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March 26, 2026
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SEZ reinvestment reserve reporting: Form 33 supports deduction claims for new plant and machinery purchases under section 144.
Form 33 is the prescribed statement for assessees claiming deduction under section 144 in respect of profits and gains derived by newly established units in SEZs. It is filed where amounts are withdrawn from the SEZ Reinvestment Reserve Account for purchase of new plant or machinery, and it must be verified by the proprietor, partner, or director. The form is to be filed along with the return of income, and the deduction is based on the particulars reported in the form.
March 26, 2026
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Audit report form requirements govern deduction claims under specified income-tax provisions, with section-wise disclosures and chartered accountant verification.
Form 32 is the prescribed audit-report form for assessees claiming deductions under the specified provisions of the Income-tax Act, 2025, and it must be verified by a Chartered Accountant. The form is filed by the due date applicable to the audit report and requires basic particulars, section-specific disclosure fields, supporting documents such as agreements, SEZ notifications, start-up certification, turnover and profit details, and capital expenditure details where relevant. Filing is completed by entering the applicable deduction particulars and electronic verification through the Chartered Accountant's DSC.
March 26, 2026
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Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code misuse allegations surface over creditor voting control and resolution process conduct in a fraud FIR.
Fraud allegations arose from an FIR filed on the basis of an Enforcement Directorate complaint linked to a money laundering probe. The complaint stated that Experion entities were examined in relation to the insolvency proceedings of Dignity Buildcon Private Limited and were said to have misused the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code during the Corporate Insolvency Resolution Process. It further alleged acquisition of debt and debentures to increase voting rights in the Committee of Creditors and pressure on the authorised representative of Alchemist Asset Reconstruction Company to vote for a resolution plan.
March 26, 2026
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Audit report requirements govern deductions for specified business, start-ups, SEZ units, and North-Eastern eligible businesses.
Form 32 is the audit report required for deductions under the specified provisions of the Income-tax Act, 2025, and must be verified by a Chartered Accountant. It applies to claims for specified business capital expenditure, industrial and infrastructure undertakings, SEZ development, eligible start-ups, housing projects, North-Eastern business units, and newly established SEZ units, and must be filed by the audit-report due date. The document also states the conditions for specified business capital expenditure, start-up eligibility and duration, and the qualifying North-Eastern businesses.
March 26, 2026
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Rent deduction declaration requires Form 31, with landlord details, rent evidence, and e-verification alongside the return.
Form 31 is the declaration to be furnished by an assessee claiming deduction under section 134 of the Income-tax Act, 2025 in respect of rent paid for residential accommodation. It applies to a resident individual who pays rent for furnished or unfurnished accommodation, does not receive house rent allowance, and does not own residential property at the place of employment or residence. The form is to be filed along with the return of income and requires rent details, landlord particulars, supporting documents, and e-verification through DSC or Aadhaar.
March 26, 2026
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Rent deduction declaration under section 134 requires Form 31 for eligible resident individuals without house rent allowance.
Form 31 is the declaration required for claiming deduction under section 134 for rent paid for residential accommodation. It applies to a resident individual who does not receive house rent allowance and does not own residential property at the place of employment or residence. The form must be filed along with the return of income, and the deduction is available on the basis of details furnished in the form, subject to the annual ceiling of Rs. 60,000.
March 26, 2026
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Deduction for dependant with disability requires Form 30, supported by medical certification, filing details, and electronic verification.
Deduction for maintenance, medical treatment, training and rehabilitation of a dependant with disability is supported by Form 30, which must be filed by a resident individual claiming expenditure for a dependant with disability or payments under an approved scheme. The form is filed with the return of income, supported by the medical authority certificate, and requires completion of assessee details, patient and disability particulars, upload of the signed verification, and e-verification through DSC or Aadhaar.
March 26, 2026
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Disability-related tax deduction requires Form 30, medical certification, and timely filing with the return of income.
Deduction is available for maintenance, including medical treatment, training and rehabilitation, of a dependant who is a person with disability, and for payments made under a qualifying insurance or specified scheme. Form 30 is the prescribed statement for claiming the deduction and must be filed by a resident individual along with the return of income. The medical authority certificate must be uploaded online, and a fresh certificate is required when a temporary disability certificate expires.
March 26, 2026
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Carry forward and set-off of amalgamated losses depends on Form 29 production certification and verified compliance.
Form 29 is the prescribed certificate for an amalgamated company to evidence achievement and maintenance of the prescribed level of production in an undertaking received through amalgamation. It is filed with the return of income to support compliance with the conditions for carry forward and set-off of accumulated loss and unabsorbed depreciation of the amalgamating company. The form must be certified by the principal officer and verified by an accountant, and it requires confirmation that the prescribed production threshold has been achieved and maintained within the specified period.
March 26, 2026
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Freight disruption and export relief measures shape India's response to West Asia-linked logistics stress and production shortages.
West Asia-related disruption in shipping and logistics has led to steep increases in freight charges, container shortages, stranded cargo and shipment cancellations affecting exporters in eastern India. Perishable goods, engineering products, textiles and medicines are among the sectors most affected, while the LPG supply crunch has added to production difficulties and air cargo costs have risen because of route changes and cancellations. The text also refers to relief measures, including waiver-based port concessions, the RELIEF scheme for conflict-linked losses and reimbursement support for eligible MSME exporters.
