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March 11, 2026
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Trade agreements expand market access while preserving domestic safeguards and promoting value-added food exports through targeted support.
India's export expansion strategy combines preferential market access through recently concluded Free Trade Agreements with calibrated domestic safeguards for farmers, fishermen and MSMEs - excluding concessions in sensitive sectors (notably dairy, certain cereals and pulses) and denying duty concessions or market access for genetically modified products - while promoting value addition via the Agriculture Infrastructure Fund and export handholding through the Export Promotion Mission and DGFT to integrate businesses into global value chains.
March 11, 2026
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Merger clearance: acquisition of additional stake in Curefit approved to bolster the Target's capital in the fitness sector.
The Competition Commission of India approved an additional stake acquisition by MacRitchie Investments Pte. Ltd., an investment holding company and indirect wholly owned subsidiary of Temasek, in Curefit Healthcare Private Limited to supplement the Target's capital requirements in the fitness sector; the Target is the ultimate parent of the Curefit Healthcare Group, which operates fitness management programmes, memberships, franchising and sales of fitness apparel and accessories in India, and a detailed order will follow.
March 11, 2026
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Competition approval for acquisition by Cube V of road concession businesses operating under governmental concessions.
The Competition Commission of India approved the proposed indirect acquisition by Cube Highways and Infrastructure V Pte. Ltd. of the road asset businesses housed in DYIPL, DVIPL, DGIPL and DTEHPL, comprising operations that manage roads and highways under governmental concessions. Cube V is registered as a foreign portfolio investor and operates, acquires and manages highway and transport infrastructure assets in India. A detailed order of the Commission will follow.
March 11, 2026
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Free Trade Agreements enabling preferential market access for Indian agricultural and processed food exports through standards and research.
The press release highlights that expanding Free Trade Agreements are enabling preferential market access for Indian agricultural and processed food exports and that APEDA, at AAHAR 2026, released research reports on key crops and launched packaging design solutions and technical standards with the Indian Institute of Packaging aimed at improving protection, shelf life and market presentation for region-specific, GI-tagged and organic products to support export competitiveness.
March 11, 2026
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Food safety standards underpin promotion of European flour in India, enabling market access and traceable supply chains.
Promotion of premium Italian soft wheat flour in India emphasises compliance with food safety regulations, full traceability and sustainability commitments as the core regulatory assurances supporting market entry and commercial outreach. The campaign presents European milling quality controls - careful wheat selection, computerised traceability, and independent accredited laboratory testing - as operative mechanisms ensuring conformity with EU standards and as commercial assurances to Indian buyers.
March 11, 2026
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UK-India free trade agreement expands market access for UK food and drink exporters, boosting trade engagement at AAHAR.
The UK-India Free Trade Agreement is positioned to enhance market access for UK food and drink exporters by reducing barriers and facilitating faster, cheaper trade. The UK Government, via the British High Commission and the GREAT campaign, is deploying a trade delegation and a UK Pavilion at AAHAR 2026 to translate improved market access into direct commercial engagement with Indian importers, distributors, modern retail and HoReCa operators, emphasising quality, safety and provenance to support long-term trade partnerships.
March 11, 2026
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Temporary waiver for purchase of sanctioned oil allows diversion and refining of en route cargoes to ease supply shortages.
The United States authorised a temporary waiver allowing Indian refiners to accept Russian-origin crude already at sea to address immediate energy supply disruptions amid the Iran-related conflict. The waiver is narrowly targeted to existing cargoes, framed as a short-term operational authorisation to divert, refine and rapidly release oil into markets to blunt price spikes, while officials maintain it does not signify a change in broader policy toward Russia.
March 11, 2026
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UK-India Free Trade Agreement drives West Midlands mission to secure partnerships in clean energy, technology, education and creative industries.
The West Midlands Mayoral-led trade mission to India sought to operationalise the UK-India Free Trade Agreement by securing research and industry alliances, academic partnerships and commercial engagements across clean energy, technology, manufacturing, creative industries and tourism, including a University of Warwick-Tata Power alliance, Aston University and Birmingham City University agreements, and plans for a joint taskforce with the State of Gujarat to formalise sectoral growth collaboration.
March 11, 2026
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RBI intervention prevents further rupee depreciation as outflows and geopolitical tensions pressure the currency, while oil declines temper losses.
The rupee weakened intraday amid foreign institutional investor outflows and Middle East geopolitical tensions, with a softer dollar and falling crude curbing larger losses; reported Reserve Bank of India selling and domestic bond flows helped prevent a breach of a key exchange level and set an intraday trading range.
March 10, 2026
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Pipeline supply agreement enables emergency diesel deliveries to address national fuel shortage and bolster bilateral energy cooperation.
A cross-border supply framework permits direct transport of diesel from India to Bangladesh via the Bangladesh-India Friendship Pipeline under an existing supply agreement providing for an annual allocation and optional additional quantities; recent bilateral negotiations seek to operationalise supplementary deliveries to address an acute domestic fuel shortfall while using the pipeline's capacity to reduce transport time and costs.
March 10, 2026
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Share capital reduction validation upheld as an expert valuation and statutory procedure governs minority buyouts.
The dispute concerned cancellation of minority shareholdings via statutory share capital reduction and whether the valuation met Companies Act requirements. The Court held that share valuation is an expert exercise and evaluated compliance with statutory procedure and notice obligations, noting the NCLT's price adjustment and concluding the company followed prescribed steps for the capital reduction.
