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    Sales Tax Assistant Commissioner arrested for demanding bribe of Rs 8 lakh
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    BRICS grouping discussing linking CBDCs, fast payment systems: RBI Guv Malhotra
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August 11, 2026
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GST inquiry closure bribery allegations prompted anti-corruption proceedings against a Sales Tax officer under corruption law.
Alleged bribery in GST inquiry closure led to the arrest of a Sales Tax Assistant Commissioner after a scrap trader complained of a demand for illegal gratification to close an inquiry initiated through a GST show-cause notice. Anti-corruption officials reportedly verified the allegation through intermediaries, during which the officer allegedly agreed to accept payment for closing the matter. A criminal case was registered under the Prevention of Corruption Act, with further investigation ongoing.
August 11, 2026
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Direct tax collection growth reflected stronger non-corporate taxes and securities transaction tax receipts alongside slower refund issuances.
Net direct tax collections increased by 23 per cent to over Rs 8.11 lakh crore through August 10, driven by higher non-corporate tax collections and slower refund growth. Gross direct tax collections grew by 19.75 per cent to about Rs 9.55 lakh crore. Net corporate tax collections rose about 20 per cent, net non-corporate tax collections rose 23 per cent, and Securities Transaction Tax collections increased 51 per cent. Refund issuances grew by 3.8 per cent year-on-year.
August 11, 2026
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Vicarious liability in cheque dishonour cases cannot attach to trust associates without statutory status or transaction-specific involvement.
Vicarious criminal liability for cheque dishonour under section 141 of the Negotiable Instruments Act does not extend to a trust, because a trust is not a juristic person. A person cannot be summoned merely for alleged active involvement in a trust where the person was neither drawer nor signatory of the cheques, trustee, office-bearer, authorised account operator, guarantor, or executor of transaction documents.
August 11, 2026
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Cross-border payment integration through CBDCs and fast payment systems remains under BRICS discussion to reduce transfer costs.
Cross-border payment integration is under discussion through potential linkages between central bank digital currencies and fast payment systems, including UPI-type platforms. These approaches seek faster and less costly trade and remittance transfers, particularly retail payments, but remain at a discussion stage. Rupee internationalisation is also being pursued through central-bank memorandums of understanding for bilateral trade settlement in local currencies, with existing arrangements covering Indonesia, Maldives, Mauritius and the UAE.
August 11, 2026
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Integrated infrastructure planning under PM GatiShakti coordinates project evaluation, multimodal connectivity, geospatial data use, and decentralized implementation.
PM GatiShakti National Master Plan provides an integrated, data-driven infrastructure planning framework using geospatial data, satellite imagery and API integration. Project approval, implementation and funding remain with the respective Central Ministries, Departments and States or Union Territories under their own plans and budgetary provisions; the framework sets no separate budgetary allocation or quantified targets. The Network Planning Group evaluates critical Central Government projects at the planning stage for multimodality, synchronisation, last-mile connectivity, comprehensive local development and coordinated decision-making.
August 11, 2026
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MSME procurement through GeM has expanded alongside analytics-driven controls against suspicious bidding, collusion, and vendor misconduct.
GeM uses AI/ML analytics to detect order splitting, suspicious bidding, abnormal pricing, repeated participation and potential buyer-seller collusion. Flagged cases are placed before buyer organisations for review and action, while suspected cartels are assessed through digital-footprint, pricing and bid-timing indicators. Its Incident Management framework addresses false documents, fraud, collusive behaviour and other misconduct through administrative measures, including suspension. Anti-competitive conduct and cartel formation are Severe/Grave deviations, with proven cases attracting suspension for up to 365 days.
August 11, 2026
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Direct tax collections show stronger corporate, non-corporate and securities transaction tax receipts, alongside increased refunds during the fiscal period.
