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March 26, 2026
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Tax audit Form No. 26 standardises disclosures, audit reporting, and filing requirements under the new income tax framework.
Prescribed Form No. 26 is the audit report and statement of particulars under section 63 of the Income-tax Act, 2025 read with rule 47 of the Income-tax Rules, 2026. Parts A and B contain the substantive disclosures for tax audit compliance, including books of account, method of accounting, income, expenses, losses, depreciation, deductions, international taxation, TDS/TCS, indirect taxation and quantitative details. Part C applies where accounts are audited under another law, while Part D applies where they are not. The form is required for specified business and professional thresholds and certain presumptive taxation cases, and is furnished through a structured online filing process.
March 26, 2026
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Mandatory audit reporting under Form No. 26 introduces clause-wise disclosures, UDIN compliance, and schedule-based tax audit filing.
Form No. 26 is the mandatory audit report and statement of particulars for persons carrying on business or profession whose accounts are required to be audited under section 63. It applies from tax years commencing on or after 1 April 2026, is due one month before the return filing deadline, and must be signed by an Accountant with UDIN, and FRN where applicable. The form uses Part B clause-wise Yes/No reporting with trigger-based schedules, and Parts C and D for audit reporting depending on whether accounts are audited under another law.
March 26, 2026
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Daily case register requirements for medical professionals under tax rules, including maintenance, exceptions, and non-filing status.
Form No. 25 prescribes a daily case register for medical professionals under Rule 46 of the Income-tax Rules, 2026. It records the patient's name, nature of service, fees charged, and date of receipt of fees. The form is mandatory for persons engaged in the medical profession, subject to the stated gross-receipts exceptions, and is maintained in addition to books of account. It is not furnished to the Department and has no due date.
March 26, 2026
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Daily case register compliance for medical practitioners requires tabular records, electronic access safeguards, and preservation obligations.
Form No. 25 is the prescribed daily case register for practitioners of any system of medicine under Rule 46 of the Income-tax Rules, 2026, subject to the prescribed gross receipt threshold and the position of newly set-up medical practices. It records patient and fee particulars in tabular form, is not furnished to the Income-tax Department, but must be maintained daily, produced before the Assessing Officer when called for, may be kept electronically with India-based access and backups, and must be preserved for seven tax years or until completion of reassessment proceedings.
March 26, 2026
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Permanent establishment audit reporting for royalty and technical services income now uses a structured Chartered Accountant certification format.
Form No. 24 is a statutory audit report for non-residents and foreign companies earning royalty or fees for technical services from India through a permanent establishment or fixed place of profession in India. It requires a Chartered Accountant's certification of the correctness of income computation, verification of the PE or fixed place, maintenance of books of account, and deduction only of expenses attributable to the PE while computing income under section 59. The form is filed annually, contains structured particulars of the assessee, agreement, PE, books examined, and income computation, and is submitted through the e-filing portal with digital signature verification.
March 26, 2026
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Competition approval for additional shareholding acquisition in Valuedrive Technologies through an alternative investment and trust co-investment structure.
The Competition Commission of India approved the proposed acquisition of additional shareholding in Valuedrive Technologies Private Limited by Setu AIF Trust, Konark Trust and MMPL Trust. The transaction concerns acquisition of shares on a fully diluted basis through an alternative investment fund and private trust co-investment structure. Valuedrive Technologies Private Limited operates as an operating-cum-holding company for the Spinny Group and carries on an electronic platform business for used motor vehicles, together with related subsidiary activities.
March 26, 2026
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Competition law approval for acquisition of shares in a listed NBFC by a Japan-based banking institution.
