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    Form No. 27 – Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs)
    Guidance Note - Form 26
    Form No. 26 – Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs)
    Guidance Note - Form 25
    Form No. 25 – Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs)
    Guidance Note - Form 24
    CCI approves proposed acquisition of additional shareholding of Valuedrive Technologies Pvt Ltd by Setu AIF Trust, Konark Trust, and MMPL Trust
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    CCI approves acquisition of shareholding of Groww Asset Management by State Street Global Advisors, Inc.
    CCI approves merger of Chess Merger Sub, wholly owned subsidiary of Coursera Inc., with and into Udemy Inc.
    CCI approves subscription of certain equity share capital of Aditya Birla Renewables (ABReN/Target) by GIP EM Star Ltd.
    Govt asks RBI to maintain retail inflation at 4 pc till Mar 2031
    Oppn slams insolvency law over delays; BJP hits back, calls it 'Licence Raj' mindset
    Himachal cuts power tariff by one paisa per unit for all consumers
    Mahadev app: ED attaches Rs 1,700 cr worth assets including in Dubai's Burj Khalifa
    IBC led to recovery of over Rs 4 lakh cr from insolvent firms in last 10 years: Anurag Thakur
    Haryana electricity commission keeps power tariff unchanged for next financial year
    Form No. 24 – Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs)
    Guidance Note - Form 23
    FORM 23 — Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs)
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March 26, 2026
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Form No. 27 reporting requirement governs valuation-based attribution of income on dissolution or reconstitution of a specified entity.
Form No. 27 is a mandatory income-tax reporting form prescribed under Rule 50 for a specified entity where income becomes taxable under section 67(10) on dissolution or reconstitution and a specified person receives capital asset, stock-in-trade, or both. It operationalises the attribution of such taxable income to the capital assets remaining with the specified entity and must be furnished for each tax year in which the relevant event occurs. The form requires electronic filing with the return of income and valuation-based attribution supported by a registered valuer's report.
March 26, 2026
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Tax audit Form No. 26 standardises disclosures, audit reporting, and filing requirements under the new income tax framework.
Prescribed Form No. 26 is the audit report and statement of particulars under section 63 of the Income-tax Act, 2025 read with rule 47 of the Income-tax Rules, 2026. Parts A and B contain the substantive disclosures for tax audit compliance, including books of account, method of accounting, income, expenses, losses, depreciation, deductions, international taxation, TDS/TCS, indirect taxation and quantitative details. Part C applies where accounts are audited under another law, while Part D applies where they are not. The form is required for specified business and professional thresholds and certain presumptive taxation cases, and is furnished through a structured online filing process.
March 26, 2026
Show AI Summary
Mandatory audit reporting under Form No. 26 introduces clause-wise disclosures, UDIN compliance, and schedule-based tax audit filing.
Form No. 26 is the mandatory audit report and statement of particulars for persons carrying on business or profession whose accounts are required to be audited under section 63. It applies from tax years commencing on or after 1 April 2026, is due one month before the return filing deadline, and must be signed by an Accountant with UDIN, and FRN where applicable. The form uses Part B clause-wise Yes/No reporting with trigger-based schedules, and Parts C and D for audit reporting depending on whether accounts are audited under another law.
March 26, 2026
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Daily case register requirements for medical professionals under tax rules, including maintenance, exceptions, and non-filing status.
Form No. 25 prescribes a daily case register for medical professionals under Rule 46 of the Income-tax Rules, 2026. It records the patient's name, nature of service, fees charged, and date of receipt of fees. The form is mandatory for persons engaged in the medical profession, subject to the stated gross-receipts exceptions, and is maintained in addition to books of account. It is not furnished to the Department and has no due date.
March 26, 2026
Show AI Summary
Daily case register compliance for medical practitioners requires tabular records, electronic access safeguards, and preservation obligations.
Form No. 25 is the prescribed daily case register for practitioners of any system of medicine under Rule 46 of the Income-tax Rules, 2026, subject to the prescribed gross receipt threshold and the position of newly set-up medical practices. It records patient and fee particulars in tabular form, is not furnished to the Income-tax Department, but must be maintained daily, produced before the Assessing Officer when called for, may be kept electronically with India-based access and backups, and must be preserved for seven tax years or until completion of reassessment proceedings.
March 26, 2026
