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    UPI completes 10 glorious years, Emerges as World’s Largest Real-Time Payments Platform, Anchoring India’s Digital Economy
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May 1, 2026
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Unified Payments Interface scales India's digital payments ecosystem with massive adoption, interoperability, and financial inclusion.
Unified Payments Interface (UPI) has expanded over a decade into India's backbone digital payments infrastructure under NPCI and RBI oversight, with broad bank onboarding and wide merchant and person-to-person adoption. The system is described as a major driver of financial inclusion and high-frequency retail payments, supported by interoperability across banks and payment participants. UPI's scale is reflected in sharp growth in transaction volume and value, including daily and monthly record levels in 2025 and FY 2025-26, along with a large share of India's digital payments and nearly half of global real-time payment volume.
May 1, 2026
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GST collections rise to a record high as April revenue shows a strong monthly increase in tax receipts.
Gross GST collections rose by 8.7 per cent in April to a record high, according to government data, reflecting a strong increase in tax revenues during the month. The reported collection level was the highest recorded for the period covered by the update, and the note presents the rise as part of the latest monthly GST revenue position.
May 1, 2026
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GST collections reach record high as domestic receipts, import-linked inflows, and net mop-up all rise in April.
Gross Goods and Services Tax collections rose to a record high in April, with overall receipts increasing year on year. Domestic transaction revenues registered a moderate increase, while collections from imports rose sharply. Refunds also increased during the month, but net GST mop-up remained higher after adjustment for refunds.
May 1, 2026
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Crypto currency frauds and terror financing emerge as new enforcement focus areas for the agency.
The Enforcement Directorate identified crypto currency frauds, terror financing, cyber-enabled crimes and narcotics trafficking as its new focus areas, while noting a decline in bank and real estate frauds after implementation of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code and the Real Estate (Regulation and Development) Act. It also reported filing 812 chargesheets and 155 supplementary chargesheets during 2025-26, a 94 per cent conviction rate, pending money laundering trials, and restitution of assets to victims of financial fraud under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, the Fugitive Economic Offenders Act and the civil provisions of the Foreign Exchange Management Act.
May 1, 2026
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Trade barriers and tariff reduction shape the provisional EU-Mercosur deal, alongside safeguard clauses and legal challenge.
The EU-Mercosur trade agreement has taken provisional effect, beginning a gradual reduction of trade barriers and tariffs and opening wider market access for exporters and businesses on both sides. The deal is subject to a legal challenge before the EU judiciary and may be halted if the court rules against it. It preserves economic safeguard clauses for sensitive sectors such as poultry, beef, sugar and fruit while facing opposition over competition, environmental standards and market disruption.
May 1, 2026
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Windfall gains tax on fuel exports reduced as diesel and aviation turbine fuel duties are revised downward.
Windfall gains tax on exports of diesel and aviation turbine fuel was reduced, with the special additional excise duty on diesel exports cut to Rs 23 per litre and on aviation turbine fuel to Rs 33 per litre. The road and infrastructure cess on diesel exports was made nil for the next fortnight, and the duty on petrol exports remained nil. No change was made in the existing excise duty rates applicable to petrol and diesel for domestic consumption.
April 30, 2026
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FDI automatic route rules are being eased for foreign companies with limited Chinese shareholding, alongside faster processing for key sectors.
Foreign companies with Chinese or Hong Kong shareholding of up to 10 per cent are to be permitted to invest in India under the automatic route in sectors where foreign direct investment is allowed, subject to notification under FEMA. The relaxed regime does not extend to entities registered in China, Hong Kong, or other land-border countries, and earlier mandatory government approval requirements are being revised accordingly. FDI proposals in specified manufacturing-related sectors are to be processed within 60 days, and older proposals under the earlier framework are being reviewed for possible investment on intimation basis.
April 30, 2026
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Reproductive rights and legal administration take centre stage as the Supreme Court flags pregnancy termination, airfare regulation, and tribunal delays.
The Supreme Court highlighted issues concerning reproductive rights, airfare regulation, mediation in a commercial dispute, court strikes, professional misconduct, and insolvency delays. It said a child cannot be forced to bear a pregnancy and urged amendment of the law to permit termination by rape survivors beyond 20 weeks, sought a Centre affidavit on airfare guidelines, appointed a sole mediator in a textile project dispute, and took note of delays and administrative concerns in judicial and quasi-judicial processes.
April 30, 2026
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Fake Aadhaar racket enforcement exposes organised identity document forgery and illegal preparation of forged documents.
Police action against an alleged fake Aadhaar and forged-document racket led to the arrest of three persons operating an illegal setup to prepare identity documents. The search resulted in recovery of a fingerprint scanner, laptops, a hard disk, a scanner, multiple Aadhaar cards and other suspicious documents, indicating organised misuse of identity-document systems. Interrogation suggested that the group had been engaged in preparing fake identity documents for some time and was using the activity to deceive people and earn unlawful gain.
April 30, 2026
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Investment facilitation and manufacturing confidence drive grounded projects, diversified inflows, and large-scale job creation across multiple states.
Invest India facilitated the grounding of 60 projects worth over USD 6.1 billion in Financial Year 2025-26, spanning 14 states and expected to generate more than 31,000 jobs. The investment inflow was led by Europe, with participation from the United States, Japan, South Korea, Australia, and other markets, while emerging source countries reflected diversification in the investment base. The facilitation model covers the full investment lifecycle, supports joint ventures, and builds integrated industrial ecosystems. Chemicals, pharmaceuticals and biotechnology, and food processing accounted for a major share of grounded investments, alongside activity in electronics system design and manufacturing, aerospace and defence, and auto/EV.