March 26, 2026
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Production compliance certificate governs carry forward and set-off benefits for amalgamated companies under the income tax rules.
Form 29 is the mandatory certificate under Rule 60 for an amalgamated company claiming carry forward and set-off of accumulated losses and unabsorbed depreciation under Section 116(4)(b)(iii). It certifies achievement and maintenance of the prescribed production level in acquired industrial undertakings, requires electronic filing with the return of income, and may cover multiple amalgamating companies. The production condition is 50% of installed capacity within four years of amalgamation and maintenance up to five years, with possible governmental relaxation in suitable cases.
March 26, 2026
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Slump sale reporting requires accountant certification of net worth and capital gains through online Form 28 filing.
Accountant's report in Form No. 28 (Form No. 3CEA) is required for an assessee undertaking a slump sale to certify the computation of net worth and capital gains under the Income Tax Act, 2025. The form applies where an undertaking or division is transferred as a going concern for a lump-sum consideration without assigning individual values to assets and liabilities. It must be furnished online on the income tax e-filing portal on or before the due date for filing the assessee's income tax return.
March 26, 2026
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Slump sale reporting under income tax law requires mandatory accountant certification, online filing, and timely submission through Form 28.
Form No. 28 is the accountant's report required under section 77(4) of the Income-tax Act, 2025 for computation of capital gains in a slump sale. It applies where an undertaking or division is transferred as a going concern for lump-sum consideration without assigning separate values to assets and liabilities, and it is mandatory for certifying net worth and capital gains. The form must be filed once in a year on or before the due date for the income-tax return, only online, and cannot be edited after submission. A valid PAN is required.
March 26, 2026
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Capital gains attribution framework for specified entities filing Form 27 with valuation support and electronic certification.
Form 27 is filed by every specified entity to furnish details of the amount attributed to capital assets remaining with the entity where a specified person receives capital asset or stock-in-trade on dissolution or reconstitution. It supports computation under Rule 50 and must be certified on the basis of a registered valuer's report. The form is filed electronically with the return of income and includes particulars of the amount taxable, its attribution to remaining assets, and the valuer's details.
March 26, 2026
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Form No. 27 reporting requirement governs valuation-based attribution of income on dissolution or reconstitution of a specified entity.
Form No. 27 is a mandatory income-tax reporting form prescribed under Rule 50 for a specified entity where income becomes taxable under section 67(10) on dissolution or reconstitution and a specified person receives capital asset, stock-in-trade, or both. It operationalises the attribution of such taxable income to the capital assets remaining with the specified entity and must be furnished for each tax year in which the relevant event occurs. The form requires electronic filing with the return of income and valuation-based attribution supported by a registered valuer's report.
March 26, 2026
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Tax audit Form No. 26 standardises disclosures, audit reporting, and filing requirements under the new income tax framework.
Prescribed Form No. 26 is the audit report and statement of particulars under section 63 of the Income-tax Act, 2025 read with rule 47 of the Income-tax Rules, 2026. Parts A and B contain the substantive disclosures for tax audit compliance, including books of account, method of accounting, income, expenses, losses, depreciation, deductions, international taxation, TDS/TCS, indirect taxation and quantitative details. Part C applies where accounts are audited under another law, while Part D applies where they are not. The form is required for specified business and professional thresholds and certain presumptive taxation cases, and is furnished through a structured online filing process.
March 26, 2026
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Mandatory audit reporting under Form No. 26 introduces clause-wise disclosures, UDIN compliance, and schedule-based tax audit filing.
Form No. 26 is the mandatory audit report and statement of particulars for persons carrying on business or profession whose accounts are required to be audited under section 63. It applies from tax years commencing on or after 1 April 2026, is due one month before the return filing deadline, and must be signed by an Accountant with UDIN, and FRN where applicable. The form uses Part B clause-wise Yes/No reporting with trigger-based schedules, and Parts C and D for audit reporting depending on whether accounts are audited under another law.
March 26, 2026
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Daily case register requirements for medical professionals under tax rules, including maintenance, exceptions, and non-filing status.
Form No. 25 prescribes a daily case register for medical professionals under Rule 46 of the Income-tax Rules, 2026. It records the patient's name, nature of service, fees charged, and date of receipt of fees. The form is mandatory for persons engaged in the medical profession, subject to the stated gross-receipts exceptions, and is maintained in addition to books of account. It is not furnished to the Department and has no due date.
March 26, 2026
Show AI Summary
Daily case register compliance for medical practitioners requires tabular records, electronic access safeguards, and preservation obligations.
Form No. 25 is the prescribed daily case register for practitioners of any system of medicine under Rule 46 of the Income-tax Rules, 2026, subject to the prescribed gross receipt threshold and the position of newly set-up medical practices. It records patient and fee particulars in tabular form, is not furnished to the Income-tax Department, but must be maintained daily, produced before the Assessing Officer when called for, may be kept electronically with India-based access and backups, and must be preserved for seven tax years or until completion of reassessment proceedings.
March 26, 2026
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Permanent establishment audit reporting for royalty and technical services income now uses a structured Chartered Accountant certification format.
Form No. 24 is a statutory audit report for non-residents and foreign companies earning royalty or fees for technical services from India through a permanent establishment or fixed place of profession in India. It requires a Chartered Accountant's certification of the correctness of income computation, verification of the PE or fixed place, maintenance of books of account, and deduction only of expenses attributable to the PE while computing income under section 59. The form is filed annually, contains structured particulars of the assessee, agreement, PE, books examined, and income computation, and is submitted through the e-filing portal with digital signature verification.

