram Finance Limited by MUFG Bank Ltd. The acquirer is a Japan-based banking institution wholly owned and controlled by Mitsubishi UFJ Financial Group, Inc., and carries on banking-related activities in India including corporate banking loans, deposit accounts, remittances, trade finance, bank guarantees and hedging. The target is a listed non-banking financial company registered with the Reserve Bank of India, classified as an Investment and Credit Company and an NBFC-Upper Layer, engaged in financing commercial goods and passenger vehicles, construction equipment, farm equipment, MSMEs, two-wheelers, gold and personal loans.
March 26, 2026
Show AI Summary
Competition approval for acquisition of Groww Asset Management shareholding by State Street Global Advisors
Competition approval was granted for the proposed acquisition of shareholding in Groww Asset Management Limited by State Street Global Advisors, Inc. The target manages schemes of Groww Mutual Fund, including equity, hybrid, debt and exchange traded fund schemes. State Street operates under the State Street Investment Management brand as the asset management arm of State Street Corporation. The detailed order of the Commission would follow.
March 26, 2026
Show AI Summary
Competition combination approval for Coursera and Udemy merger, creating sole control over Udemy through a subsidiary merger.
Competition Commission of India approved a proposed combination involving the merger of Chess Merger Sub, a wholly owned subsidiary of Coursera Inc., with and into Udemy Inc., with Udemy surviving as a wholly owned subsidiary of Coursera. The transaction results in Coursera acquiring sole control over Udemy, and the combined company is expected to have post-closing shareholding in which existing Coursera stockholders hold approximately 59% and existing Udemy stockholders approximately 41% on a fully diluted basis.
March 26, 2026
Show AI Summary
Competition approval for renewable energy investment in Aditya Birla Renewables through equity subscription by GIP EM Star.
Competition Commission of India approved the subscription of certain equity share capital of Aditya Birla Renewables Limited by GIP EM Star Pte. Ltd. The acquirer is incorporated in Singapore and is ultimately linked to Global Infrastructure Management, LLC and BlackRock, Inc. The target, headquartered in Mumbai, is engaged in renewable energy power generation, including solar and wind power.
March 25, 2026
Show AI Summary
Inflation targeting framework retained with a 4 per cent objective and a 2 per cent tolerance band for the next cycle.
The central government, in consultation with the Reserve Bank, has notified the inflation target for 1 April 2026 to 31 March 2031 at 4 per cent, with an upper tolerance level of 6 per cent and a lower tolerance level of 2 per cent. The framework continues to place the Monetary Policy Committee in charge of setting the policy rate needed to achieve the inflation objective within the prescribed band.

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Form 115 – Frequently Asked Questions (FAQ)

April 1, 2026

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Form 115 – Frequently Asked Questions (FAQ)

Form of appeal to the Income-tax Appellate Tribunal

Name of form as per I.T. Rules, 1962

Form 36

Name of form as per I.T. Rules, 2026

115

Corresponding section of I.T. Act, 1961

253

Corresponding section of I.T. Act, 2025

362

Corresponding Rule of I.T. Rules, 1962

47

Corresponding Rule of I.T. Rules, 2026

193

1. What is Form 115?

Ans:

Form 115 is the prescribed form for filing an appeal before the Income-tax Appellate Tribunal (ITAT) against an order passed by the income-tax authorities. The order appealed against should be one of the orders specified in section 362(1).

2. Who is required to file Form 115?

Ans:

Form 115 may be filed by:

  • An assessee who is aggrieved by an order passed by an income-tax authority and seeks to file an appeal before the Income-tax Appellate Tribunal; or
  • The Income-tax Department, where it is the appellant, for filing an appeal before the Income-tax Appellate Tribunal.

3. Before which authority is Form 115 filed?

Ans:

Form 115 is filed before the Income-tax Appellate Tribunal (ITAT) having jurisdiction over the case.

4. What are the main parts of Form 115?

Ans:

Form 115 consists of the following parts:

  • Part A: Appellant’s Personal Information
  • Part B: Respondent’s Personal Information
  • Part C: Appeal Details
  • Part D: Amount Disputed in Appeal
  • Part E: Grounds of Appeal
  • Part F: Appeal Filing Details
  • Verification

5. What details are required to be furnished in Part A (Appellant’s Personal Information)?

Ans:

Part A requires details such as:

  • Name or designation of the appellant
  • (where applicable)
  • (in case of deductors, where applicable)
  • Complete address
  • Contact details including landline number, mobile number, and email ID

In cases where the Department is the appellant, the designation and office details of the authority concerned shall be furnished.

