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    CCI approves proposed acquisition of additional shareholding of Valuedrive Technologies Pvt Ltd by Setu AIF Trust, Konark Trust, and MMPL Trust
    CCI approves acquisition of certain shares in Shriram Finance by MUFG Bank Ltd.
    CCI approves acquisition of shareholding of Groww Asset Management by State Street Global Advisors, Inc.
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March 26, 2026
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Competition approval for additional shareholding acquisition in Valuedrive Technologies through an alternative investment and trust co-investment structure.
The Competition Commission of India approved the proposed acquisition of additional shareholding in Valuedrive Technologies Private Limited by Setu AIF Trust, Konark Trust and MMPL Trust. The transaction concerns acquisition of shares on a fully diluted basis through an alternative investment fund and private trust co-investment structure. Valuedrive Technologies Private Limited operates as an operating-cum-holding company for the Spinny Group and carries on an electronic platform business for used motor vehicles, together with related subsidiary activities.
March 26, 2026
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Competition law approval for acquisition of shares in a listed NBFC by a Japan-based banking institution.
Competition Commission of India approval was granted for the acquisition of certain shares in Shriram Finance Limited by MUFG Bank Ltd. The acquirer is a Japan-based banking institution wholly owned and controlled by Mitsubishi UFJ Financial Group, Inc., and carries on banking-related activities in India including corporate banking loans, deposit accounts, remittances, trade finance, bank guarantees and hedging. The target is a listed non-banking financial company registered with the Reserve Bank of India, classified as an Investment and Credit Company and an NBFC-Upper Layer, engaged in financing commercial goods and passenger vehicles, construction equipment, farm equipment, MSMEs, two-wheelers, gold and personal loans.
March 26, 2026
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Competition approval for acquisition of Groww Asset Management shareholding by State Street Global Advisors
Competition approval was granted for the proposed acquisition of shareholding in Groww Asset Management Limited by State Street Global Advisors, Inc. The target manages schemes of Groww Mutual Fund, including equity, hybrid, debt and exchange traded fund schemes. State Street operates under the State Street Investment Management brand as the asset management arm of State Street Corporation. The detailed order of the Commission would follow.
March 26, 2026
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Competition combination approval for Coursera and Udemy merger, creating sole control over Udemy through a subsidiary merger.
Competition Commission of India approved a proposed combination involving the merger of Chess Merger Sub, a wholly owned subsidiary of Coursera Inc., with and into Udemy Inc., with Udemy surviving as a wholly owned subsidiary of Coursera. The transaction results in Coursera acquiring sole control over Udemy, and the combined company is expected to have post-closing shareholding in which existing Coursera stockholders hold approximately 59% and existing Udemy stockholders approximately 41% on a fully diluted basis.
March 26, 2026
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Competition approval for renewable energy investment in Aditya Birla Renewables through equity subscription by GIP EM Star.
Competition Commission of India approved the subscription of certain equity share capital of Aditya Birla Renewables Limited by GIP EM Star Pte. Ltd. The acquirer is incorporated in Singapore and is ultimately linked to Global Infrastructure Management, LLC and BlackRock, Inc. The target, headquartered in Mumbai, is engaged in renewable energy power generation, including solar and wind power.
March 25, 2026
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Inflation targeting framework retained with a 4 per cent objective and a 2 per cent tolerance band for the next cycle.
The central government, in consultation with the Reserve Bank, has notified the inflation target for 1 April 2026 to 31 March 2031 at 4 per cent, with an upper tolerance level of 6 per cent and a lower tolerance level of 2 per cent. The framework continues to place the Monetary Policy Committee in charge of setting the policy rate needed to achieve the inflation objective within the prescribed band.
March 25, 2026
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Insolvency resolution delays under the bankruptcy code draw debate over tribunal capacity, creditor recoveries, and reform priorities.
