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August 24, 2026
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Free trade agreement strategy expands preferential market access and supports India's integration into global value chains and investment partnerships.
India's free trade agreement strategy seeks to expand preferential market access and integrate the country into global value chains as a trusted trading partner. Negotiations with additional country groups and individual nations are intended to extend agreement coverage to a substantial share of global trade. Investment opportunities are identified in data centres, manufacturing and artificial intelligence, alongside an objective of developing more balanced trade relations between India and Japan.
August 24, 2026
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Foreign exchange market conditions supported rupee appreciation, but crude prices, importer demand and geopolitical sanctions concerns limited gains.
Foreign exchange market conditions supported a modest early appreciation of the rupee against the US dollar due to relative dollar softness. The gain was limited by elevated crude oil prices, importer demand for dollars, and caution over anticipated sanctions affecting Iranian oil trade, banking networks and shipping routes. Currency markets remained sensitive to geopolitical uncertainty and possible wider trade effects.
August 23, 2026
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Undeclared gold importation led to customs interception, seizure, arrest and continuing investigation after concealment inside passenger clothing.
Customs enforcement against undeclared gold importation involved interception of a passenger arriving from Sharjah at Ahmedabad airport following passenger profiling. A gold chain concealed inside clothing was recovered after it was not declared for customs purposes. The chain was seized and the passenger was arrested under the Customs Act, 1962, before being released on bail, with further investigation continuing.
August 23, 2026
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Digital arrest cyber fraud used impersonation, forged notices and coercive video calls to obtain transfers through mule accounts.
Digital arrest cyber fraud allegedly used impersonation of law-enforcement and central banking officials, fabricated notices, threats of arrest and continuous video communications to coerce a retired railway employee into disclosing financial details and transferring funds for purported verification. The alleged proceeds were routed through mule and shell accounts. Banking records, KYC details, digital evidence and transaction trails allegedly connected a recipient account with suspicious transactions and multiple cyber-fraud cases; part of the cheated amount was recovered or refunded.
August 23, 2026
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Political targeting allegations challenge money-laundering enforcement actions, searches, questioning, and public disclosures in the CMRL investigation.
CPI(M) alleges that enforcement action under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act in the CMRL matter is politically motivated targeting of Pinarayi Vijayan, family members and party associates. It contends that searches, questioning and public communications during the investigation were used to create suspicion without incriminating evidence, and characterises references to hawala as a new investigative narrative. The party also alleges selective anti-money-laundering enforcement against opposition leaders and states that the company will address the CMRL-related matter.
August 23, 2026
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Money-laundering investigation into alleged liquor transport irregularities results in arrests connected with claimed loss to the government exchequer.
Money-laundering proceedings concerning alleged financial irregularities in liquor transport led to the arrest of former Andhra Pradesh minister Karumuri Nageswara Rao under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act. The inquiry concerns alleged wrongful loss to the government exchequer arising from liquor-transport operations. Investigative measures included raids and the arrest of Rao's son, along with arrests of a former state beverages corporation managing director and the person described as the principal accused.
August 23, 2026
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Alleged LLP record forgery raises cheating, breach of trust and conspiracy concerns over unauthorised partnership interest changes.
Alleged forgery, cheating, criminal breach of trust and conspiracy concern purported unauthorised changes to LLP statutory records filed with the Registrar of Companies. The allegations include use of false documents to remove a nominated partner, substitute another person as partner and transfer a partner's interest in the LLP. The matter also draws attention to separate land-collaboration allegations and delayed possession claims by homebuyers in a halted housing project.
August 23, 2026
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Voluntary production curtailment addresses polyester yarn cost volatility as weaving units seek customs-duty relief on inputs.
Voluntary production curtailment by weaving units is being adopted in response to increased polyester yarn and related input costs. Units may reduce shifts or observe periodic holidays according to individual commercial feasibility to limit yarn consumption until prices and fabric-market conditions stabilise. Industry representatives allege that yarn-price increases exceed corresponding input-cost movements and seek examination of possible artificial pricing, along with customs-duty relief on yarn and relevant inputs.
August 22, 2026
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Retaliatory tariffs escalate trade restrictions as historic tariff authority enables duties without prior investigation or a prescribed duration.
Retaliatory tariffs are set to escalate bilateral trade restrictions after the United States imposed tariffs of up to 50 per cent on specified Canadian imports. Canada proposes dollar-for-dollar countermeasures covering sectors including steel, dairy, appliances, agricultural equipment, pulp and paper and electronics. Section 338 of the Tariff Act of 1930 is invoked as the legal basis for the United States measures, permitting presidential import duties up to 50 per cent without a prior investigation or prescribed maximum duration. Escalation creates uncertainty for supply chains and renewal of the United States-Mexico-Canada Agreement.
August 22, 2026
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Reciprocal tariffs reshape Canada-United States trade relations, increasing supply-chain risks and accelerating Canadian trade diversification beyond its primary export market.
Canada-United States trade relations are described as entering a confrontational phase after tariff negotiations collapsed. The United States imposed tariffs on specified Canadian goods, while Canada committed to reciprocal import taxes and suspended negotiations. The dispute marks a retreat from preferential market access and continental integration. Canada's export dependence on the United States may limit retaliation and increase risks to output, employment, investment and integrated supply chains. Trade diversification, non-United States investment and expanded Pacific export infrastructure are identified as responses to a potentially enduring protectionist bilateral relationship.
August 22, 2026