Net direct tax collections grew by 23.09 per cent to over Rs 8.11 lakh crore up to August 10 of the current fiscal year, while gross direct tax collections increased by 19.75 per cent to about Rs 9.55 lakh crore. Corporate tax, non-corporate tax including personal income tax, and Securities Transaction Tax receipts recorded growth. Refunds issued between April 1 and August 10 also rose over the corresponding earlier period. Direct tax collections are budgeted at Rs 26.97 lakh crore for the fiscal year.
August 11, 2026
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Mobile food testing laboratory accreditation expands quality-assured testing access and supports coordinated food-safety surveillance and regulatory efficiency.
NABL has launched an Accreditation Scheme for Mobile Food Testing Laboratories under the Integrated Assessment Programme. The framework enables mobile laboratories to provide reliable, quality-assured and internationally benchmarked food-testing services closer to communities, extending accredited testing beyond conventional laboratory settings. It is intended to strengthen food-safety surveillance, improve access to quality testing, support faster regulatory intervention and enhance consumer confidence. Coordinated assessments, regulatory harmonisation and mutual recognition are also intended to reduce duplication and improve regulatory efficiency while maintaining quality and compliance standards.
August 11, 2026
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Digital public procurement will expand AI-led price intelligence, marketplace integrity, inclusive access, credit linkages and sustainable purchasing.
Government e-Marketplace is advancing an AI-enabled public procurement ecosystem focused on efficiency, transparency, competition, price intelligence and marketplace integrity. Priorities include last-mile access through Suvidha Kendras, integration of public entities, credit linkages, sustainable procurement and university outreach. A nationwide five-digit Helpdesk short code, 14550, mapped to existing infrastructure, is intended to maintain service continuity and improve access to support and official communications. The platform seeks to provide enterprises with a more accessible and predictable procurement market and buyers with a data-driven procurement experience.
August 11, 2026
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Expedited flood insurance claims require insurers and partners to simplify documentation and provide immediate service to affected policyholders.
Expedited insurance-claim handling for flood-affected policyholders in Assam is being pursued through simplified documentation, prompt settlement and immediate service response. PolicyBazaar is coordinating with insurer partners to reduce processing delays. The Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India has directed insurers, including life insurers and standalone health insurers, to mobilise resources for immediate assistance, alongside governmental efforts for expeditious and hassle-free claim disposal.
August 11, 2026
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Money laundering investigation in alleged liquor scam leads to arrest and proposed custodial-remand proceedings under anti-money-laundering law.
Money laundering investigation concerning an alleged liquor scam in Chhattisgarh led to the arrest of Congress leader Ramgopal Agrawal under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act. Custodial remand is to be sought for interrogation. The allegations concern an alleged syndicate that purportedly controlled the state excise department, enabled illegal liquor sales and distributed resulting commissions. Chargesheets name political figures, excise officials and officials associated with the Chief Minister's Office.
August 11, 2026
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Money-laundering investigation into an alleged liquor scam leads to arrest and proposed custodial interrogation under the prevention law.
Money-laundering investigation under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act concerns an alleged liquor scam in Chhattisgarh. A former state political party treasurer has been arrested for alleged involvement and is to be produced before a local court for a request for custodial interrogation. The alleged scheme is stated to have involved control of the state excise department by a criminal syndicate, with multiple accused named in six chargesheets.
August 11, 2026
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Immediate FIR registration for every missing person is mandatory, with missing children treated as suspected kidnapping or abduction cases.
Immediate FIR registration is required whenever information is received that any person is missing, irrespective of age or gender, without preliminary inquiry. Missing-person FIRs must include relevant provisions concerning kidnapping and trafficking. A missing child must be treated from the outset as a suspected case of kidnapping or abduction. States and Union Territories may face contempt action for non-compliance. Traced children should ordinarily be restored to their families within 24 hours unless trafficking or exploitation by the family is suspected.
August 11, 2026
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Money-laundering investigation targets alleged chit-fund collections, investor-fund diversion, concealed deposits, and irregular land transactions.