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Permanent establishment audit reporting for royalty and technical services income now uses a structured Chartered Accountant certification format.
Form No. 24 is a statutory audit report for non-residents and foreign companies earning royalty or fees for technical services from India through a permanent establishment or fixed place of profession in India. It requires a Chartered Accountant's certification of the correctness of income computation, verification of the PE or fixed place, maintenance of books of account, and deduction only of expenses attributable to the PE while computing income under section 59. The form is filed annually, contains structured particulars of the assessee, agreement, PE, books examined, and income computation, and is submitted through the e-filing portal with digital signature verification.
March 26, 2026
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Competition approval for additional shareholding acquisition in Valuedrive Technologies through an alternative investment and trust co-investment structure.
The Competition Commission of India approved the proposed acquisition of additional shareholding in Valuedrive Technologies Private Limited by Setu AIF Trust, Konark Trust and MMPL Trust. The transaction concerns acquisition of shares on a fully diluted basis through an alternative investment fund and private trust co-investment structure. Valuedrive Technologies Private Limited operates as an operating-cum-holding company for the Spinny Group and carries on an electronic platform business for used motor vehicles, together with related subsidiary activities.
March 26, 2026
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Competition law approval for acquisition of shares in a listed NBFC by a Japan-based banking institution.
Competition Commission of India approval was granted for the acquisition of certain shares in Shriram Finance Limited by MUFG Bank Ltd. The acquirer is a Japan-based banking institution wholly owned and controlled by Mitsubishi UFJ Financial Group, Inc., and carries on banking-related activities in India including corporate banking loans, deposit accounts, remittances, trade finance, bank guarantees and hedging. The target is a listed non-banking financial company registered with the Reserve Bank of India, classified as an Investment and Credit Company and an NBFC-Upper Layer, engaged in financing commercial goods and passenger vehicles, construction equipment, farm equipment, MSMEs, two-wheelers, gold and personal loans.
March 26, 2026
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Competition approval for acquisition of Groww Asset Management shareholding by State Street Global Advisors
Competition approval was granted for the proposed acquisition of shareholding in Groww Asset Management Limited by State Street Global Advisors, Inc. The target manages schemes of Groww Mutual Fund, including equity, hybrid, debt and exchange traded fund schemes. State Street operates under the State Street Investment Management brand as the asset management arm of State Street Corporation. The detailed order of the Commission would follow.
March 26, 2026
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Competition combination approval for Coursera and Udemy merger, creating sole control over Udemy through a subsidiary merger.
Competition Commission of India approved a proposed combination involving the merger of Chess Merger Sub, a wholly owned subsidiary of Coursera Inc., with and into Udemy Inc., with Udemy surviving as a wholly owned subsidiary of Coursera. The transaction results in Coursera acquiring sole control over Udemy, and the combined company is expected to have post-closing shareholding in which existing Coursera stockholders hold approximately 59% and existing Udemy stockholders approximately 41% on a fully diluted basis.
March 26, 2026
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Competition approval for renewable energy investment in Aditya Birla Renewables through equity subscription by GIP EM Star.
Competition Commission of India approved the subscription of certain equity share capital of Aditya Birla Renewables Limited by GIP EM Star Pte. Ltd. The acquirer is incorporated in Singapore and is ultimately linked to Global Infrastructure Management, LLC and BlackRock, Inc. The target, headquartered in Mumbai, is engaged in renewable energy power generation, including solar and wind power.
March 25, 2026
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Inflation targeting framework retained with a 4 per cent objective and a 2 per cent tolerance band for the next cycle.
The central government, in consultation with the Reserve Bank, has notified the inflation target for 1 April 2026 to 31 March 2031 at 4 per cent, with an upper tolerance level of 6 per cent and a lower tolerance level of 2 per cent. The framework continues to place the Monetary Policy Committee in charge of setting the policy rate needed to achieve the inflation objective within the prescribed band.
March 25, 2026
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Insolvency resolution delays under the bankruptcy code draw debate over tribunal capacity, creditor recoveries, and reform priorities.