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PM Modi calls for unity among people to face global crises, tells parties to avoid divisive politics

March 28, 2026

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Noida, Mar 28 (PTI) Prime Minister Narendra Modi on Saturday urged citizens to work with dedication and unity to tackle global challenges and achieve 'Viksit Bharat', while cautioning political parties against making statements that could harm national interests amid the West Asia conflict.

The Prime Minister on Saturday inaugurated the Noida International Airport and in his address said it was essential for India's 1.4 billion people to work hard and face global crises collectively, while stressing that the government prioritises securing India's interests and safeguarding "families and farmers".

Modi, who laid the foundation stone for the greenfield airport in November 2021, emphasised that the government was focused on enhancing citizens' convenience by saving time and reducing costs.

Referring to the ongoing conflict in West Asia, he said he had discussed the situation in detail in Parliament and also held extensive and "very positive" deliberations with the chief ministers of various states.

"I once again appeal to the people of the country that we must face this crisis calmly, with patience and unity. This is a global crisis, but we must prioritise India's interests. That is our greatest strength," he said.

The Prime Minister urged political parties to refrain from making "irresponsible" statements during such times.

"Those who make remarks that harm the country may gain some points in political debates, but such actions will never be forgiven by the people," he said, recalling how voters rejected misinformation campaigns during the COVID-19 pandemic.

The remarks come against the backdrop of political controversies during the COVID-19 pandemic, when Samajwadi Party chief Akhilesh Yadav had publicly expressed reluctance to take a COVID-19 vaccine, triggering a political debate over vaccine hesitancy.

The controversy was a talking point in the run-up to the 2022 UP Assembly elections, in which the Samajwadi Party was defeated, and the BJP retained power.

Modi said that India is confronting the challenges arising from the ongoing conflict in West Asia with full strength.

Highlighting that India depends on crude oil and gas from conflict-affected regions, Modi said the government is taking necessary steps to ensure the burden does not fall on families and farmers.

