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    DIGITAL SIGNATURE CERTIFICATE (DSC) Registering & Signing in GST Portal
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May 20, 2026
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Digital signature certificate setup in GST portal requires Java, emSigner, token login, and certificate-based electronic signing.
Digital Signature Certificate use in the GST portal depends on system preparation, including a compatible Windows environment, Internet Explorer 11, Java installation, and the emSigner utility. The Java exception site list must include the local port address used by the signer service, and the emSigner service must be running before the portal can recognise the token-based signature setup. The process then moves through token insertion, GST officer login, and selection of the relevant certificate for electronic signing after entry of the token PIN or password.
May 20, 2026
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Pan-India solar inverter distribution expands market access, service support, and adoption across residential and commercial rooftop segments.
Pan-India distributorship agreement was entered into for FIMER's string inverter portfolio, with Redington Solar appointed as the distribution partner to extend nationwide market access for solar inverter products. The arrangement is intended to strengthen reach across commercial and industrial customers, solar developers, EPCs, rooftop installers, and residential users, including support for 3KW and 5KW inverter solutions under the PM Surya Ghar initiative as well as other commercial inverter offerings. The partnership provides single-point distribution support covering product availability, competitive pricing, credit assistance, logistics, commissioning assistance, and after-sales service.
May 20, 2026
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GST tax deduction at source applies to specified government payments, with monthly deposit, return filing, and certificate issuance requirements.
Section 51 GST TDS applies to specified government deductors from 1 October 2018, requiring registration before payment to suppliers above the prescribed contract threshold. Intra-State supplies attract 1% CGST and 1% SGST, while inter-State supplies attract 2% IGST, with tax computed on the taxable value excluding GST and cess shown in the invoice. Deductors must maintain records, generate CPIN challans, deposit tax, file FORM GSTR-7 within ten days after month-end, and issue FORM GSTR-7A certificates.
May 20, 2026
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GST tax deduction at source: registration, deduction, payment, monthly return filing and TDS certificate requirements for deductors.
Tax deduction at source under the GST Act applies to specified government entities and public bodies making payment for taxable supplies above the prescribed threshold. The tax deductor must register online in FORM GST REG-07, deduct tax at the applicable rate from taxable supply value, deposit the amount through the GST portal by the due date, file monthly return in FORM GSTR-7, and issue FORM GSTR-7A certificate to the deductee. The guideline also covers treasury and non-treasury payment procedures, amendment of registration and return details, transitional cases, and default consequences including interest, late fee and penalty.
May 19, 2026
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Green Technology and Innovation Strategic Partnership deepens India-Nordic cooperation on clean energy, sustainability and trusted technologies.
India and the Nordic countries agreed to elevate their relationship to a Green Technology and Innovation Strategic Partnership, focusing on clean energy, sustainability, innovation, emerging technologies and trusted technologies. The partnership is intended to combine innovation, scale and talent while advancing shared commitments to democracy, the rule of law, multilateralism and a rules-based global order. The leaders also discussed trade and investment ties, research collaboration, Arctic and polar research, skill development, talent mobility and cooperation in multilateral fora.
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Information Security Management Systems certification strengthens police data protection, cyber resilience, and confidentiality of sensitive digital infrastructure.
Karnataka State Police Data Center has been awarded ISO/IEC 27001 certification for Information Security Management Systems, recognising compliance with internationally accepted standards for information security, data protection, cyber security practices and information management processes. The certification is said to strengthen confidentiality, integrity and availability of sensitive information and critical digital infrastructure, while improving cyber resilience, protection against unauthorised access, and the security, privacy, transparency and accountability of data management.
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India-UK trade agreement implementation could ease whisky tariffs and support export growth, jobs and market access.
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May 19, 2026