April 30, 2026
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Basmati farming training and AI-based crop survey initiatives expand capacity building, varietal assessment and export planning.
A 70-year lease arrangement has been concluded for the development of a Basmati & Organic Training Centre-cum-Demo Farm at Tanda Bijaisi, Pilibhit, involving APEDA, the Department of Agriculture and the Government of Uttar Pradesh. The proposed facility will support capacity building for Basmati and organic farmers and function as a resource centre for agricultural experts and students. India's first AI-based Basmati Paddy Survey project has also been launched for crop assessment, varietal identification, scientific advisory support and export planning.
April 30, 2026
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Stressed asset resolution gains pace as NARCL expands acquisitions and accelerates recoveries across large borrower accounts.
National Asset Reconstruction Company Limited (NARCL) has expanded its stressed asset resolution role by acquiring 33 borrower entities with aggregate debt exposure of Rs.1,65,862 crore and participating in resolution processes under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code. FY 2025-26 saw accelerated recoveries, with Rs.4,364 crore realised during the year and cumulative recoveries reaching Rs.6,345 crore across 23 accounts, while further recoveries remain underway.
April 30, 2026
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Industry-aligned online MCA programme adds Microsoft certifications and Internshala tie-up to boost employability and career readiness.
Chandigarh University Online has launched its Online MCA programme with embedded Microsoft certifications in AI, cloud computing, software development, data analytics and IT administration to improve employability and career readiness. The university has also partnered with Internshala to give students access to industry-relevant opportunities and practical exposure through internships, jobs, online trainings and placement courses.
April 30, 2026
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Workforce expansion in public sector banks aims to improve service delivery, financial inclusion, and operational capacity.
Public sector banks have been strengthened through calibrated human resource expansion, with recruitment aligned to manpower requirements and conducted through a centralised and standardised IBPS process intended to support transparency and efficiency. The staffing initiative has led to substantial year-on-year growth in selected candidates and is directed toward improving operational capacity, reducing workload pressures, enhancing customer service, supporting underserved areas, and advancing financial inclusion and credit outreach.
April 30, 2026
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LPG subsidy targeting tightens as households with PNG connections must surrender domestic gas links.
Government is identifying households with dual LPG and PNG connections under an order that bars PNG consumers from retaining or obtaining subsidised domestic LPG. Such consumers must surrender their domestic LPG connection, while government oil companies and distributors are prohibited from issuing new domestic LPG connections or supplying cylinder refills to them. The measure is aimed at curbing misuse, targeting subsidies better, and prioritising LPG supply for households without piped gas access.
April 30, 2026
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Resolution plan approval delays under insolvency law draw suo motu attention over backlog and tribunal capacity concerns.
Delay in approval of resolution plans by NCLT benches under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code has been taken up by the Supreme Court on a suo motu basis. The Court flagged shortage of manpower and infrastructure in the NCLT system and noted a large backlog of pending approval applications nationwide, with delays extending beyond 700 days. The matter was directed to be placed before the Chief Justice of India for assignment to an appropriate bench.
April 30, 2026
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Zero-rated exports under GST and IMEC momentum are strengthening Karnataka's trade prospects amid global disruptions.
The India-Middle East-Europe Economic Corridor is described as an alternative trade pathway to traditional maritime choke points amid geopolitical tensions, with the potential to improve connectivity and reduce freight and sailing-time costs. Exporters are also said to benefit from the GST regime because exports are treated as zero-rated supplies, allowing refund of input taxes. Recent measures have accelerated refund processing, reduced documentation and compliance costs, and eased working capital pressure.
April 30, 2026
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Oil supply independence may pressure prices as the UAE exits OPEC and alters market expectations.
The United Arab Emirates' withdrawal from OPEC and OPEC+ gives it independent control over production and exports, potentially increasing global oil supply outside collective quota agreements. The article explains that any price effect will depend on whether the UAE can raise exports despite shipping disruption through the Strait of Hormuz, and that markets may react immediately to expectations, speculation and uncertainty even before output changes occur.
April 30, 2026
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Export promotion strategy focuses on MSME support, market access, logistics and monitoring for the export target.
A review of the export promotion strategy focused on achieving India's USD 2 trillion export target by 2030-31 through a structured monitoring framework, inter-departmental coordination and IT-enabled tracking. The Export Promotion Mission was highlighted as a flagship MSME-focused initiative with two sub-schemes covering trade finance and market access, supported by operational components including credit support, testing and certification, warehousing, logistics and trade facilitation. The review emphasised ground-level delivery for exporters, especially MSMEs, agricultural exporters and first-time exporters, alongside stronger Brand India promotion.
April 30, 2026
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Insurance modernisation through digitalisation, customised products and wider outreach was emphasised to strengthen service delivery and growth.
Strategic review of the vision documents of four public sector insurance companies focused on improving operational efficiency, financial soundness, sustainable growth, human resource and IT strategies, and service delivery. The review emphasized reducing loss ratios, preserving market share, strengthening retail portfolios and rural and semi-urban presence, developing customised products for younger customers and emerging risks, and advancing full digitalisation. It also highlighted cybersecurity compliance, online insurance services, grievance redressal, prompt claims processing, and expansion of distribution networks through outreach and social media.