March 10, 2026
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Beneficial ownership threshold from land-border countries eased, permitting limited non-controlling stakes under the automatic route with reporting.
The amendment permits non controlling investors from land border countries to invest under the automatic route where their beneficial ownership at the investor entity level does not exceed a defined threshold, while retaining sectoral caps, entry routes and attendant conditions. Such investments must be reported to the DPIIT. An expedited 60 day processing track is established for specified manufacturing sectors, conditional on majority shareholding and control of the investee remaining with resident Indian citizens or resident Indian entities owned and controlled by resident Indian citizens.
March 10, 2026
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LPG supply prioritisation: committee to allocate commercial gas based on genuine need, availability and essential service priority.
The government has prioritised household LPG supplies and constituted a three member committee of Executive Directors of Oil Marketing Companies to review representations from hotels, restaurants and other commercial users and allocate commercial LPG based on genuine need, product availability and merits of each case. Measures include directing refineries to increase LPG output and extending the refill booking cycle to discourage hoarding, while essential non domestic sectors will receive prioritised non domestic supplies subject to import constraints and production capacity.
March 10, 2026
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Cabinet approval of multitracking projects expands rail capacity and improves regional connectivity and logistics efficiency.
Cabinet approval authorises two multitracking projects (Sainthia-Pakur fourth line and Santragachi-Kharagpur fourth line) under the PM Gati Shakti framework to add about 192 km to the rail network across five districts in West Bengal and Jharkhand, increase line capacity to ease congestion, improve passenger and freight service reliability, and enhance multimodal connectivity, regional access, and environmental and logistical efficiencies.
March 10, 2026
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Trade and Economic Partnership Agreement opens high income markets and investment pathways, enabling technology transfer and jobs.
The Trade and Economic Partnership Agreement between India and EFTA implements preferential market access and capability building measures, with EFTA commitments covering 92.2% of tariff lines and India covering 82.7%, while protecting sensitive sectors. TEPA couples tariff concessions for key Indian export sectors with improved access to specialised inputs and machinery from EFTA, includes an investment facilitation element linked to industrial and technology collaboration, and provides frameworks for services cooperation and Mutual Recognition Agreements to support mobility of professionals.
March 10, 2026
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Independent Director preparedness enables senior defence officers to transition to corporate boards and meet evolving ESG and disclosure expectations.
A two-week certification program prepares senior and recently retired defence officers for service as Independent Directors by teaching the legal and regulatory framework of board responsibilities, fiduciary duties, and practical expectations of corporate boards and executive search firms. The program also addresses strengthening the Corporate Disclosure Framework, aligning domestic norms with global ESG Board Oversight standards, and advancing Trust-Based Regulation alongside Ease of Doing Business to facilitate transition into corporate board roles.
March 10, 2026
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Agricultural credit access expanded through collateral free limits, Kisan Credit Card coverage, and interest subvention measures.
Policy measures expand institutional agricultural credit by setting Ground Level Credit targets derived from district Potential Linked Credit Plans, enforcing Priority Sector Lending allocations with a Small and Marginal Farmers sub target and district incentives, extending Kisan Credit Card coverage to allied activities, providing interest subvention with a prompt repayment incentive, increasing the collateral free loan limit for short term agricultural credit, and mobilising rural infrastructure funding and institutional support to improve liquidity and credit absorption in low disbursement districts.
March 10, 2026
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Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana enrollment drives boost coverage and digitise timely claim disbursement via Jansuraksha portal.
PMJJBY maintains broad coverage with 26.7 crore beneficiaries, about 12.55 crore active policies and a 99.95% cumulative claim settlement ratio; insurer settlement times range from 0.61 to 17 days. Administrative measures include annual action plans to reduce lapses, grassroots enrolment drives including a national Financial Inclusion Saturation Campaign, mobilisation of around 16 lakh Banking Correspondents for last mile enrolment, and the Jansuraksha Portal for end to end digital enrolment and claim remittance with multilingual information and onboarded banks and insurers.
March 10, 2026
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Public Sector Bank Reform advances digital lending, AI adoption, inclusive governance and strengthened risk resilience frameworks.
EASE 8.0 (EASERise) requires public sector banks to implement reforms across four themes-risk and resilience, innovation, socio economic impact and excellence-by adopting digital lending, Gen AI use cases, enhanced loan management capabilities (bureau analytics, account aggregator and GST integration), strengthened collections and recovery platforms, anti fraud and AML safeguards, inclusive governance with Accessibility Cells and Divyangjans representation, and quarterly performance evaluation by an EASE Steering Committee to ensure operationalisation and accountability.
March 10, 2026
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Parliamentary approval for supplementary expenditure requested to cover additional subsidy and defence outlays, with offsets expected.
Parliamentary approval is sought for a supplementary demand for grants authorising net additional central government expenditure in the current financial year; the proposal differentiates gross additional spending and net cash outgo by accounting for enhanced receipts and recoveries, and identifies major incremental heads such as food and fertiliser subsidies and defence. The request is set against a reduced Revised Estimate of total expenditure and reported year to date spending, with analysts noting that ministry expenditure savings and concentrated revenue outlays in February-March may largely offset the incremental demand and influence fiscal outcomes.