Competition Commission of India approval was granted for the acquisition of certain shares in Shriram Finance Limited by MUFG Bank Ltd. The acquirer is a Japan-based banking institution wholly owned and controlled by Mitsubishi UFJ Financial Group, Inc., and carries on banking-related activities in India including corporate banking loans, deposit accounts, remittances, trade finance, bank guarantees and hedging. The target is a listed non-banking financial company registered with the Reserve Bank of India, classified as an Investment and Credit Company and an NBFC-Upper Layer, engaged in financing commercial goods and passenger vehicles, construction equipment, farm equipment, MSMEs, two-wheelers, gold and personal loans.
March 26, 2026
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Competition approval for acquisition of Groww Asset Management shareholding by State Street Global Advisors
Competition approval was granted for the proposed acquisition of shareholding in Groww Asset Management Limited by State Street Global Advisors, Inc. The target manages schemes of Groww Mutual Fund, including equity, hybrid, debt and exchange traded fund schemes. State Street operates under the State Street Investment Management brand as the asset management arm of State Street Corporation. The detailed order of the Commission would follow.
March 26, 2026
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Competition combination approval for Coursera and Udemy merger, creating sole control over Udemy through a subsidiary merger.
Competition Commission of India approved a proposed combination involving the merger of Chess Merger Sub, a wholly owned subsidiary of Coursera Inc., with and into Udemy Inc., with Udemy surviving as a wholly owned subsidiary of Coursera. The transaction results in Coursera acquiring sole control over Udemy, and the combined company is expected to have post-closing shareholding in which existing Coursera stockholders hold approximately 59% and existing Udemy stockholders approximately 41% on a fully diluted basis.
March 26, 2026
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Competition approval for renewable energy investment in Aditya Birla Renewables through equity subscription by GIP EM Star.
Competition Commission of India approved the subscription of certain equity share capital of Aditya Birla Renewables Limited by GIP EM Star Pte. Ltd. The acquirer is incorporated in Singapore and is ultimately linked to Global Infrastructure Management, LLC and BlackRock, Inc. The target, headquartered in Mumbai, is engaged in renewable energy power generation, including solar and wind power.
March 25, 2026
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Inflation targeting framework retained with a 4 per cent objective and a 2 per cent tolerance band for the next cycle.
The central government, in consultation with the Reserve Bank, has notified the inflation target for 1 April 2026 to 31 March 2031 at 4 per cent, with an upper tolerance level of 6 per cent and a lower tolerance level of 2 per cent. The framework continues to place the Monetary Policy Committee in charge of setting the policy rate needed to achieve the inflation objective within the prescribed band.
March 25, 2026
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Insolvency resolution delays under the bankruptcy code draw debate over tribunal capacity, creditor recoveries, and reform priorities.
Delay in insolvency resolution under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code remained the central issue in parliamentary discussion on the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (Amendment) Bill, 2025. Members referred to tribunal capacity constraints, overburdened case loads, delayed liquidation and resolution timelines, value deterioration, and low realisations to creditors as continuing problems in the insolvency ecosystem. The select committee report was noted as seeking to address these structural concerns through amendments aimed at improving the functioning of the insolvency and bankruptcy framework.
March 25, 2026
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Electricity tariff reduction cuts power charges by one paisa per unit across all consumer categories for FY27.
Electricity tariff for all consumer categories in Himachal Pradesh has been reduced by one paisa per unit for FY27, effective from 1 April 2026. The tariff order fixes the average cost of supply at Rs 6.75 per unit after truing up, resulting in a corresponding reduction in energy charges across consumer classes. The revised schedule sets category-wise tariffs for domestic, commercial, industrial, agricultural, railway, EV charging, irrigation, bulk supply, and street lighting consumers, while domestic subsidy is left to the state government decision and compensation mechanism.
March 25, 2026
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Money laundering attachment over Mahadev betting assets targets alleged proceeds of crime and overseas luxury properties.