Delay in insolvency resolution under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code remained the central issue in parliamentary discussion on the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (Amendment) Bill, 2025. Members referred to tribunal capacity constraints, overburdened case loads, delayed liquidation and resolution timelines, value deterioration, and low realisations to creditors as continuing problems in the insolvency ecosystem. The select committee report was noted as seeking to address these structural concerns through amendments aimed at improving the functioning of the insolvency and bankruptcy framework.
March 25, 2026
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Electricity tariff reduction cuts power charges by one paisa per unit across all consumer categories for FY27.
Electricity tariff for all consumer categories in Himachal Pradesh has been reduced by one paisa per unit for FY27, effective from 1 April 2026. The tariff order fixes the average cost of supply at Rs 6.75 per unit after truing up, resulting in a corresponding reduction in energy charges across consumer classes. The revised schedule sets category-wise tariffs for domestic, commercial, industrial, agricultural, railway, EV charging, irrigation, bulk supply, and street lighting consumers, while domestic subsidy is left to the state government decision and compensation mechanism.
March 25, 2026
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Money laundering attachment over Mahadev betting assets targets alleged proceeds of crime and overseas luxury properties.
Provisional attachment under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act was issued against immovable assets linked to the Mahadev Online Book betting operation, including luxury properties in Dubai, apartments in Burj Khalifa and two properties in Delhi. The attached assets were alleged to represent proceeds of crime generated from illegal online betting activities controlled through entities associated with the main promoter of the platform.
March 25, 2026
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Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code reform focuses on faster resolution, out-of-court settlements, and cross-border insolvency provisions.
The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code is described as a revival and resolution framework that has generated substantial recoveries through resolution of bankrupt companies and improved creditor-debtor discipline. The proposed amendment bill seeks to reduce the time taken for admission of insolvency resolution applications, speed up case clearance, support out-of-court resolution, and address cross-border insolvency and discretionary provisions.
March 25, 2026
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Power tariff unchanged as the commission prioritizes revenue neutrality, loss reduction, and efficiency in electricity distribution.
The Haryana Electricity Regulatory Commission kept power tariff unchanged for the 2026-27 financial year and treated the Annual Revenue Requirement of the distribution licensees as revenue-neutral despite a projected revenue gap. The order linked the decision to improved efficiency in revenue collection, receivables management, power procurement and loss reduction, while also fixing distribution loss levels and directing feeder-level monitoring to curb losses.
March 25, 2026
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Permanent Establishment audit reporting governs royalty and technical fees income for non-residents under the prescribed form.
Form No. 24 is a prescribed audit report for non-residents, foreign companies, and other non-resident entities deriving royalty or fees for technical services from India through a Permanent Establishment or fixed place of profession in India. It is certified by an Accountant and is mandatory where such income is effectively connected with the Indian Permanent Establishment or fixed place of profession. The form requires books of account, supporting documents, annexures, and electronic certification details, and is furnished annually before the return due date. Furnishing and acceptance of the form support assessment on a net income basis.
March 25, 2026
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Skill Development Project notification under income tax law links approval, audit compliance, and renewal conditions for eligible companies.
Form 23 is the CBDT notification form for an approved Skill Development Project under Section 47(1)(b) of the Income-tax Act, 2025 read with Rules 39 and 40. It is issued after Form 22 is examined and recommended by NCVET, and it specifies the approved Tax Year(s), project particulars, conditions, and validity for up to three Tax Years. The framework requires separate books, audit, prescribed reporting, compliance with notification conditions, and permits renewal or revocation depending on project performance and statutory compliance.
March 25, 2026
Show AI Summary
Skill development project notification governs approval, tax-year limits, conditions, and compliance for income-tax benefits.
Form 23 is the income-tax notification form for an approved skill development project under Section 47(1)(b) of the Income-tax Act, 2025, issued after approval under Rule 39. It notifies the project in the Official Gazette, specifies the approved tax years, and sets the terms, duration, and expenditure limits. The notification is issued by the Central Board of Direct Taxes on recommendation of NCVET, and contains the company's particulars, project details, training institute details, approved tax years, estimated expenditure, and attached conditions.