Delay in insolvency resolution under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code remained the central issue in parliamentary discussion on the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (Amendment) Bill, 2025. Members referred to tribunal capacity constraints, overburdened case loads, delayed liquidation and resolution timelines, value deterioration, and low realisations to creditors as continuing problems in the insolvency ecosystem. The select committee report was noted as seeking to address these structural concerns through amendments aimed at improving the functioning of the insolvency and bankruptcy framework.
March 25, 2026
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Electricity tariff reduction cuts power charges by one paisa per unit across all consumer categories for FY27.
Electricity tariff for all consumer categories in Himachal Pradesh has been reduced by one paisa per unit for FY27, effective from 1 April 2026. The tariff order fixes the average cost of supply at Rs 6.75 per unit after truing up, resulting in a corresponding reduction in energy charges across consumer classes. The revised schedule sets category-wise tariffs for domestic, commercial, industrial, agricultural, railway, EV charging, irrigation, bulk supply, and street lighting consumers, while domestic subsidy is left to the state government decision and compensation mechanism.
March 25, 2026
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Money laundering attachment over Mahadev betting assets targets alleged proceeds of crime and overseas luxury properties.
Provisional attachment under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act was issued against immovable assets linked to the Mahadev Online Book betting operation, including luxury properties in Dubai, apartments in Burj Khalifa and two properties in Delhi. The attached assets were alleged to represent proceeds of crime generated from illegal online betting activities controlled through entities associated with the main promoter of the platform.
March 25, 2026
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Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code reform focuses on faster resolution, out-of-court settlements, and cross-border insolvency provisions.
The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code is described as a revival and resolution framework that has generated substantial recoveries through resolution of bankrupt companies and improved creditor-debtor discipline. The proposed amendment bill seeks to reduce the time taken for admission of insolvency resolution applications, speed up case clearance, support out-of-court resolution, and address cross-border insolvency and discretionary provisions.
March 25, 2026
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Power tariff unchanged as the commission prioritizes revenue neutrality, loss reduction, and efficiency in electricity distribution.
The Haryana Electricity Regulatory Commission kept power tariff unchanged for the 2026-27 financial year and treated the Annual Revenue Requirement of the distribution licensees as revenue-neutral despite a projected revenue gap. The order linked the decision to improved efficiency in revenue collection, receivables management, power procurement and loss reduction, while also fixing distribution loss levels and directing feeder-level monitoring to curb losses.
March 25, 2026
Show AI Summary
Permanent Establishment audit reporting governs royalty and technical fees income for non-residents under the prescribed form.
Form No. 24 is a prescribed audit report for non-residents, foreign companies, and other non-resident entities deriving royalty or fees for technical services from India through a Permanent Establishment or fixed place of profession in India. It is certified by an Accountant and is mandatory where such income is effectively connected with the Indian Permanent Establishment or fixed place of profession. The form requires books of account, supporting documents, annexures, and electronic certification details, and is furnished annually before the return due date. Furnishing and acceptance of the form support assessment on a net income basis.
March 25, 2026
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Skill Development Project notification under income tax law links approval, audit compliance, and renewal conditions for eligible companies.
Form 23 is the CBDT notification form for an approved Skill Development Project under Section 47(1)(b) of the Income-tax Act, 2025 read with Rules 39 and 40. It is issued after Form 22 is examined and recommended by NCVET, and it specifies the approved Tax Year(s), project particulars, conditions, and validity for up to three Tax Years. The framework requires separate books, audit, prescribed reporting, compliance with notification conditions, and permits renewal or revocation depending on project performance and statutory compliance.
March 25, 2026
Show AI Summary
Skill development project notification governs approval, tax-year limits, conditions, and compliance for income-tax benefits.
Form 23 is the income-tax notification form for an approved skill development project under Section 47(1)(b) of the Income-tax Act, 2025, issued after approval under Rule 39. It notifies the project in the Official Gazette, specifies the approved tax years, and sets the terms, duration, and expenditure limits. The notification is issued by the Central Board of Direct Taxes on recommendation of NCVET, and contains the company's particulars, project details, training institute details, approved tax years, estimated expenditure, and attached conditions.