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Form No. 49 - Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs)

March 27, 2026

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Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs)

Form No. 49 (Merged form of erstwhile Forms 3CEFA, 3CEFB and 3CEFC)

Application for opting for Safe Harbour under section 167 of the Income-tax Act, 2025

Name of form as per I.T. Rules, 1962

Forms 3CEFA, 3CEFB and 3CEFC

Name of form as per I.T. Rules, 2026

Form No. 49

Corresponding section of I.T. Act, 1961

92CB

Corresponding section of I.T. Act, 2025

167

Corresponding Rule of I.T. Rules, 1962

10TA to 10TIC

Corresponding Rule of I.T. Rules, 2026

86 to 102

1. What is Form No. 49?

Ans: Form No. 49 is a prescribed e-form to opt for Safe Harbour under section 167 of the Income-tax Act, 2025 read with rules 86 to 102 of the Income-tax Rules, 2026. The form is a merged and simplified version of the erstwhile Forms 3CEFA, 3CEFB and 3CEFC.

2. Why have Forms 3CEFA, 3CEFB and 3CEFC been merged into a single form?

Ans: The three forms have been merged to simplify compliance, reduce duplication, and enable a unified, system-driven (smart) e-form. The merged form allows an assessee to opt for Safe Harbour for eligible international transaction (EIT), eligible specified domestic transaction (ESDT) and/or eligible business (EB) through a single application.