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Input tax credit refund filing now requires Annexure-B through the offline utility with invoice-wise HSN/SAC reporting and GSTR-2B validation.
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State Domestic Product estimation discussions focus on reconciling methodologies, data sources, and comparable GSDP estimates.
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Industry-government collaboration drives reforms, export growth and digital infrastructure expansion for stronger competitiveness and resilient growth.
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Pillar 3 disclosure requirements are being aligned with Basel norms as draft capital adequacy amendments invite public comments.
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Inflation pass-through from fuel prices keeps CPI under watch as wholesale costs and RBI caution rise.
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EV charging and critical power growth drive Exicom's strongest FY26 quarter with EBITDA breakeven and expanding capacity.
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May 19, 2026
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Trade confidence in SME family businesses remains strong, but worsening risk and governance tensions are dragging down export potential.
India's SME family business exporters show strong trade optimism, but that confidence is being reduced by a hostile and worsening risk environment. A study of 461 leaders uses four indices to measure forward-looking optimism, macro risk burden, risk momentum, and family governance risk, producing a modestly positive Net Trade Confidence Score. The report highlights a structural gap between business expectations and operating conditions and calls for targeted support on trade literacy, export finance, and family governance in internationalisation decisions.
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Money laundering through benami accounts and extortion allegations drove custodial interrogation in a large financial crime probe.
Proceedings under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act involved allegations that Ashok Kharat orchestrated an extortion racket and laundered more than Rs 70 crore through benami bank accounts. The agency alleged misuse of victims' documents, opening of multiple accounts in a single day, and acquisition of properties in the names of Kharat and his family members from the alleged proceeds.
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Temple gold monetisation rumours denied; official communications confirm no approved scheme or strategic reserve classification.
False claims regarding a proposed monetisation scheme for temple gold holdings are expressly denied. Assertions that the Government plans to issue gold bonds to temples in exchange for temple gold reserves, or that any such proposal has been approved, are stated to be completely false, misleading, and without basis. Claims that gold plates on temple towers, doors, or other temple structures would be treated as Strategic Gold Reserves of India are also denied as baseless.
May 18, 2026
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Sanctions compliance settlement follows alleged Iran-linked LPG shipments, with cooperation, self-disclosure and remedial controls credited.
Civil sanctions liability arising from alleged Iran-related LPG shipments was settled with the U.S. Treasury Department's Office of Foreign Assets Control, without any admission of the allegations. The company's purchases from a Dubai-based trader were alleged to have involved LPG that originated from Iran, despite being represented as Omani and Iraqi supply. OFAC credited extensive cooperation, proactive self-disclosure, suspension of LPG imports, and strengthened sanctions compliance measures across the corporate group.
May 18, 2026
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Supply shock monitoring shapes RBI's data-dependent inflation stance as temporary price spikes may be looked through.
The Reserve Bank of India is monitoring whether supply shocks become embedded in the general price level and require monetary policy action. Temporary first-round effects may be looked through, but sustained increases that raise wages, production and transportation costs and generate broader inflation may call for tighter policy. A wide inflation tolerance band provides space to absorb short-run volatility while keeping the medium-term focus on price stability and data-dependent policy.
May 18, 2026
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Sanctions compliance and voluntary self-reporting led to a reduced OFAC settlement for Iranian-origin LPG import allegations.
Adani Enterprises settled an OFAC sanctions matter involving apparent violations linked to imports of Iranian-origin LPG through Mundra Port by agreeing to pay USD 275 million. The company said the resolution did not constitute a finding of guilt or wrongdoing and resolved all related liabilities. OFAC reduced the amount after voluntary self-reporting, proactive disclosure, cooperation, and corrective compliance steps, including strengthened sanctions controls and enhanced internal measures across the corporate group.

