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March 26, 2026
Show AI Summary
Deduction for dependant with disability requires Form 30, supported by medical certification, filing details, and electronic verification.
Deduction for maintenance, medical treatment, training and rehabilitation of a dependant with disability is supported by Form 30, which must be filed by a resident individual claiming expenditure for a dependant with disability or payments under an approved scheme. The form is filed with the return of income, supported by the medical authority certificate, and requires completion of assessee details, patient and disability particulars, upload of the signed verification, and e-verification through DSC or Aadhaar.
March 26, 2026
Show AI Summary
Disability-related tax deduction requires Form 30, medical certification, and timely filing with the return of income.
Deduction is available for maintenance, including medical treatment, training and rehabilitation, of a dependant who is a person with disability, and for payments made under a qualifying insurance or specified scheme. Form 30 is the prescribed statement for claiming the deduction and must be filed by a resident individual along with the return of income. The medical authority certificate must be uploaded online, and a fresh certificate is required when a temporary disability certificate expires.
March 26, 2026
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Carry forward and set-off of amalgamated losses depends on Form 29 production certification and verified compliance.
Form 29 is the prescribed certificate for an amalgamated company to evidence achievement and maintenance of the prescribed level of production in an undertaking received through amalgamation. It is filed with the return of income to support compliance with the conditions for carry forward and set-off of accumulated loss and unabsorbed depreciation of the amalgamating company. The form must be certified by the principal officer and verified by an accountant, and it requires confirmation that the prescribed production threshold has been achieved and maintained within the specified period.
March 26, 2026
Show AI Summary
Freight disruption and export relief measures shape India's response to West Asia-linked logistics stress and production shortages.
West Asia-related disruption in shipping and logistics has led to steep increases in freight charges, container shortages, stranded cargo and shipment cancellations affecting exporters in eastern India. Perishable goods, engineering products, textiles and medicines are among the sectors most affected, while the LPG supply crunch has added to production difficulties and air cargo costs have risen because of route changes and cancellations. The text also refers to relief measures, including waiver-based port concessions, the RELIEF scheme for conflict-linked losses and reimbursement support for eligible MSME exporters.
March 26, 2026
Show AI Summary
Production compliance certificate governs carry forward and set-off benefits for amalgamated companies under the income tax rules.
Form 29 is the mandatory certificate under Rule 60 for an amalgamated company claiming carry forward and set-off of accumulated losses and unabsorbed depreciation under Section 116(4)(b)(iii). It certifies achievement and maintenance of the prescribed production level in acquired industrial undertakings, requires electronic filing with the return of income, and may cover multiple amalgamating companies. The production condition is 50% of installed capacity within four years of amalgamation and maintenance up to five years, with possible governmental relaxation in suitable cases.
March 26, 2026
Show AI Summary
Slump sale reporting requires accountant certification of net worth and capital gains through online Form 28 filing.
Accountant's report in Form No. 28 (Form No. 3CEA) is required for an assessee undertaking a slump sale to certify the computation of net worth and capital gains under the Income Tax Act, 2025. The form applies where an undertaking or division is transferred as a going concern for a lump-sum consideration without assigning individual values to assets and liabilities. It must be furnished online on the income tax e-filing portal on or before the due date for filing the assessee's income tax return.
March 26, 2026
Show AI Summary
Slump sale reporting under income tax law requires mandatory accountant certification, online filing, and timely submission through Form 28.
Form No. 28 is the accountant's report required under section 77(4) of the Income-tax Act, 2025 for computation of capital gains in a slump sale. It applies where an undertaking or division is transferred as a going concern for lump-sum consideration without assigning separate values to assets and liabilities, and it is mandatory for certifying net worth and capital gains. The form must be filed once in a year on or before the due date for the income-tax return, only online, and cannot be edited after submission. A valid PAN is required.