3. Who is required to file Form No. 49?

Ans: All eligible assessees as per Rule 87/95/99(c), intending to opt for Safe Harbour shall file the Form No. 49 for the relevant tax year with respect to:

i. EIT as per Rule 88, and/or

ii. ESDT as per Rule 96, and/or

iii. EB as per Rule 99(d).

4. Is filing of Form No. 49 mandatory?

Ans: No. Filing of Form No. 49 is required only if an eligible assessee intends to opt for the Safe Harbour provisions.

5. What is the due date for filing Form No. 49?

Ans: While Form No. 49 is generally filed for a relevant tax year, for EIT of provision of information technology services, it can be filed for the relevant tax years up to 30th June of the financial year immediately succeeding the first tax year out of a period of five consecutive tax years. For other eligible transactions, the due date remains on or before the due date specified in section 263(1)(b). However, the return of income for the relevant tax year is to be furnished on or before the date of furnishing the form.

6. How can Form No. 49 be filed?

Ans: Form No. 49 can be filed electronically through the Income-tax e-filing portal using the assessee’s user ID and password.

7. Can Form No. 49 be filed offline?

Ans: No. Form No. 49 is an electronic form and can be filed only in online mode through the e-filing portal.

8. What are the main parts of Form No. 49?

Ans: Form No. 49 consists of the two main parts:

  • PART A: Particulars of the person (basic information).
  • PART B: Other Information consisting of five sub-items: Option for Safe Harbour, Tax Year(s), Eligible International Transaction (EIT), Eligible Specified Domestic Transaction (ESDT), and Eligible Business (EB).

9. Can an assessee fill more than one part of the form?

Ans: Depending upon eligibility, an assessee can opt for Safe Harbour for one or more of the following:

i. Eligible International Transaction (EIT),

ii. Eligible Specified Domestic Transaction (ESDT), and/or

iii. Eligible Business (EB).

The form is a smart form and only the relevant part(s) of the form will be displayed electronically, depending upon the option(s) selected by the applicant.

10. What are the eligible international transactions?

Ans: Eligible international transactions specified under rule 88 includes:

(a) provision of information technology services consisting of any one or more of the following:—

(i) provision of software development services;

(ii) provision of information technology enabled services;

(iii) provision of knowledge process outsourcing services;

(iv) provision of contract research and development services wholly or partly relating to software development with insignificant risk, to a non-resident associated enterprise;

(b) advance of intra-group loan;

(c) provision of corporate guarantee, where the amount guaranteed, —

(i) does not exceed one hundred crore rupees; or

(ii) exceeds one hundred crore rupees, and the credit rating of the associated enterprise, done by an agency registered with the Securities and Exchange Board of India, is of the adequate to highest safety;

(d) provision of contract research and development services wholly or partly relating to generic pharmaceutical drugs with insignificant risk, to a non-resident associated enterprise;

(e) manufacture and export of core auto components;

(f) manufacture and export of non-core auto components; or

(g) receipt of low value-adding intra-group services from one or more members of its group; or

(h) provision of the data centre services.

11. Can details of multiple associated enterprises (AEs) be reported in the form?

Ans: Yes. For each eligible transaction, details of one or more associated enterprises can be furnished by adding multiple rows in the relevant tables.

12. Is it mandatory to provide Taxpayer Identification Number (TIN) of the associated enterprise?

Ans: Yes. TIN of the associated enterprise (AE) in the country or territory of residence is a mandatory field. PAN of AE may be provided where available.

13. Are transactions with AEs located in no-tax or low-tax jurisdictions eligible for Safe Harbour?

Ans: No. If the associated enterprise is located in a country or territory notified as no-tax or low-tax jurisdiction or notified under section 176 of the Income-tax Act, 2025, Safe Harbour is not available for such transaction(s).

14. What additional details are required for EIT being ‘advance of intra-group loans’?

Ans: Additional details such as denomination of loan, amount, currency, interest rate, credit rating are required to be furnished. Also, if the loan is in foreign currency, whether the loan advanced to the AE including all loans to all AEs exceed Rs. 250 crore as on 31st March of the tax year to be indicated through ‘Yes’ or ‘No’.