March 25, 2026
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Skill Development Project approval under income tax rules requires Form 22 filing, structured disclosures, and electronic verification.
Form 22 is the prescribed Income-tax application by which an eligible company seeks approval of a Skill Development Project under Section 47(1)(b) of the Income-tax Act, 2025 read with Rule 39. The form is filed with the National Council for Vocational Education and Training for recommendation to the Central Board of Direct Taxes, and it must be submitted electronically using DSC or EVC before commencement of the project. It requires disclosure of company particulars, project particulars, training institute details, prior notifications or revocations, return of income data, penalties, outstanding tax demands, expenditure projections, and supporting annexures.
March 25, 2026
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Free trade agreements and voluntary CSR are highlighted as tools for quality-led growth and inclusive development.
India's expanded free trade agreements are presented as a means of securing preferential market access for goods and services, with reduced or zero duty benefits linked to stronger export competitiveness. Indian industry, farmers, MSMEs, fishermen and artisans are urged to use these opportunities through a sustained focus on quality, higher standards and improved production and service capability. The statement also presents voluntary corporate social responsibility beyond statutory minima as an example of tangible social commitment.
March 25, 2026
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Multilateral trading system priorities shape India's agenda on WTO reform, food security, digital trade, and development concerns.
The WTO Ministerial Conference agenda covers WTO reform, the e-commerce work programme and moratorium, investment facilitation for development, fisheries subsidies, and agriculture-related issues. India's priorities include a development-centric multilateral trading system, a permanent solution on Public Stockholding for food security, effective Special and Differential Treatment, and a fully functional, automatic, and binding dispute settlement mechanism. India also supports policy space in digital trade, balanced fisheries subsidy disciplines, and investment facilitation for developing countries.
March 25, 2026
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Startup ecosystem partnership expands incorporation support, mentorship and financial tools for early-stage founders through a dedicated platform.
DPIIT entered into a strategic partnership with a leading fintech platform through a Memorandum of Understanding to strengthen India's startup ecosystem by supporting startups, innovators and entrepreneurs with financial tools, founder enablement programmes and ecosystem assistance. The collaboration is directed towards helping early- and growth-stage startups scale through digital payment solutions, financial infrastructure, incorporation support, mentorship and structured guidance for formalising and expanding operations. A dedicated platform, Startup Sahayak, has been launched to provide end-to-end assistance for early-stage founders, including company incorporation, access to schemes and guidance on funding opportunities.
March 25, 2026
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Cooperative sector survey training strengthens data quality and prepares nationwide collection on economic contribution and employment generation.
The Rapid Survey of Functional Cooperatives is being prepared through an all-India training workshop to equip master trainers with conceptual clarity, survey methodology, technical know-how, and uniform understanding of survey concepts. The survey will be conducted nationwide from April 2026 using the National Cooperative Database as the sampling frame and a web-based data collection system to generate sector-wise estimates of economic contribution and employment generation.
March 25, 2026
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Infrastructure project monitoring through PAIMANA tracks ongoing Central Sector projects, sector-wise progress, and new additions across Ministries.
Central Sector infrastructure projects worth Rs.150 crore and above are monitored through the PAIMANA portal, which standardises infrastructure tracking, auto-updates project data from Ministries and Departments, and supports timely review and data-driven decision-making. As of February 2026, the portal records 1,948 ongoing projects across 17 Central Ministries and Departments, with a revised cost of Rs.41.98 lakh crore and cumulative expenditure of Rs.19.71 lakh crore. The portfolio covers multiple sectors, led by Transport & Logistics and Energy, and includes new additions and commissioned projects during February 2026.