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Form No. 49 - Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs)

March 27, 2026

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Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs)

Form No. 49 (Merged form of erstwhile Forms 3CEFA, 3CEFB and 3CEFC)

Application for opting for Safe Harbour under section 167 of the Income-tax Act, 2025

Name of form as per I.T. Rules, 1962

Forms 3CEFA, 3CEFB and 3CEFC

Name of form as per I.T. Rules, 2026

Form No. 49

Corresponding section of I.T. Act, 1961

92CB

Corresponding section of I.T. Act, 2025

167

Corresponding Rule of I.T. Rules, 1962

10TA to 10TIC

Corresponding Rule of I.T. Rules, 2026

86 to 102

1. What is Form No. 49?

Ans: Form No. 49 is a prescribed e-form to opt for Safe Harbour under section 167 of the Income-tax Act, 2025 read with rules 86 to 102 of the Income-tax Rules, 2026. The form is a merged and simplified version of the erstwhile Forms 3CEFA, 3CEFB and 3CEFC.

2. Why have Forms 3CEFA, 3CEFB and 3CEFC been merged into a single form?

Ans: The three forms have been merged to simplify compliance, reduce duplication, and enable a unified, system-driven (smart) e-form. The merged form allows an assessee to opt for Safe Harbour for eligible international transaction (EIT), eligible specified domestic transaction (ESDT) and/or eligible business (EB) through a single application.

3. Who is required to file Form No. 49?

Ans: All eligible assessees as per Rule 87/95/99(c), intending to opt for Safe Harbour shall file the Form No. 49 for the relevant tax year with respect to:

i. EIT as per Rule 88, and/or

ii. ESDT as per Rule 96, and/or

iii. EB as per Rule 99(d).

4. Is filing of Form No. 49 mandatory?

Ans: No. Filing of Form No. 49 is required only if an eligible assessee intends to opt for the Safe Harbour provisions.

5. What is the due date for filing Form No. 49?

Ans: While Form No. 49 is generally filed for a relevant tax year, for EIT of provision of information technology services, it can be filed for the relevant tax years up to 30th June of the financial year immediately succeeding the first tax year out of a period of five consecutive tax years. For other eligible transactions, the due date remains on or before the due date specified in section 263(1)(b). However, the return of income for the relevant tax year is to be furnished on or before the date of furnishing the form.

6. How can Form No. 49 be filed?

Ans: Form No. 49 can be filed electronically through the Income-tax e-filing portal using the assessee’s user ID and password.

7. Can Form No. 49 be filed offline?

Ans: No. Form No. 49 is an electronic form and can be filed only in online mode through the e-filing portal.

8. What are the main parts of Form No. 49?

Ans: Form No. 49 consists of the two main parts:

  • PART A: Particulars of the person (basic information).
  • PART B: Other Information consisting of five sub-items: Option for Safe Harbour, Tax Year(s), Eligible International Transaction (EIT), Eligible Specified Domestic Transaction (ESDT), and Eligible Business (EB).

9. Can an assessee fill more than one part of the form?

Ans: Depending upon eligibility, an assessee can opt for Safe Harbour for one or more of the following:

i. Eligible International Transaction (EIT),

ii. Eligible Specified Domestic Transaction (ESDT), and/or

iii. Eligible Business (EB).

The form is a smart form and only the relevant part(s) of the form will be displayed electronically, depending upon the option(s) selected by the applicant.

10. What are the eligible international transactions?

Ans: Eligible international transactions specified under rule 88 includes:

(a) provision of information technology services consisting of any one or more of the following:—

(i) provision of software development services;

(ii) provision of information technology enabled services;

(iii) provision of knowledge process outsourcing services;

(iv) provision of contract research and development services wholly or partly relating to software development with insignificant risk, to a non-resident associated enterprise;

(b) advance of intra-group loan;

(c) provision of corporate guarantee, where the amount guaranteed, —

(i) does not exceed one hundred crore rupees; or

(ii) exceeds one hundred crore rupees, and the credit rating of the associated enterprise, done by an agency registered with the Securities and Exchange Board of India, is of the adequate to highest safety;

(d) provision of contract research and development services wholly or partly relating to generic pharmaceutical drugs with insignificant risk, to a non-resident associated enterprise;

(e) manufacture and export of core auto components;

(f) manufacture and export of non-core auto components; or

(g) receipt of low value-adding intra-group services from one or more members of its group; or

(h) provision of the data centre services.

11. Can details of multiple associated enterprises (AEs) be reported in the form?

Ans: Yes. For each eligible transaction, details of one or more associated enterprises can be furnished by adding multiple rows in the relevant tables.

12. Is it mandatory to provide Taxpayer Identification Number (TIN) of the associated enterprise?

Ans: Yes. TIN of the associated enterprise (AE) in the country or territory of residence is a mandatory field. PAN of AE may be provided where available.

13. Are transactions with AEs located in no-tax or low-tax jurisdictions eligible for Safe Harbour?

Ans: No. If the associated enterprise is located in a country or territory notified as no-tax or low-tax jurisdiction or notified under section 176 of the Income-tax Act, 2025, Safe Harbour is not available for such transaction(s).