Money-laundering investigation into an alleged multi-state chit-fund scheme involved searches at premises linked to Wellfare Buildings and Estates Pvt Ltd and its directors, seizure of cash, vehicles, property-related records and digital devices, and freezing of bank accounts. The alleged scheme concerns unauthorised public-fund collection through land-allotment schemes, followed by closure of operations. Allegations include diversion of investor funds, manipulation of financial statements to conceal deposits, and irregular land transactions intended to suppress actual consideration and evade statutory obligations.
August 11, 2026
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Rupee exchange-rate pressure intensified as crude oil, regional uncertainty and weaker equities constrained the local currency in early trade.
Foreign-exchange market conditions placed the rupee under pressure against the US dollar amid West Asia uncertainty, higher crude oil prices, and weaker domestic equity markets. Foreign institutional investor inflows and Reserve Bank of India intervention supported the rupee and limited further depreciation. Reported dollar sales through state-run banks helped contain downside pressure despite rising Brent crude prices and uncertainty concerning the Strait of Hormuz.
August 10, 2026
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GST refund facilitation expands provisional input tax credit refunds and removes the minimum threshold for export-related IGST refunds.
Punjab's GST amendments facilitate voluntary compliance and reduce procedural burdens by allowing a 90 per cent provisional input tax credit refund in inverted duty structure cases and removing the minimum threshold for IGST refunds on exported goods. Additional measures cap annual fee increases by private unaided educational institutions, establish digital open universities for technology-enabled higher education, protect trees and green cover, and address common infrastructure, panchayati raj, and contractual engagement of outsourced State personnel.
August 10, 2026
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Video-conference statements for an approver application were declined, requiring the accused's statement to be recorded before consideration.
Special CBI Court rejected an accused's request to record her statement through video conferencing in a bank-fraud prosecution. The accused had sought to become an approver, and her statement was required to be recorded before consideration of that application. She and her husband had previously become approvers in a related money-laundering matter involving alleged fraudulent Letters of Undertaking.
August 10, 2026
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Fuel price transparency highlights allegations over excise duty, consumer retail costs, and profit disclosures by state-run oil marketing companies.
Fuel pricing, central excise duty and profits of state-run oil marketing companies are examined through allegations that retail fuel prices and tax policy imposed excessive costs on consumers while generating substantial company profits. The criticism contrasts high crude-price periods with lower retail prices and lower excise duty against a later period in which reduced crude prices were allegedly not passed through to consumers. Profit-margin disclosure is also raised as a transparency issue, with parliamentary information described as covering oil prices, global crude prices and company profits.
August 10, 2026
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Discharge in money-laundering proceedings turns on whether pre-charge material sufficiently establishes the alleged offence.
Discharge in a money-laundering prosecution was sought before a special PMLA court concerning alleged siphoning and laundering of loans advanced to Jet Airways by Canara Bank. The prosecution was directed to respond, subject to the applicant not seeking adjournment. Discharge is available after filing of a chargesheet and before framing of charges where the material before the court is insufficient to establish the alleged offence. The proceedings arise from a CBI FIR concerning alleged bank fraud involving Jet Airways and associated persons.
August 10, 2026
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High-speed rail indigenisation and infrastructure performance monitoring require skills development, comparative planning, measurable station assessments and freight-terminal dashboards.
Parliamentary oversight calls for accelerated indigenisation of high-speed rail components, capacity-building through international expertise, and comparative study of successful high-speed rail systems for future corridors. Redeveloped stations should be assessed through measurable indicators concerning passenger use, accessibility, cleanliness, commercial occupancy, maintenance and feedback, with completed-project practices documented and shared. Operational cargo terminals and cargo-related facilities should be monitored through a digital dashboard covering utilisation, rake performance, mechanisation, connectivity, safety compliance and customer satisfaction.