6. What details are required to be furnished in Part B (Respondent’s Personal Information)?

Ans:

Part B requires details of the respondent, including:

  • Name or designation
  • PAN / TAN, where applicable
  • Complete address
  • Contact details including landline number, mobile number, and email ID

In cases where the Department is the respondent, the designation and office details of the concerned authority may be furnished.

7. What information is required to be provided in Part C (Appeal Details)?

Ans:

Part C requires furnishing of:

  • Relevant tax year or block period
  • Total income declared for the relevant period
  • Details of the order appealed against, including section, date of order, and nature of order
  • Date of service of notice/order
  • Name of the income-tax authority passing the order
  • Details of Jurisdictional Assessing Officer

8. What details are required in Part D (Amount Disputed in Appeal)?

Ans:

Depending on the nature of the appeal, Part D requires details of:

  • Section and sub-section under which order is passed
  • Disputed income and disputed demand in case of assessment orders
  • Disputed penalty amount in case of penalty appeals
  • Disputed TDS/TCS default in TDS/TCS-related appeals
  • Amount disputed in appeal in respect of any other matter

All amounts are required to be furnished in Indian Rupees.

9. What is meant by “tax effect” for the purpose of Form 115?

Ans:

“Tax effect” refers to the difference between the tax on the total income assessed and the tax that would have been chargeable had such total income been reduced by the income in respect of the disputed issues, including applicable surcharge and cess. For the manner of computation, including treatment of interest, loss cases, penalty orders, notional tax, and common grounds, reference may be made to the Notes to Form 115.

10. What details are required to be furnished in Part E (Grounds of Appeal)?

Ans:

Part E requires the appellant to furnish:

  • Concise grounds of appeal, numbered consecutively
  • Tax effect relating to each ground of appeal

The grounds should be stated within the prescribed word limit.

11. Can multiple grounds of appeal be filed in Form 115?

Ans:

Yes.

Multiple grounds of appeal may be furnished, provided each ground is stated separately and numbered consecutively.

12. What information is required to be furnished in Part F?

Ans:

Part F requires furnishing of:

  • Whether there is any delay in filing the appeal
  • Grounds for condonation of delay, where applicable
  • Details of appeal fees paid, including BSR code, date of payment, and amount

13. Is payment of appeal fee mandatory while filing Form 115?

Ans:

Yes.

The appeal must be accompanied by the prescribed fee as per the Income-tax Act and Rules, except in cases where no fee is payable, such as cross-objections. The amount of fee, mode of payment, and related conditions are specified in the Notes to Form 115, which may be referred to for details.

14. What documents are required to be enclosed with Form 115?

Ans:

The memorandum of appeal shall be filed in the prescribed form and manner and shall be accompanied by the documents specified in the Notes to Form 115, including copies of the order appealed against and other relevant records, as applicable.

15. Who should sign and verify Form 115?

Ans:

Form 115 must be signed by:

  • The appellant, or
  • The authorised representative, where applicable,

In case of appeal by the taxpayer, the form is to be verified by the person authorized to verify the return of income under section 265.

16. Is PAN mandatory in the verification section of Form 115?

Ans:

PAN is required to be furnished in the verification where applicable. In cases where the appeal is filed by the Income-tax Department or other government authorities, PAN may not be applicable.

17. Can Form 115 be revised after filing?

Ans:

No.

Once Form 115 is filed, it cannot be revised. However, additional grounds may be raised before the Tribunal in accordance with law.

18. Can Form 115 be filed electronically?

Ans:

Form 115 may be filed electronically through the Income Tax Department e-Filing portal or ITAT e-Filing portal.

19. What is the limitation period for filing Form 115?

Ans:

Form 115 must be filed within two months from the end of the month in which the order sought to be appealed against is communicated to the assessee or to the Principal Commissioner or Commissioner, as the case may be.

20. Why is Form 115 important?

Ans:

Form 115 enables:

  • Statutory right of appeal before the ITAT
  • Structured presentation of disputed issues and tax effect
  • Efficient adjudication of appeals by the Tribunal

Topics

Acts Income Tax