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Form No. 49 - Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs)

March 27, 2026

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Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs)

Form No. 49 (Merged form of erstwhile Forms 3CEFA, 3CEFB and 3CEFC)

Application for opting for Safe Harbour under section 167 of the Income-tax Act, 2025

Name of form as per I.T. Rules, 1962

Forms 3CEFA, 3CEFB and 3CEFC

Name of form as per I.T. Rules, 2026

Form No. 49

Corresponding section of I.T. Act, 1961

92CB

Corresponding section of I.T. Act, 2025

167

Corresponding Rule of I.T. Rules, 1962

10TA to 10TIC

Corresponding Rule of I.T. Rules, 2026

86 to 102

1. What is Form No. 49?

Ans: Form No. 49 is a prescribed e-form to opt for Safe Harbour under section 167 of the Income-tax Act, 2025 read with rules 86 to 102 of the Income-tax Rules, 2026. The form is a merged and simplified version of the erstwhile Forms 3CEFA, 3CEFB and 3CEFC.

2. Why have Forms 3CEFA, 3CEFB and 3CEFC been merged into a single form?

Ans: The three forms have been merged to simplify compliance, reduce duplication, and enable a unified, system-driven (smart) e-form. The merged form allows an assessee to opt for Safe Harbour for eligible international transaction (EIT), eligible specified domestic transaction (ESDT) and/or eligible business (EB) through a single application.