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Retaliatory tariffs on United States goods will target key sectors after trade negotiations failed and reciprocal tariff relief was unavailable.
Retaliatory tariffs on United States goods will take effect from 8 September in response to United States tariffs on Canadian products and unsuccessful negotiations. The dollar-for-dollar measures will cover steel, dairy, appliances, agricultural equipment, pulp and paper, and electronics, with product-specific details to follow. Canada had been willing to remove certain retaliatory tariffs if corresponding United States tariffs were substantially reduced, but considered the final demands unacceptable.
August 22, 2026
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Power tariff revision faces political opposition over increased consumer electricity costs and conflict with prior free-electricity commitments.
Power tariff regulation in Jammu and Kashmir and Ladakh has been revised through approval of an average tariff increase, effective from 1 September 2026. Political representatives have opposed the increase on the ground that it adds to consumer hardship amid unemployment, inflation, and sectoral difficulties. The criticism also contrasts the revised tariff with prior commitments concerning free domestic electricity and gas.
August 22, 2026
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Recruitment examination integrity prompted enforcement scrutiny and proposed disciplinary inquiry, while an officer's absence was attributed to family emergency.
Reported absence of an IAS officer was attributed to a family medical emergency and a pending leave request, rather than enforcement searches concerning an alleged recruitment-examination scam. The officer denied any connection with those searches and expressed willingness to face an inquiry. Enforcement searches at the Karnataka Public Service Commission concerned a money-laundering investigation into alleged recruitment irregularities. The State Cabinet decided to advise suspension of the commission chairperson and initiation of an inquiry after an earlier suspension was set aside for lacking the Cabinet's aid and advice.
August 22, 2026
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Money-laundering and benami asset allegations prompt enforcement proceedings, while the accused officer's brother calls the action selective targeting.
Enforcement proceedings under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act concern allegations that suspended police officer Vijay Choudhary managed numerous assets through benami transactions and engaged in money laundering. An Anti-Corruption Bureau FIR had already been registered in relation to the allegations. Surinder Choudhary characterised the action as selective targeting but maintained that investigating agencies and the judiciary should address and decide matters concerning his family.
August 22, 2026
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Specialised dispute resolution requires technical expertise, timely proceedings, mediation support, and human oversight to safeguard natural justice.
Specialised, timely and effective dispute-resolution mechanisms are necessary for technically complex disputes in telecom, broadcasting, airport tariffs and cyber sectors. Technology may assist legal reasoning but cannot replace judicial reasoning, requiring verification, professional responsibility and meaningful human oversight. Effective specialised adjudication should combine domain expertise with judicial discipline, respond to technical complexity, and protect natural justice, transparency and reasoned decision-making. Mediation and other consensual mechanisms can support dispute resolution.
August 22, 2026
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Form 15CB certification faces scrutiny where inadequate verification allegedly enables foreign remittances through shell companies and false certificates.
Alleged misuse of Form 15CB certification has resulted in criminal proceedings concerning certificates issued for foreign remittances without verification of underlying documents. Form 15CB requires certification of applicable taxability and tax-deduction particulars for specified remittances to non-residents before processing by an authorised dealer. The allegations concern certificates that potentially enabled cross-border transfers through shell or non-existent companies, involving cheating, false certification, false evidence and common intention.
August 22, 2026
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Beginner stock market investing requires regulated accounts, risk-aware financial planning, diversification and informed company assessment before purchasing securities.
Beginner stock market investing requires a bank account, a trading or broking account with a SEBI-registered broker, and a Demat account for electronic holding of securities. Investments involve risk of loss and should align with financial goals, time horizon and loss-bearing capacity. Investors should understand primary and secondary markets, distinguish long-term investing from short-term trading, assess companies before purchase, diversify holdings, consider charges, maintain records and avoid borrowed-money investing, rumours and momentum-driven decisions.
August 22, 2026
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Capacity-based tobacco taxation targets undeclared packing machinery used for clandestine production and clearance without indirect tax payment.
Clandestine manufacture and clearance of pan masala, scented jarda and tobacco products without registration or payment of GST, HSNS Cess and central excise duty was detected through an intelligence-led search. Undeclared Form-Fill-Seal packing machines, workers, finished goods, raw materials, transport vehicles, packing materials and records indicated unaccounted production and clearance. Capacity-based monthly HSNS Cess for pan masala is computed according to the number, type and capacity of installed packing machines, while a corresponding capacity-based central excise levy applies to chewing tobacco, jarda and gutkha.
August 22, 2026
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Trade exhibition connects Korean exporters with Indian buyers through sector-specific consultations and certification guidance for market entry.
KoINDEX 2026 is a business-to-business trade exhibition bringing Korean manufacturers and exporters together with buyers in India and South Asia. It focuses on beauty and personal-care products, processed and functional foods, and construction, building and safety products. Commercial engagement includes pre-matched export consultations with project owners, contractors, distributors, wholesalers, e-commerce platforms and food distribution businesses. A seminar addresses Bureau of Indian Standards certification and market-entry requirements for Korean products entering the Indian market.
August 22, 2026
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Independent PMLA proceedings require separate anticipatory bail assessment; predicate-offence protection alone cannot establish pre-arrest protection.
Protection in a predicate-offence FIR does not automatically extend to independent PMLA proceedings. Anticipatory bail in a money-laundering investigation must be assessed under the applicable PMLA condition and on the material connecting the applicant to alleged proceeds of crime. Relevant considerations include the financial trail, recorded statements, bank-account analysis, compliance with summonses, cooperation with inquiry, and the need for personal participation in evidence collection and confrontation with documentary and digital material.