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Form No. 49 - Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs)

March 27, 2026

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Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs)

Form No. 49 (Merged form of erstwhile Forms 3CEFA, 3CEFB and 3CEFC)

Application for opting for Safe Harbour under section 167 of the Income-tax Act, 2025

Name of form as per I.T. Rules, 1962

Forms 3CEFA, 3CEFB and 3CEFC

Name of form as per I.T. Rules, 2026

Form No. 49

Corresponding section of I.T. Act, 1961

92CB

Corresponding section of I.T. Act, 2025

167

Corresponding Rule of I.T. Rules, 1962

10TA to 10TIC

Corresponding Rule of I.T. Rules, 2026

86 to 102

1. What is Form No. 49?

Ans: Form No. 49 is a prescribed e-form to opt for Safe Harbour under section 167 of the Income-tax Act, 2025 read with rules 86 to 102 of the Income-tax Rules, 2026. The form is a merged and simplified version of the erstwhile Forms 3CEFA, 3CEFB and 3CEFC.

2. Why have Forms 3CEFA, 3CEFB and 3CEFC been merged into a single form?

Ans: The three forms have been merged to simplify compliance, reduce duplication, and enable a unified, system-driven (smart) e-form. The merged form allows an assessee to opt for Safe Harbour for eligible international transaction (EIT), eligible specified domestic transaction (ESDT) and/or eligible business (EB) through a single application.

3. Who is required to file Form No. 49?

Ans: All eligible assessees as per Rule 87/95/99(c), intending to opt for Safe Harbour shall file the Form No. 49 for the relevant tax year with respect to:

i. EIT as per Rule 88, and/or

ii. ESDT as per Rule 96, and/or

iii. EB as per Rule 99(d).

4. Is filing of Form No. 49 mandatory?

Ans: No. Filing of Form No. 49 is required only if an eligible assessee intends to opt for the Safe Harbour provisions.

5. What is the due date for filing Form No. 49?

Ans: While Form No. 49 is generally filed for a relevant tax year, for EIT of provision of information technology services, it can be filed for the relevant tax years up to 30th June of the financial year immediately succeeding the first tax year out of a period of five consecutive tax years. For other eligible transactions, the due date remains on or before the due date specified in section 263(1)(b). However, the return of income for the relevant tax year is to be furnished on or before the date of furnishing the form.

6. How can Form No. 49 be filed?

Ans: Form No. 49 can be filed electronically through the Income-tax e-filing portal using the assessee’s user ID and password.

7. Can Form No. 49 be filed offline?

Ans: No. Form No. 49 is an electronic form and can be filed only in online mode through the e-filing portal.

8. What are the main parts of Form No. 49?

Ans: Form No. 49 consists of the two main parts:

  • PART A: Particulars of the person (basic information).
  • PART B: Other Information consisting of five sub-items: Option for Safe Harbour, Tax Year(s), Eligible International Transaction (EIT), Eligible Specified Domestic Transaction (ESDT), and Eligible Business (EB).

9. Can an assessee fill more than one part of the form?

Ans: Depending upon eligibility, an assessee can opt for Safe Harbour for one or more of the following:

i. Eligible International Transaction (EIT),

ii. Eligible Specified Domestic Transaction (ESDT), and/or

iii. Eligible Business (EB).

The form is a smart form and only the relevant part(s) of the form will be displayed electronically, depending upon the option(s) selected by the applicant.

10. What are the eligible international transactions?

Ans: Eligible international transactions specified under rule 88 includes:

(a) provision of information technology services consisting of any one or more of the following:—

(i) provision of software development services;

(ii) provision of information technology enabled services;

(iii) provision of knowledge process outsourcing services;

(iv) provision of contract research and development services wholly or partly relating to software development with insignificant risk, to a non-resident associated enterprise;

(b) advance of intra-group loan;

(c) provision of corporate guarantee, where the amount guaranteed, —

(i) does not exceed one hundred crore rupees; or

(ii) exceeds one hundred crore rupees, and the credit rating of the associated enterprise, done by an agency registered with the Securities and Exchange Board of India, is of the adequate to highest safety;

(d) provision of contract research and development services wholly or partly relating to generic pharmaceutical drugs with insignificant risk, to a non-resident associated enterprise;

(e) manufacture and export of core auto components;

(f) manufacture and export of non-core auto components; or

(g) receipt of low value-adding intra-group services from one or more members of its group; or

(h) provision of the data centre services.

11. Can details of multiple associated enterprises (AEs) be reported in the form?

Ans: Yes. For each eligible transaction, details of one or more associated enterprises can be furnished by adding multiple rows in the relevant tables.

12. Is it mandatory to provide Taxpayer Identification Number (TIN) of the associated enterprise?

Ans: Yes. TIN of the associated enterprise (AE) in the country or territory of residence is a mandatory field. PAN of AE may be provided where available.

13. Are transactions with AEs located in no-tax or low-tax jurisdictions eligible for Safe Harbour?

Ans: No. If the associated enterprise is located in a country or territory notified as no-tax or low-tax jurisdiction or notified under section 176 of the Income-tax Act, 2025, Safe Harbour is not available for such transaction(s).