3. Who is required to file Form No. 49?

Ans: All eligible assessees as per Rule 87/95/99(c), intending to opt for Safe Harbour shall file the Form No. 49 for the relevant tax year with respect to:

i. EIT as per Rule 88, and/or

ii. ESDT as per Rule 96, and/or

iii. EB as per Rule 99(d).

4. Is filing of Form No. 49 mandatory?

Ans: No. Filing of Form No. 49 is required only if an eligible assessee intends to opt for the Safe Harbour provisions.

5. What is the due date for filing Form No. 49?

Ans: While Form No. 49 is generally filed for a relevant tax year, for EIT of provision of information technology services, it can be filed for the relevant tax years up to 30th June of the financial year immediately succeeding the first tax year out of a period of five consecutive tax years. For other eligible transactions, the due date remains on or before the due date specified in section 263(1)(b). However, the return of income for the relevant tax year is to be furnished on or before the date of furnishing the form.

6. How can Form No. 49 be filed?

Ans: Form No. 49 can be filed electronically through the Income-tax e-filing portal using the assessee’s user ID and password.

7. Can Form No. 49 be filed offline?

Ans: No. Form No. 49 is an electronic form and can be filed only in online mode through the e-filing portal.

8. What are the main parts of Form No. 49?

Ans: Form No. 49 consists of the two main parts:

  • PART A: Particulars of the person (basic information).
  • PART B: Other Information consisting of five sub-items: Option for Safe Harbour, Tax Year(s), Eligible International Transaction (EIT), Eligible Specified Domestic Transaction (ESDT), and Eligible Business (EB).

9. Can an assessee fill more than one part of the form?

Ans: Depending upon eligibility, an assessee can opt for Safe Harbour for one or more of the following:

i. Eligible International Transaction (EIT),

ii. Eligible Specified Domestic Transaction (ESDT), and/or

iii. Eligible Business (EB).

The form is a smart form and only the relevant part(s) of the form will be displayed electronically, depending upon the option(s) selected by the applicant.

10. What are the eligible international transactions?

Ans: Eligible international transactions specified under rule 88 includes:

(a) provision of information technology services consisting of any one or more of the following:—

(i) provision of software development services;

(ii) provision of information technology enabled services;

(iii) provision of knowledge process outsourcing services;

(iv) provision of contract research and development services wholly or partly relating to software development with insignificant risk, to a non-resident associated enterprise;

(b) advance of intra-group loan;

(c) provision of corporate guarantee, where the amount guaranteed, —

(i) does not exceed one hundred crore rupees; or

(ii) exceeds one hundred crore rupees, and the credit rating of the associated enterprise, done by an agency registered with the Securities and Exchange Board of India, is of the adequate to highest safety;

(d) provision of contract research and development services wholly or partly relating to generic pharmaceutical drugs with insignificant risk, to a non-resident associated enterprise;

(e) manufacture and export of core auto components;

(f) manufacture and export of non-core auto components; or

(g) receipt of low value-adding intra-group services from one or more members of its group; or

(h) provision of the data centre services.

11. Can details of multiple associated enterprises (AEs) be reported in the form?

Ans: Yes. For each eligible transaction, details of one or more associated enterprises can be furnished by adding multiple rows in the relevant tables.

12. Is it mandatory to provide Taxpayer Identification Number (TIN) of the associated enterprise?

Ans: Yes. TIN of the associated enterprise (AE) in the country or territory of residence is a mandatory field. PAN of AE may be provided where available.

13. Are transactions with AEs located in no-tax or low-tax jurisdictions eligible for Safe Harbour?

Ans: No. If the associated enterprise is located in a country or territory notified as no-tax or low-tax jurisdiction or notified under section 176 of the Income-tax Act, 2025, Safe Harbour is not available for such transaction(s).

14. What additional details are required for EIT being ‘advance of intra-group loans’?

Ans: Additional details such as denomination of loan, amount, currency, interest rate, credit rating are required to be furnished. Also, if the loan is in foreign currency, whether the loan advanced to the AE including all loans to all AEs exceed Rs. 250 crore as on 31st March of the tax year to be indicated through ‘Yes’ or ‘No’.