March 26, 2026
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Capital gains attribution framework for specified entities filing Form 27 with valuation support and electronic certification.
Form 27 is filed by every specified entity to furnish details of the amount attributed to capital assets remaining with the entity where a specified person receives capital asset or stock-in-trade on dissolution or reconstitution. It supports computation under Rule 50 and must be certified on the basis of a registered valuer's report. The form is filed electronically with the return of income and includes particulars of the amount taxable, its attribution to remaining assets, and the valuer's details.
March 26, 2026
Show AI Summary
Form No. 27 reporting requirement governs valuation-based attribution of income on dissolution or reconstitution of a specified entity.
Form No. 27 is a mandatory income-tax reporting form prescribed under Rule 50 for a specified entity where income becomes taxable under section 67(10) on dissolution or reconstitution and a specified person receives capital asset, stock-in-trade, or both. It operationalises the attribution of such taxable income to the capital assets remaining with the specified entity and must be furnished for each tax year in which the relevant event occurs. The form requires electronic filing with the return of income and valuation-based attribution supported by a registered valuer's report.
March 26, 2026
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Tax audit Form No. 26 standardises disclosures, audit reporting, and filing requirements under the new income tax framework.
Prescribed Form No. 26 is the audit report and statement of particulars under section 63 of the Income-tax Act, 2025 read with rule 47 of the Income-tax Rules, 2026. Parts A and B contain the substantive disclosures for tax audit compliance, including books of account, method of accounting, income, expenses, losses, depreciation, deductions, international taxation, TDS/TCS, indirect taxation and quantitative details. Part C applies where accounts are audited under another law, while Part D applies where they are not. The form is required for specified business and professional thresholds and certain presumptive taxation cases, and is furnished through a structured online filing process.
March 26, 2026
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Mandatory audit reporting under Form No. 26 introduces clause-wise disclosures, UDIN compliance, and schedule-based tax audit filing.
Form No. 26 is the mandatory audit report and statement of particulars for persons carrying on business or profession whose accounts are required to be audited under section 63. It applies from tax years commencing on or after 1 April 2026, is due one month before the return filing deadline, and must be signed by an Accountant with UDIN, and FRN where applicable. The form uses Part B clause-wise Yes/No reporting with trigger-based schedules, and Parts C and D for audit reporting depending on whether accounts are audited under another law.
March 26, 2026
Show AI Summary
Daily case register requirements for medical professionals under tax rules, including maintenance, exceptions, and non-filing status.
Form No. 25 prescribes a daily case register for medical professionals under Rule 46 of the Income-tax Rules, 2026. It records the patient's name, nature of service, fees charged, and date of receipt of fees. The form is mandatory for persons engaged in the medical profession, subject to the stated gross-receipts exceptions, and is maintained in addition to books of account. It is not furnished to the Department and has no due date.
March 26, 2026
Show AI Summary
Daily case register compliance for medical practitioners requires tabular records, electronic access safeguards, and preservation obligations.
Form No. 25 is the prescribed daily case register for practitioners of any system of medicine under Rule 46 of the Income-tax Rules, 2026, subject to the prescribed gross receipt threshold and the position of newly set-up medical practices. It records patient and fee particulars in tabular form, is not furnished to the Income-tax Department, but must be maintained daily, produced before the Assessing Officer when called for, may be kept electronically with India-based access and backups, and must be preserved for seven tax years or until completion of reassessment proceedings.
March 26, 2026
Show AI Summary
Permanent establishment audit reporting for royalty and technical services income now uses a structured Chartered Accountant certification format.