14. What additional details are required for EIT being ‘advance of intra-group loans’?

Ans: Additional details such as denomination of loan, amount, currency, interest rate, credit rating are required to be furnished. Also, if the loan is in foreign currency, whether the loan advanced to the AE including all loans to all AEs exceed Rs. 250 crore as on 31st March of the tax year to be indicated through ‘Yes’ or ‘No’.

15. What additional details are required for EIT being ‘provision of corporate guarantee’?

Ans: Additional details such rate of commission or fee charged and amount of corporate guarantee to be provided. Also, whether the amount guaranteed exceeds Rs. 100 crore to be indicated through ‘Yes’ or ‘No’.

16. When is credit rating mandatory for intra-group loans and corporate guarantees?

Ans: Credit rating is required in accordance with the circumstances specified under Rule 89(2). In case of corporate guarantees exceeding INR 100 crore, credit rating by a SEBI-registered agency is mandatory.

17. What additional details are required for EIT being ‘receipt of low value-adding intragroup services’?

Ans: Additional details such amount of EIT excluding mark-up, mark-up, amount of EIT including mark-up and details of certificate of accountant to be provided. Also, certificate of the accountant to be uploaded as Annexure.

18. Who is eligible assessee for Eligible Specified Domestic Transaction (ESDT)?

Ans: The “eligible assessee” means a person who has exercised a valid option for application of safe harbour rules in accordance with the provisions of Rule 97, and:

i. is a government companies engaged in generation, supply, transmission or distribution of electricity, or

ii. is a co-operative society engaged in procuring and marketing milk and milk products.

19. Who is eligible assessee for Eligible Business (EB)?

Ans: Eligible assessee for Eligible Business (EB) means:—

(i) a foreign company engaged in the business of diamond mining which has exercised an option for application of safe harbour rules in accordance with Rule 100; or

(ii) a foreign company who stores components in a warehouse in a custom bonded area for providing them to a contract manufacturer to be used for manufacturing of specified electronic goods.

20. What is eligible business for safe harbour rules?

Ans: Eligible Business (EB) means:—

(i) a business of selling raw diamonds in any notified special zone as referred under section 9(8)(c)(ii)(C); or

(ii) the business activity of storage of components in a warehouse in a custom bonded area for sale to a contract manufacturer to be used for manufacturing of specified electronic goods.

21. What are raw diamonds?

Ans: Raw diamonds mean diamonds that are, –

(i) uncut or unpolished;

(ii) unassorted;

(iii) unworked or simply sawn, cleaved or bruted;

(iv) not conflict diamonds as defined by the Kimberley Process;

(v) accompanied by Kimberley Process Certificate issued by the Kimberley Process

(vi) authority in the exporting country; and falling under Tariff Heading 7102 of the First Schedule to the Customs Tariff Act, 1975 (51 of 1975).

22. What are specified electronic goods?

Ans: Specified electronic goods mean:—

(i) mobile phones;

(ii) laptops, all-in-one personal computers and tablets;

(iii) servers and ultra small form factor (USSF);

(iv) sub-assemblies to the finished goods mentioned above; or

(v) hearables and wearables and accessories related to the finished goods mentioned above.

23. What happens if profits of the eligible business are less than the prescribed threshold?

Ans: If the profits and gains of the eligible business are less than the threshold mentioned in Rule 100, the assessee is not eligible for Safe Harbour.

24. What information/document is required for filing Form No. 49?

Ans: The following information/document is required for filing Form No. 49:

i. Documentation prescribed under section 171 of the Income-tax Act, 2025 and Rule 89 of the Income-tax Rules, 2026.

ii. Report from an accountant under section 172 of the Income-tax Act, 2025 and Rule 90 of the Income-tax Rules, 2026.

iii. Chartered Accountant’s certificate – If the eligible assessee has entered into any international transaction in respect of receipt of low value-adding intra-group services, the method of cost pooling, the exclusion of shareholder costs and duplicate costs from the cost pool and the reasonableness of the allocation keys used for allocation of costs to the assessee by the overseas associated enterprise is to be certified by an accountant.

iv. Credit rating of AE if an eligible assessee has advanced intra-group loans or provided corporate guarantee, wherever applicable.

25. How is Form No. 49 verified?

Ans: Form No. 49 is required to be e-verified using the prescribed modes such as Digital Signature Certificate (DSC) or Electronic Verification Code (EVC), as applicable.

***

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