Provisional attachment under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act was issued against immovable assets linked to the Mahadev Online Book betting operation, including luxury properties in Dubai, apartments in Burj Khalifa and two properties in Delhi. The attached assets were alleged to represent proceeds of crime generated from illegal online betting activities controlled through entities associated with the main promoter of the platform.
March 25, 2026
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Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code reform focuses on faster resolution, out-of-court settlements, and cross-border insolvency provisions.
The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code is described as a revival and resolution framework that has generated substantial recoveries through resolution of bankrupt companies and improved creditor-debtor discipline. The proposed amendment bill seeks to reduce the time taken for admission of insolvency resolution applications, speed up case clearance, support out-of-court resolution, and address cross-border insolvency and discretionary provisions.
March 25, 2026
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Power tariff unchanged as the commission prioritizes revenue neutrality, loss reduction, and efficiency in electricity distribution.
The Haryana Electricity Regulatory Commission kept power tariff unchanged for the 2026-27 financial year and treated the Annual Revenue Requirement of the distribution licensees as revenue-neutral despite a projected revenue gap. The order linked the decision to improved efficiency in revenue collection, receivables management, power procurement and loss reduction, while also fixing distribution loss levels and directing feeder-level monitoring to curb losses.
March 25, 2026
Show AI Summary
Permanent Establishment audit reporting governs royalty and technical fees income for non-residents under the prescribed form.
Form No. 24 is a prescribed audit report for non-residents, foreign companies, and other non-resident entities deriving royalty or fees for technical services from India through a Permanent Establishment or fixed place of profession in India. It is certified by an Accountant and is mandatory where such income is effectively connected with the Indian Permanent Establishment or fixed place of profession. The form requires books of account, supporting documents, annexures, and electronic certification details, and is furnished annually before the return due date. Furnishing and acceptance of the form support assessment on a net income basis.
March 25, 2026
Show AI Summary
Skill Development Project notification under income tax law links approval, audit compliance, and renewal conditions for eligible companies.
Form 23 is the CBDT notification form for an approved Skill Development Project under Section 47(1)(b) of the Income-tax Act, 2025 read with Rules 39 and 40. It is issued after Form 22 is examined and recommended by NCVET, and it specifies the approved Tax Year(s), project particulars, conditions, and validity for up to three Tax Years. The framework requires separate books, audit, prescribed reporting, compliance with notification conditions, and permits renewal or revocation depending on project performance and statutory compliance.
March 25, 2026
Show AI Summary
Skill development project notification governs approval, tax-year limits, conditions, and compliance for income-tax benefits.
Form 23 is the income-tax notification form for an approved skill development project under Section 47(1)(b) of the Income-tax Act, 2025, issued after approval under Rule 39. It notifies the project in the Official Gazette, specifies the approved tax years, and sets the terms, duration, and expenditure limits. The notification is issued by the Central Board of Direct Taxes on recommendation of NCVET, and contains the company's particulars, project details, training institute details, approved tax years, estimated expenditure, and attached conditions.
March 25, 2026
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Skill Development Project approval under income tax rules requires Form 22 filing, structured disclosures, and electronic verification.
Form 22 is the prescribed Income-tax application by which an eligible company seeks approval of a Skill Development Project under Section 47(1)(b) of the Income-tax Act, 2025 read with Rule 39. The form is filed with the National Council for Vocational Education and Training for recommendation to the Central Board of Direct Taxes, and it must be submitted electronically using DSC or EVC before commencement of the project. It requires disclosure of company particulars, project particulars, training institute details, prior notifications or revocations, return of income data, penalties, outstanding tax demands, expenditure projections, and supporting annexures.