15. What additional details are required for EIT being ‘provision of corporate guarantee’?

Ans: Additional details such rate of commission or fee charged and amount of corporate guarantee to be provided. Also, whether the amount guaranteed exceeds Rs. 100 crore to be indicated through ‘Yes’ or ‘No’.

16. When is credit rating mandatory for intra-group loans and corporate guarantees?

Ans: Credit rating is required in accordance with the circumstances specified under Rule 89(2). In case of corporate guarantees exceeding INR 100 crore, credit rating by a SEBI-registered agency is mandatory.

17. What additional details are required for EIT being ‘receipt of low value-adding intragroup services’?

Ans: Additional details such amount of EIT excluding mark-up, mark-up, amount of EIT including mark-up and details of certificate of accountant to be provided. Also, certificate of the accountant to be uploaded as Annexure.

18. Who is eligible assessee for Eligible Specified Domestic Transaction (ESDT)?

Ans: The “eligible assessee” means a person who has exercised a valid option for application of safe harbour rules in accordance with the provisions of Rule 97, and:

i. is a government companies engaged in generation, supply, transmission or distribution of electricity, or

ii. is a co-operative society engaged in procuring and marketing milk and milk products.

19. Who is eligible assessee for Eligible Business (EB)?

Ans: Eligible assessee for Eligible Business (EB) means:—

(i) a foreign company engaged in the business of diamond mining which has exercised an option for application of safe harbour rules in accordance with Rule 100; or

(ii) a foreign company who stores components in a warehouse in a custom bonded area for providing them to a contract manufacturer to be used for manufacturing of specified electronic goods.

20. What is eligible business for safe harbour rules?

Ans: Eligible Business (EB) means:—

(i) a business of selling raw diamonds in any notified special zone as referred under section 9(8)(c)(ii)(C); or

(ii) the business activity of storage of components in a warehouse in a custom bonded area for sale to a contract manufacturer to be used for manufacturing of specified electronic goods.

21. What are raw diamonds?

Ans: Raw diamonds mean diamonds that are, –

(i) uncut or unpolished;

(ii) unassorted;

(iii) unworked or simply sawn, cleaved or bruted;

(iv) not conflict diamonds as defined by the Kimberley Process;

(v) accompanied by Kimberley Process Certificate issued by the Kimberley Process

(vi) authority in the exporting country; and falling under Tariff Heading 7102 of the First Schedule to the Customs Tariff Act, 1975 (51 of 1975).

22. What are specified electronic goods?

Ans: Specified electronic goods mean:—

(i) mobile phones;

(ii) laptops, all-in-one personal computers and tablets;

(iii) servers and ultra small form factor (USSF);

(iv) sub-assemblies to the finished goods mentioned above; or

(v) hearables and wearables and accessories related to the finished goods mentioned above.

23. What happens if profits of the eligible business are less than the prescribed threshold?

Ans: If the profits and gains of the eligible business are less than the threshold mentioned in Rule 100, the assessee is not eligible for Safe Harbour.

24. What information/document is required for filing Form No. 49?

Ans: The following information/document is required for filing Form No. 49:

i. Documentation prescribed under section 171 of the Income-tax Act, 2025 and Rule 89 of the Income-tax Rules, 2026.

ii. Report from an accountant under section 172 of the Income-tax Act, 2025 and Rule 90 of the Income-tax Rules, 2026.

iii. Chartered Accountant’s certificate – If the eligible assessee has entered into any international transaction in respect of receipt of low value-adding intra-group services, the method of cost pooling, the exclusion of shareholder costs and duplicate costs from the cost pool and the reasonableness of the allocation keys used for allocation of costs to the assessee by the overseas associated enterprise is to be certified by an accountant.

iv. Credit rating of AE if an eligible assessee has advanced intra-group loans or provided corporate guarantee, wherever applicable.

25. How is Form No. 49 verified?

Ans: Form No. 49 is required to be e-verified using the prescribed modes such as Digital Signature Certificate (DSC) or Electronic Verification Code (EVC), as applicable.

***

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