15. What additional details are required for EIT being ‘provision of corporate guarantee’?

Ans: Additional details such rate of commission or fee charged and amount of corporate guarantee to be provided. Also, whether the amount guaranteed exceeds Rs. 100 crore to be indicated through ‘Yes’ or ‘No’.

16. When is credit rating mandatory for intra-group loans and corporate guarantees?

Ans: Credit rating is required in accordance with the circumstances specified under Rule 89(2). In case of corporate guarantees exceeding INR 100 crore, credit rating by a SEBI-registered agency is mandatory.

17. What additional details are required for EIT being ‘receipt of low value-adding intragroup services’?

Ans: Additional details such amount of EIT excluding mark-up, mark-up, amount of EIT including mark-up and details of certificate of accountant to be provided. Also, certificate of the accountant to be uploaded as Annexure.

18. Who is eligible assessee for Eligible Specified Domestic Transaction (ESDT)?

Ans: The “eligible assessee” means a person who has exercised a valid option for application of safe harbour rules in accordance with the provisions of Rule 97, and:

i. is a government companies engaged in generation, supply, transmission or distribution of electricity, or

ii. is a co-operative society engaged in procuring and marketing milk and milk products.

19. Who is eligible assessee for Eligible Business (EB)?

Ans: Eligible assessee for Eligible Business (EB) means:—

(i) a foreign company engaged in the business of diamond mining which has exercised an option for application of safe harbour rules in accordance with Rule 100; or

(ii) a foreign company who stores components in a warehouse in a custom bonded area for providing them to a contract manufacturer to be used for manufacturing of specified electronic goods.

20. What is eligible business for safe harbour rules?

Ans: Eligible Business (EB) means:—

(i) a business of selling raw diamonds in any notified special zone as referred under section 9(8)(c)(ii)(C); or

(ii) the business activity of storage of components in a warehouse in a custom bonded area for sale to a contract manufacturer to be used for manufacturing of specified electronic goods.

21. What are raw diamonds?

Ans: Raw diamonds mean diamonds that are, –

(i) uncut or unpolished;

(ii) unassorted;

(iii) unworked or simply sawn, cleaved or bruted;

(iv) not conflict diamonds as defined by the Kimberley Process;

(v) accompanied by Kimberley Process Certificate issued by the Kimberley Process

(vi) authority in the exporting country; and falling under Tariff Heading 7102 of the First Schedule to the Customs Tariff Act, 1975 (51 of 1975).

22. What are specified electronic goods?

Ans: Specified electronic goods mean:—

(i) mobile phones;

(ii) laptops, all-in-one personal computers and tablets;

(iii) servers and ultra small form factor (USSF);

(iv) sub-assemblies to the finished goods mentioned above; or

(v) hearables and wearables and accessories related to the finished goods mentioned above.

23. What happens if profits of the eligible business are less than the prescribed threshold?

Ans: If the profits and gains of the eligible business are less than the threshold mentioned in Rule 100, the assessee is not eligible for Safe Harbour.

24. What information/document is required for filing Form No. 49?

Ans: The following information/document is required for filing Form No. 49:

i. Documentation prescribed under section 171 of the Income-tax Act, 2025 and Rule 89 of the Income-tax Rules, 2026.

ii. Report from an accountant under section 172 of the Income-tax Act, 2025 and Rule 90 of the Income-tax Rules, 2026.

iii. Chartered Accountant’s certificate – If the eligible assessee has entered into any international transaction in respect of receipt of low value-adding intra-group services, the method of cost pooling, the exclusion of shareholder costs and duplicate costs from the cost pool and the reasonableness of the allocation keys used for allocation of costs to the assessee by the overseas associated enterprise is to be certified by an accountant.

iv. Credit rating of AE if an eligible assessee has advanced intra-group loans or provided corporate guarantee, wherever applicable.

25. How is Form No. 49 verified?

Ans: Form No. 49 is required to be e-verified using the prescribed modes such as Digital Signature Certificate (DSC) or Electronic Verification Code (EVC), as applicable.

***

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