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Form 69 - Frequently Asked Questions

March 28, 2026

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Form 69 - Frequently Asked Questions

Form for filing statement of income of a Specified fund eligible for concessional taxation under section 210(2) of the Income-tax Act’ 2025

Name of form as per I.T. Rules, 1962

Form 10-IH

Name of form as per I.T. Rules, 2026

69

Corresponding section of I.T. Act, 1961

Section 115AD (1A)

Corresponding section of I.T. Act, 2025

section 210(2)

Corresponding Rule of I.T. Rules, 1962

Rule 21AJ

Corresponding Rule of I.T. Rules, 2026

140

1: What is Form 69 ?

Ans: Form 69 is the prescribed form for filing statement of income of a specified fund which is eligible for taxation at concessional rates under section 210(2) of the Income-tax Act’ 2025 (“ITA 2025”). Income of a specified fund (i.e. a fund certified as Category III Alternate Investment Fund, Retail fund or Exchange Traded Fund) which is attributable to units held by non-resident (not being a permanent establishment of a non-resident in India), as calculated in the manner prescribed in the Rue 140, is eligible for taxation at concessional rates, under these provisions. However, to claim the benefit of concessional taxation, the specified fund is required to fine an annual statement of such income in this Form.

2: Who should file Form 69?

Ans: The specified fund is required to file this form to claim the benefit of concessional taxation in respect of income which is attributable to units held by a non-resident (not being the permanent establishment of such non-resident in India), under section 210(2) of the ITA 2025.

3. Who is required to verify the Form 69?

Ans. The Principal Officer/Managing Trustee of the specified fund, seeking to claim the benefit of concessional taxation under the aforesaid provisions, is required to verify the correctness of information provided in the Form, as also that provided in its Annexures. He is further required to affirm that the eligibility conditions for claiming such benefit, as stipulated in Schedule VI [Note 1(g)(i)] of the ITA 2025 are satisfied by the specified fund.

4: Where and how the Form 69 is required to be filed?

Ans: The Form 69 shall be filed electronically on the e-filing portal of Income-tax Department. The form shall be duly verified, either under digital signature or through electronic verification code, by the Principal Officer/Managing Trustee of the specified fund.

5: What is the time limit for filing Form 69?

Ans: The statement of income of specified fund, which is eligible for the benefit of taxation at concessional rates under section 210(2) of ITA 2025, is required to be filed in Form 69 electronically on or before such “due date” for filing return of income prescribed under section 263(1)(c) of the ITA’ 2025, as may apply for the specified fund claiming the tax rate benefit. This time limit is specified in the relevant rule.

6: What documents are required to file Form 69?

Ans: The following documents may be required while filing Form 69, -

A copy of Trust deed, or Memorandum of Association, or any other legal instrument evidencing the formation of the fund

Certificate of registration issued by the IFSC

Annual financial statements of the fund for the relevant tax year

Statement of securities (held during the year and transactions executed) issued by the Broker/Custodian

Details of Unit Holders with number of units held by them and their classification by residency status i.e. resident or non-resident

7. Is Form 69 mandatory?

Ans: Filing of a valid Form 69 within the specified time limit, is a mandatory condition for making an admissible claim of taxation at concessional rates by a specified fund, in respect of income which is attributable to units held by a non-resident (not being the permanent establishment of such non-resident in India), under section 210(2) of the ITA 2025.

8: Can I edit Form 69 after submission?

Ans: No. Once Form 69 is validly submitted, after verification by the Principal Officer/Managing Trustee of the specified fund, and acknowledgment is generated, it cannot be edited. Please ensure that all details are correct before final submission.

9: Do I need to attach any document with the Form 69?

Ans: The following documents are mandatory to be attached, as required in Part B of the Form 69, in the detailed format as given in the Form-

Annexure 1- Details of income from securities as referred to in section 210(1) [Table Sl. No. 1]

Annexure 2- Detail of capital gains arising on transfer of securities as referred to in section 210(1) [Table Sl. No. 2 to 5]

Copy of registration certificate of the fund

10: While filling Part A and Part B, can I leave any field blank?

Ans:

PAN of the Specified Fund is mandatory. Name and complete address thereof shall be prefilled, which can be updated by the user. Status is pre-filled.

An updated Email address and Mobile number would ensure faster communication and verification; therefore it is recommended to provide it.

Details of registration of the specified fund are mandatory fields.

Details of income eligible for concessional taxation in Part B are to be taken as per the relevant columns of Annexures 1 and 2.

11: What if the specified fund does not have a PAN?

Ans: Form 10-IH cannot be submitted without a valid PAN of the specified fund, as also a valid PAN of the Principal Officer/Managing Trustee verifying the Form.

12: Can Form 69 be filed offline?

Ans: No. Form 69 can only be submitted online through the Income Tax e-Filing portal.

13: Why is Form 69 important?

Ans: Filing of a valid statement of exempt income in Form 69 within the specified time limit is a mandatory compliance for claiming the benefit of taxation at concessional rates by the specified fund, in respect of income which is attributable to units held by a non-resident (not being the permanent establishment of such non-resident in India), under section 210(2) of the ITA 2025. However, the claim is further subject to fulfillment of various other eligibility conditions, as prescribed in the statute and relevant rules.   

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