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Form No. 24 – Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs)

March 25, 2026

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Form No. 24 – Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs)

Form of Audit Report under Section 59(4) of the Income-tax Act, 2025.

Name of Form as per I.T. Rules, 1962 Form

3

CE Name of Form as per I.T. Rules, 2026

Form No. 24

Corresponding Section of I.T. Act, 1961

44DA

Corresponding section of I.T. Act, 2025

59

Corresponding Rule of I.T. Rules, 1962

Rule 6GA

Corresponding Rules of I.T. Rules, 2026

Rule 43

1. What is Form No. 24?

Ans:- Form No. 24 is a prescribed audit report required to be furnished under Rule 43 read with Section 59(4) of the Income-tax Act, 2025. It is applicable to non-residents or foreign companies earning income by way of royalty or fees for technical services (FTS) from India through a Permanent Establishment (PE) or a fixed place of profession situated in India.

2. Who should file Form No. 24?

Ans:- Form No. 24 is required to be furnished by:

  • Non-resident individuals
  • Foreign companies
  • Any other non-resident entities

who earn royalty or fees for technical services from India and where such income is effectively connected with a Permanent Establishment or fixed place of profession in India. The form is certified by an Accountant as defined in section 515(3)(b) of the Income-tax Act, 2025.

3. Is Form No. 24 compulsory?

Ans:- Yes. Furnishing of Form No. 24 is mandatory where income by way of royalty or fees for technical services is taxable under Section 59 through a Permanent Establishment or fixed place of profession in India.