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Excise duty cut on petrol, diesel with eye on elections in four states: TMC member Saket Gokhale

March 27, 2026

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New Delhi, Mar 27 (PTI) The excise duty cut on petrol and diesel has been done with an eye on the upcoming assembly elections in four states and not because the government cared for consumers, TMC Rajya Sabha member Saket Gokhale.

Participating in a discussion on the Finance Bill 2026 in the Upper House, Gokhale demanded an assurance from Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman that fuel prices will not be increased after April 29, when voting is completed in four states -- Assam, West Bengal, Tamil Nadu, and Kerala.

After the excise cut was announced, he said ministers of the government have been saying "since morning how the Modi government is taking a hit at its own resources, to its own revenues, instead of increasing petrol and diesel prices".

"This is happening because four major states are going to elections. The only reason that this excise duty cut has been done today is because this government cannot, absolutely cannot, raise fuel prices when four major states are going into elections," Gokhale asserted.

If the government really cared for the welfare of people so much and did not want to burden them with high prices, he asked why the benefit of buying discounted crude from Russia in the last four years was not passed on to consumers.

"For the last four years the government was purchasing crude oil at extremely discounted prices, below USD 60 per barrel. We were purchasing discounted crude from Russia. In these four years, (out of) this benefit... not a single rupee was passed on to consumers at petrol and diesel pumps," Gokhale noted.

The TMC member asked if the finance minister will "give a commitment on the floor of this House that after April 29 when the voting is completed in all the four states, the government will promise that it will not increase the petrol and diesel prices at fuel pumps even by one rupee?" He further said, "That is the commitment that the finance minister should give today, that this excise duty is permanent. We are not going to raise prices after April 29." Gokhale alleged that "the government does not think about people, they only think about elections." Sanjay Seth of BJP, however, said the war in West Asia has spiked crude oil price and most countries in the world have hiked their domestic oil prices.

"But the government cut excise duty instead of passing the burden on common people... this shows how Prime Minister Narendra Modi is concerned about the common people," he asserted.

Taking part in the discussion, Shaktisinh Gohil of Congress said the Budget did not have anything for the poor and the middle class, while the benefits have only been provided to the rich and big corporate houses.

While flagging lack of steps to tackle high unemployment among the youth, he also lashed out at the government for removing import duty on items like soya bean and said the interest of Indian farmers has been compromised.

How will Indian farmers compete with those in the US who have large land parcels using modern machinery and are subsidised by the government there, Gohil asked.

He also questioned the rationale behind making zero import duty on critical minerals saying no foreign player will be willing to make large investments for exploration in the sector in India.

P Wilson of DMK in his remarks said the NDA government came to power promising 'Sabka Saath Sabka Vikas' but "what we have today (is) a regime 'Sabka Bojh Sirf Unka Vikas', which means burden on many and benefits for the chosen few." In the Budget, welfare expenditure has been slashed, gender budget has been cut and schemes that sustain the poor have been shortchanged, he added.

The members of the House also raised issues related to GST and defence budget allocation.

Ashok Kumar Mittal of AAP said on GST that while the government claimed ease of doing business has improved, the ground reality is different. It has become "ease of doing harassment and a mode of tax terrorism", he alleged.

"In 2024, 40,000 MSMEs and 10,000 startups were forced to shut," Mittal said, observing that first, the tax liability of a business is calculated, followed by raid on a shopkeeper and officials have the power of immediate arrest.

He also called for effective utilisation of public money, saying Rs 48,000 crore was allocated for Smart City Yojana but "we don't know of a single smart city".

He also alleged cost overruns and missed deadliness on the Ahmedabad-Mumbai bullet train project.

S Niranjan Reddy of YSRCP urged the government to "please do something out of the box for ensuring that the defence Budget and the defence allocation goes up".

He called for improvement in judicial infrastructure and justice delivery mechanism.

Pointing at several capacity constraints, Reddy highlighted the huge pendency of cases in various courts, saying the pendency is affecting justice delivery mechanism.

Suggesting a faster adoption away from oil and gas, he called for removal of GST on electric vehicles.

He also urged the government to consider increasing the speed of privatisation of PSUs.

Manas Ranjan Mangaraj of the BJD pointed to a "pattern of systematic neglect of Odisha", saying the state is not asking for charity but for its rightful share.

He also demanded fiscal incentives and a fair share of mineral royalties for the state, saying on Odisha tourism has immense untapped potential. PTI RKL RSN TRB

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