14. What additional details are required for EIT being ‘advance of intra-group loans’?

Ans: Additional details such as denomination of loan, amount, currency, interest rate, credit rating are required to be furnished. Also, if the loan is in foreign currency, whether the loan advanced to the AE including all loans to all AEs exceed Rs. 250 crore as on 31st March of the tax year to be indicated through ‘Yes’ or ‘No’.

15. What additional details are required for EIT being ‘provision of corporate guarantee’?

Ans: Additional details such rate of commission or fee charged and amount of corporate guarantee to be provided. Also, whether the amount guaranteed exceeds Rs. 100 crore to be indicated through ‘Yes’ or ‘No’.

16. When is credit rating mandatory for intra-group loans and corporate guarantees?

Ans: Credit rating is required in accordance with the circumstances specified under Rule 89(2). In case of corporate guarantees exceeding INR 100 crore, credit rating by a SEBI-registered agency is mandatory.

17. What additional details are required for EIT being ‘receipt of low value-adding intragroup services’?

Ans: Additional details such amount of EIT excluding mark-up, mark-up, amount of EIT including mark-up and details of certificate of accountant to be provided. Also, certificate of the accountant to be uploaded as Annexure.

18. Who is eligible assessee for Eligible Specified Domestic Transaction (ESDT)?

Ans: The “eligible assessee” means a person who has exercised a valid option for application of safe harbour rules in accordance with the provisions of Rule 97, and:

i. is a government companies engaged in generation, supply, transmission or distribution of electricity, or

ii. is a co-operative society engaged in procuring and marketing milk and milk products.

19. Who is eligible assessee for Eligible Business (EB)?

Ans: Eligible assessee for Eligible Business (EB) means:—

(i) a foreign company engaged in the business of diamond mining which has exercised an option for application of safe harbour rules in accordance with Rule 100; or

(ii) a foreign company who stores components in a warehouse in a custom bonded area for providing them to a contract manufacturer to be used for manufacturing of specified electronic goods.

20. What is eligible business for safe harbour rules?

Ans: Eligible Business (EB) means:—

(i) a business of selling raw diamonds in any notified special zone as referred under section 9(8)(c)(ii)(C); or

(ii) the business activity of storage of components in a warehouse in a custom bonded area for sale to a contract manufacturer to be used for manufacturing of specified electronic goods.

21. What are raw diamonds?

Ans: Raw diamonds mean diamonds that are, –

(i) uncut or unpolished;

(ii) unassorted;

(iii) unworked or simply sawn, cleaved or bruted;

(iv) not conflict diamonds as defined by the Kimberley Process;

(v) accompanied by Kimberley Process Certificate issued by the Kimberley Process

(vi) authority in the exporting country; and falling under Tariff Heading 7102 of the First Schedule to the Customs Tariff Act, 1975 (51 of 1975).

22. What are specified electronic goods?

Ans: Specified electronic goods mean:—

(i) mobile phones;

(ii) laptops, all-in-one personal computers and tablets;

(iii) servers and ultra small form factor (USSF);

(iv) sub-assemblies to the finished goods mentioned above; or

(v) hearables and wearables and accessories related to the finished goods mentioned above.

23. What happens if profits of the eligible business are less than the prescribed threshold?

Ans: If the profits and gains of the eligible business are less than the threshold mentioned in Rule 100, the assessee is not eligible for Safe Harbour.

24. What information/document is required for filing Form No. 49?

Ans: The following information/document is required for filing Form No. 49:

i. Documentation prescribed under section 171 of the Income-tax Act, 2025 and Rule 89 of the Income-tax Rules, 2026.

ii. Report from an accountant under section 172 of the Income-tax Act, 2025 and Rule 90 of the Income-tax Rules, 2026.

iii. Chartered Accountant’s certificate – If the eligible assessee has entered into any international transaction in respect of receipt of low value-adding intra-group services, the method of cost pooling, the exclusion of shareholder costs and duplicate costs from the cost pool and the reasonableness of the allocation keys used for allocation of costs to the assessee by the overseas associated enterprise is to be certified by an accountant.

iv. Credit rating of AE if an eligible assessee has advanced intra-group loans or provided corporate guarantee, wherever applicable.

25. How is Form No. 49 verified?

Ans: Form No. 49 is required to be e-verified using the prescribed modes such as Digital Signature Certificate (DSC) or Electronic Verification Code (EVC), as applicable.

***

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