4. When does the requirement of furnishing Form No. 24 arise?

Ans:- The requirement arises when a non-resident assessee or foreign company earns royalty or fees for technical services from India under an agreement with the Government of India or an Indian concern, and such income is effectively connected with a Permanent Establishment or fixed place of profession in India.

5. What documents / information are required to prepare Form No. 24?

Ans:- The Chartered Accountant will require:

a. Complete books of account and records relating to the business of the Permanent Establishment (PE) or fixed place of profession in India for the relevant tax year.

b. Accurate computation of income earned by way of royalty or fees for technical services (FTS), ensuring such income is effectively connected with the Indian PE.

c. Documentation supporting the claim for expenditure (excluding those not allowable under Section 59) that is strictly attributable to the PE or fixed place of profession.

d. A copy of the agreement with the Government of India or the Indian concern under which the royalty or FTS is earned (Annexure A-2).

e. A detailed note on the intangible property (know-how, copyrights, patents, etc.) used, or the specific contract for which the fees are payable (Annexure A-3).

f. A descriptive note outlining the activities of the PE or the fixed place of profession in India (Annexure A-4).

g. Details of any change in the method of accounting employed compared to the previous year and its effect on profit or loss (Annexure A-1).

h. The Accountant’s Membership Number, Firm Registration Number, and a generated Unique Document Identification Number (UDIN) for the electronic certification.

6. What is the due date for furnishing Form No. 24?

Ans:- Form No. 24 is required to be furnished annually, at least one month prior to the due date for furnishing the return of income under Section 263(1) of the Income-tax Act, 2025.

7. What is the effect of furnishing Form No. 24?

Ans:- Furnishing of Form No. 24 enables computation of royalty or fees for technical services on a net income basis after allowing only such expenses as are attributable to the Permanent Establishment or fixed place of profession in India.

8. What is the structure of Form No. 24?

Ans:- Form No. 24 consists of:

- Main Audit Report: The core certification under Section 59 of the Income-tax Act, 2025, where the accountant certifies the amount of royalty or fees for technical services (FTS) and its effective connection with the Permanent Establishment (PE) or fixed place of profession in India.

- Annexure – Part A: This section captures the General Particulars of the Assessee, including their name, address, Permanent Account Number (PAN), and the relevant tax year.

- Annexure – Part B: This section contains the Statement of Particulars relating to income by way of royalty or fees for technical services, detailing the books of account, method of accounting, details of the payer, and head-wise expenditure attributable to the PE.

- Specific Annexures (A-1 to A-4): Depending on the responses in Part B, additional detailed notes must be attached, such as the copy of the agreement (Annexure A-2), notes on intangible property (Annexure A-3), and notes on the specific activities of the PE (Annexure A-4).

9. What is the process flow of filing Form No. 24?

Ans:- The process flow includes:

a. The process starts with identifying whether the non-resident or foreign company has a Permanent Establishment (PE) or a fixed place of profession in India during the tax year.

b. All income earned via royalty or fees for technical services (FTS) effectively connected to the PE must be compiled, along with expenditures strictly attributable to the PE.

c. The assessee must engage an "Accountant" as defined in Section 515(3)(b) to audit these accounts and verify the correctness of the income computation.

d. The accountant prepares the audit report and mandatory annexures, including Annexure A-2 (Agreement copy), Annexure A3 (Note on intangibles/contracts), and Annexure A-4 (Note on PE activities).

e. The accountant logs into the e-filing portal to fill out the form, ensuring the inclusion of their Membership Number, Firm Registration Number, and a generated Unique Document Identification Number (UDIN).

f. The accountant must digitally sign the form using their Digital Signature Certificate (DSC) to upload it.

g. After the Accountant uploads the form, it appears in the taxpayer’s worklist; the process is only complete once the assessee logs in and "Accepts" the form.

10. What is the outcome after furnishing Form No. 24?

Ans:- Upon furnishing and acceptance of Form No. 24, the income by way of royalty or fees for technical services is assessed under Section 59 on a net basis, forming part of the assessment record.

11. Why is Form No. 24 important?

Ans:- Form No. 24 is a statutory audit certificate that ensures correct attribution of income and expenses and verifies that income is effectively connected to the Permanent Establishment or fixed place of profession in India. It prevents excess deduction of expenses and ensures correct taxation of royalty or fees for technical services earned by non-residents.  

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