Modi also inaugurated on Saturday the cargo terminal at the airport and laid the foundation stone for a Maintenance, Repair and Overhaul (MRO) facility to be developed over 40 acres.

"Today marks the beginning of a new chapter in the journey towards a Viksit UP and a Viksit Bharat," he said.

He said Jewar Airport would boost economic activity in the region. "Noida International Airport will create new opportunities for farmers, small traders and youngsters of western UP," he said.

Modi said UP is now among the states with the highest number of international airports and noted that the state which elected him as a Member of Parliament is now identified as a grand aviation hub.

"From here, flights will not only connect to different parts of the world, but will also symbolise the new flight of a Viksit UP. Jewar Airport will connect the entire North India with the world," he said, adding that "the airport is being developed as a state-of-the-art facility with the capacity to handle one aircraft movement every two minutes.

Modi was accompanied by Chief Minister Yogi Adityanath, Civil Aviation Minister Kinjarapu Ram Mohan Naidu and other dignitaries.

Hitting out at the main opposition party in the state, Modi said the Samajwadi Party had turned Noida into an "ATM for loot", but under BJP, it is now emerging as a powerful engine of development.

He added that Noida, once neglected by earlier governments, is now ready to welcome the world, reflecting the spirit of a self-reliant India.

Highlighting the government's aviation policy, Modi said, "We launched the UDAN scheme to ensure that air travel remains within the reach of ordinary families. In the past few years, more than 1.6 crore people have travelled at affordable fares under this scheme." UDAN scheme has recently been expanded with an approved outlay of around Rs 29,000 crore, with plans to develop new airports in smaller cities and build around 200 helipads in the coming years.

Modi said Jewar Airport would benefit a wide region covering Agra, Mathura, Aligarh, Ghaziabad, Meerut, Etawah, Bulandshahr and Faridabad.

Expressing pride, he said UP now ranks among the states with the highest number of international airports.

Modi said the Jewar area is emerging as a logistics hub with the convergence of dedicated freight corridors at Dadri, enabling faster movement of goods to ports in Bengal and Gujarat.

He recalled that the airport project was first approved in 2003 during the tenure of former PM Atal Bihari Vajpayee, adding that improved connectivity would enhance food processing and agricultural exports from western UP.

Modi expressed gratitude to sugarcane farmers, saying ethanol produced from their crop has helped reduce India's dependence on crude oil imports.

He said that without increased ethanol production and its blending with petrol, the country would have had to import an additional 4.5 crore barrels of crude oil annually.

He noted that the initiative has helped save about Rs 1.5 lakh crore in foreign exchange.

Modi said India's aviation sector is growing rapidly, leading to increased demand for aircraft. "These new aircraft and services will require a large workforce for operations, servicing and maintenance. This presents a huge opportunity for the youth," he said.

The PM highlighted the lack of adequate MRO facilities in India in the past, noting that nearly 85 per cent of aircraft had to go abroad for servicing.

"Our government has resolved to make India self-reliant in the MRO sector. Large-scale facilities are now being developed in the country, and an MRO facility has also been launched at Jewar," he said.

Modern transport systems like Metro and Vande Bharat trains are being expanded, Modi said, adding that the Delhi-Meerut Namo Bharat train has already benefited more than 2.5 crore passengers, reducing travel time from hours to minutes.

The Prime Minister said the government has made unprecedented investments in the sector over the past 11 years. "The infrastructure budget has increased more than six-fold. About Rs 17 lakh crore has been spent on highways and expressways, and over 1 lakh kilometres of highways have been constructed," he said.

The first phase of the airport, developed at an estimated cost of Rs 11,200 crore, is envisioned as a multi-modal transport hub.

The project includes a cargo hub with an initial handling capacity of over 2.5 lakh metric tonnes annually, expandable to around 18 lakh metric tonnes. The airport's initial passenger handling capacity will be 12 million passengers per annum, scalable up to 70 million.

Meanwhile, the airport's nodal officer Shailendra Bhatia told PTI that shortly after the event concluded, a state government aircraft made the first landing on the newly built runway, while Chief Minister Adityanath departed on the same aircraft, marking the first takeoff after inauguration.

Officials said regular commercial flight operations are yet to be announced and are expected to begin after the airport security plan receives approval, likely next month. The airport was initially scheduled to commence passenger services from September 2024. PTI CDN KIS DRR MR

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