Form No. 24 is a statutory audit report for non-residents and foreign companies earning royalty or fees for technical services from India through a permanent establishment or fixed place of profession in India. It requires a Chartered Accountant's certification of the correctness of income computation, verification of the PE or fixed place, maintenance of books of account, and deduction only of expenses attributable to the PE while computing income under section 59. The form is filed annually, contains structured particulars of the assessee, agreement, PE, books examined, and income computation, and is submitted through the e-filing portal with digital signature verification.
March 26, 2026
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Competition approval for additional shareholding acquisition in Valuedrive Technologies through an alternative investment and trust co-investment structure.
The Competition Commission of India approved the proposed acquisition of additional shareholding in Valuedrive Technologies Private Limited by Setu AIF Trust, Konark Trust and MMPL Trust. The transaction concerns acquisition of shares on a fully diluted basis through an alternative investment fund and private trust co-investment structure. Valuedrive Technologies Private Limited operates as an operating-cum-holding company for the Spinny Group and carries on an electronic platform business for used motor vehicles, together with related subsidiary activities.
March 26, 2026
Show AI Summary
Competition law approval for acquisition of shares in a listed NBFC by a Japan-based banking institution.
Competition Commission of India approval was granted for the acquisition of certain shares in Shriram Finance Limited by MUFG Bank Ltd. The acquirer is a Japan-based banking institution wholly owned and controlled by Mitsubishi UFJ Financial Group, Inc., and carries on banking-related activities in India including corporate banking loans, deposit accounts, remittances, trade finance, bank guarantees and hedging. The target is a listed non-banking financial company registered with the Reserve Bank of India, classified as an Investment and Credit Company and an NBFC-Upper Layer, engaged in financing commercial goods and passenger vehicles, construction equipment, farm equipment, MSMEs, two-wheelers, gold and personal loans.
March 26, 2026
Show AI Summary
Competition approval for acquisition of Groww Asset Management shareholding by State Street Global Advisors
Competition approval was granted for the proposed acquisition of shareholding in Groww Asset Management Limited by State Street Global Advisors, Inc. The target manages schemes of Groww Mutual Fund, including equity, hybrid, debt and exchange traded fund schemes. State Street operates under the State Street Investment Management brand as the asset management arm of State Street Corporation. The detailed order of the Commission would follow.
March 26, 2026
Show AI Summary
Competition combination approval for Coursera and Udemy merger, creating sole control over Udemy through a subsidiary merger.
Competition Commission of India approved a proposed combination involving the merger of Chess Merger Sub, a wholly owned subsidiary of Coursera Inc., with and into Udemy Inc., with Udemy surviving as a wholly owned subsidiary of Coursera. The transaction results in Coursera acquiring sole control over Udemy, and the combined company is expected to have post-closing shareholding in which existing Coursera stockholders hold approximately 59% and existing Udemy stockholders approximately 41% on a fully diluted basis.
March 26, 2026
Show AI Summary
Competition approval for renewable energy investment in Aditya Birla Renewables through equity subscription by GIP EM Star.
Competition Commission of India approved the subscription of certain equity share capital of Aditya Birla Renewables Limited by GIP EM Star Pte. Ltd. The acquirer is incorporated in Singapore and is ultimately linked to Global Infrastructure Management, LLC and BlackRock, Inc. The target, headquartered in Mumbai, is engaged in renewable energy power generation, including solar and wind power.
March 25, 2026
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Inflation targeting framework retained with a 4 per cent objective and a 2 per cent tolerance band for the next cycle.
The central government, in consultation with the Reserve Bank, has notified the inflation target for 1 April 2026 to 31 March 2031 at 4 per cent, with an upper tolerance level of 6 per cent and a lower tolerance level of 2 per cent. The framework continues to place the Monetary Policy Committee in charge of setting the policy rate needed to achieve the inflation objective within the prescribed band.