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Form 69 - Frequently Asked Questions

March 28, 2026

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Form 69 - Frequently Asked Questions

Form for filing statement of income of a Specified fund eligible for concessional taxation under section 210(2) of the Income-tax Act’ 2025

Name of form as per I.T. Rules, 1962

Form 10-IH

Name of form as per I.T. Rules, 2026

69

Corresponding section of I.T. Act, 1961

Section 115AD (1A)

Corresponding section of I.T. Act, 2025

section 210(2)

Corresponding Rule of I.T. Rules, 1962

Rule 21AJ

Corresponding Rule of I.T. Rules, 2026

140

1: What is Form 69 ?

Ans: Form 69 is the prescribed form for filing statement of income of a specified fund which is eligible for taxation at concessional rates under section 210(2) of the Income-tax Act’ 2025 (“ITA 2025”). Income of a specified fund (i.e. a fund certified as Category III Alternate Investment Fund, Retail fund or Exchange Traded Fund) which is attributable to units held by non-resident (not being a permanent establishment of a non-resident in India), as calculated in the manner prescribed in the Rue 140, is eligible for taxation at concessional rates, under these provisions. However, to claim the benefit of concessional taxation, the specified fund is required to fine an annual statement of such income in this Form.

2: Who should file Form 69?

Ans: The specified fund is required to file this form to claim the benefit of concessional taxation in respect of income which is attributable to units held by a non-resident (not being the permanent establishment of such non-resident in India), under section 210(2) of the ITA 2025.

3. Who is required to verify the Form 69?

Ans. The Principal Officer/Managing Trustee of the specified fund, seeking to claim the benefit of concessional taxation under the aforesaid provisions, is required to verify the correctness of information provided in the Form, as also that provided in its Annexures. He is further required to affirm that the eligibility conditions for claiming such benefit, as stipulated in Schedule VI [Note 1(g)(i)] of the ITA 2025 are satisfied by the specified fund.

4: Where and how the Form 69 is required to be filed?

Ans: The Form 69 shall be filed electronically on the e-filing portal of Income-tax Department. The form shall be duly verified, either under digital signature or through electronic verification code, by the Principal Officer/Managing Trustee of the specified fund.

5: What is the time limit for filing Form 69?

Ans: The statement of income of specified fund, which is eligible for the benefit of taxation at concessional rates under section 210(2) of ITA 2025, is required to be filed in Form 69 electronically on or before such “due date” for filing return of income prescribed under section 263(1)(c) of the ITA’ 2025, as may apply for the specified fund claiming the tax rate benefit. This time limit is specified in the relevant rule.

6: What documents are required to file Form 69?

Ans: The following documents may be required while filing Form 69, -

A copy of Trust deed, or Memorandum of Association, or any other legal instrument evidencing the formation of the fund

Certificate of registration issued by the IFSC

Annual financial statements of the fund for the relevant tax year

Statement of securities (held during the year and transactions executed) issued by the Broker/Custodian

Details of Unit Holders with number of units held by them and their classification by residency status i.e. resident or non-resident

7. Is Form 69 mandatory?

Ans: Filing of a valid Form 69 within the specified time limit, is a mandatory condition for making an admissible claim of taxation at concessional rates by a specified fund, in respect of income which is attributable to units held by a non-resident (not being the permanent establishment of such non-resident in India), under section 210(2) of the ITA 2025.

8: Can I edit Form 69 after submission?

Ans: No. Once Form 69 is validly submitted, after verification by the Principal Officer/Managing Trustee of the specified fund, and acknowledgment is generated, it cannot be edited. Please ensure that all details are correct before final submission.

9: Do I need to attach any document with the Form 69?

Ans: The following documents are mandatory to be attached, as required in Part B of the Form 69, in the detailed format as given in the Form-

Annexure 1- Details of income from securities as referred to in section 210(1) [Table Sl. No. 1]

Annexure 2- Detail of capital gains arising on transfer of securities as referred to in section 210(1) [Table Sl. No. 2 to 5]

Copy of registration certificate of the fund

10: While filling Part A and Part B, can I leave any field blank?

Ans:

PAN of the Specified Fund is mandatory. Name and complete address thereof shall be prefilled, which can be updated by the user. Status is pre-filled.

An updated Email address and Mobile number would ensure faster communication and verification; therefore it is recommended to provide it.

Details of registration of the specified fund are mandatory fields.

Details of income eligible for concessional taxation in Part B are to be taken as per the relevant columns of Annexures 1 and 2.

11: What if the specified fund does not have a PAN?

Ans: Form 10-IH cannot be submitted without a valid PAN of the specified fund, as also a valid PAN of the Principal Officer/Managing Trustee verifying the Form.

12: Can Form 69 be filed offline?

Ans: No. Form 69 can only be submitted online through the Income Tax e-Filing portal.

13: Why is Form 69 important?

Ans: Filing of a valid statement of exempt income in Form 69 within the specified time limit is a mandatory compliance for claiming the benefit of taxation at concessional rates by the specified fund, in respect of income which is attributable to units held by a non-resident (not being the permanent establishment of such non-resident in India), under section 210(2) of the ITA 2025. However, the claim is further subject to fulfillment of various other eligibility conditions, as prescribed in the statute and relevant rules.   

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