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Guidance Note – Form 90

March 30, 2026

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Form 90 – Intimation of Non-Availability of Information

Purpose:

Form 90 is a statutory form used by the Income-tax Department to intimate an applicant public authority that the information requested under section 258(2)(a) of the Income-tax Act, 2025 is not available in departmental records or that no assessment has been made for the specified tax year.

Who Should Furnish Form 90:

Form 90 is furnished only by the designated Income-tax authority after examination of an application received under section 258(2)(a) of the Income-tax Act, 2025. It is not filed by taxpayers or applicant public authorities.

Mode of Furnishing:

Form 90 is furnished electronically through the Income-tax Department’s system. The form is authenticated through the system-generated signature, name and designation of the issuing Income-tax authority, along with a Document Identification Number (DIN).

Frequency & Due Dates:

  • Form 90 is event-based and is issued whenever, after verification of records, the requested information is found to be unavailable or no assessment exists for the relevant tax year.
  • There is no fixed periodicity and no statutory due date prescribed for issuance of Form 90.

Structure of Form 90:

Header Details:

  1. Form number, Document Identification Number (DIN), office of the issuing authority and date.
  2. Recipient details.
  3. Reference to the application received under section 258(2)(a) of the Act.

Content Section:

  1. Reference to the application date under section 258(2)(a).
  2. Name of the assessee.
  3. Relevant tax year (mandatory).
  4. Statement clearly intimating that:
  • the requested information is not available in departmental records, or
  • no assessment has been made for the specified tax year, as applicable.

Certain details in the form are pre-filled by the system to the extent available and are required to be verified by the issuing authority before submission.

Signature Section:

  1. Signature of the issuing authority.
  2. Name of the issuing authority.
  3. Designation of the issuing authority.

Documents / Inputs Required:

  • Valid application requesting information under section 258(2)(a) of the Income-tax Act, 2025 (Form 88).

Filing / Issuance Count:

Issuance of Form 90 depends on the number of applications received under section 258(2)(a) and the instances where information is not available or no assessment exists for the specified tax year.

Process Flow for Issuance of Form 90:

  • Receipt of application from an authorised public authority under section 258(2)(a).
  • Verification of departmental records by the concerned Income-tax authority.
  • Determination that the requested information is not available or that no assessment has been made for the relevant tax year.
  • Preparation of Form 90 through the electronic system with reference to the application date, assessee name and tax year.
  • System-based authentication and electronic issuance of Form 90 to the applicant public authority.

Outcome of Processed Form 90:

  • Provides official and formal intimation to the applicant regarding non-availability of information or non-completion of assessment.
  • Establishes a clear and traceable communication trail through DIN.
  • Prevents unnecessary follow-ups or repeated requests for unavailable information.

Brief Note on Broad or Qualitative Changes Proposed:

  • Updated Legal Reference: Alignment from section 138(1)(b) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 to section 258(2)(a) of the Income-tax Act, 2025.
  • Tax-Year Specificity: Explicit use of the term “tax year” instead of “assessment year” to ensure consistency with the 2025 Act.
  • Electronic Issuance: Transition to fully online, system-generated issuance with DIN and electronic authentication.
  • Simplified and Clear Intimation: Concise and unambiguous wording to communicate nonavailability of information or absence of assessment.

Challenges and Solutions:

1. Challenge: Earlier Form 90 had limited structure, leading to ambiguity in communication.

Solution: Finalised Form 90 provides structured fields for application reference, assessee name and tax year, ensuring clarity.

2. Challenge: Confusion arising from inconsistent use of “assessment year” in older formats.

Solution: Standardisation to the term “tax year” across the form and related FAQs.

Common Changes Made Across Forms:

1. Electronic issuance through the Department’s system

Form 90 is generated and issued electronically by the designated Income-tax authority through the Department’s system, with allotment of DIN and system-based authentication, ensuring traceability and accountability.

2. Replacement of “Assessment Year” with “Tax Year”

The terminology has been standardised to “tax year” in place of “assessment year”, in line with the Income-tax Act, 2025 and to maintain consistency across all related forms.

3. Updated statutory references to the Income-tax Act, 2025

References to section 138(1)(b) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 have been replaced with section 258(2)(a) of the Income-tax Act, 2025.

4. Structured and standardised format for intimation

The form adopts a clear and uniform structure containing application reference, assessee details, tax year, and a specific statement on non-availability of information or non-completion of assessment, improving clarity and audit readiness.

5. Removal of physical signatures, stamps, and seals

Authentication of Form 90 is through electronic details such as name, designation, and DIN as generated by the Department’s system, eliminating the requirement of physical signatures or official seals.

6. Clear distinction from furnishing and refusal forms

Form 90 is clearly positioned as an intimation of factual non-availability of information and is distinct from:

Form 89 (furnishing of information), and

Form 91 (refusal to furnish information on grounds of public interest).

7. System-supported pre-filling of data

Key particulars such as reference to the original application, name of the assessee, and tax year are pre-filled to the extent available, reducing manual intervention and errors.

Topics

Acts Income Tax