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    Form No. 145 – Frequently Asked Questions
    Guidance Note – Form 144
    Dependent on supply from southern states, Maharashtra plans to develop egg brand
    Unusual extension of Budget session that saw passage of key bills despite Oppn uproar
    Haryana logs 22 pc growth in SGST revenue in FY26
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    Form No. 143 – Frequently Asked Questions
    Guidance Note – Form 142
    Form No. 142 – Frequently Asked Questions
    Guidance Note – Form 141
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    In a targeted relief, Government grants full customs duty exemption on critical petrochemical products in view of ongoing conflict in West Asia
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April 3, 2026
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Mandatory foreign remittance declaration governs payments to non-residents, with exemptions, verification rules, and penalty exposure for non-compliance.
Mandatory declaration is required before remitting funds outside India to a non-resident, other than a company, or to a foreign company. The form is filed by the person responsible for the payment, subject to specified exemptions, and must be furnished before the remittance is made. The filing structure depends on whether the remittance is chargeable to tax, the applicable threshold during the tax year, and whether an Assessing Officer certificate or an Accountant's certificate has been obtained. Supporting documents, e-verification, withdrawal rights, and penalty consequences are also specified.
April 3, 2026
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Tax deducted at source on non-resident payments is reported through Form 144 with quarterly deductee-wise compliance requirements.
Quarterly statement in Form No. 144 is the prescribed TDS return for reporting tax deducted at source on payments other than salary made to non-resident persons, including non-resident Indians and foreign companies. The form covers interest, royalty, technical fees, dividends, and similar cross-border remittances, and is filed by deductors for the relevant tax year. It contains deductor particulars, tax paid details, and a deductee-wise annexure, and requires challans, PAN details, and treaty documents where benefits are claimed.
April 2, 2026
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Egg brand initiative to boost poultry farming, strengthen local production and support rural entrepreneurship in Maharashtra.
Maharashtra is planning to develop a state-specific egg brand and expand poultry farming to strengthen local egg production, reduce dependence on imports from southern states and improve supply chain stability. The initiative is linked to rural entrepreneurship and allied agricultural activity, with the aim of creating a stable market for poultry farmers, improving quality assurance and increasing incomes in rural areas. Financial assistance is being provided under the Mukhyamantri Gramin Pashudhan Udyojakata Yojana for poultry units at two levels, with higher subsidy support for SC and ST beneficiaries.
April 2, 2026
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Parliamentary legislative reform advanced across insolvency, service law, decriminalisation, and transgender rights during the extended Budget session.
Parliament's extended Budget session focused on key legislative measures covering financial business, service law reform, decriminalisation, insolvency reform, state reorganisation, and transgender rights. Bills reported as passed or considered included measures on Central Armed Police Forces, Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation, transgender persons' protection, Jan Vishwas amendments, and the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, with some bills referred for further scrutiny and one proposed amendment on foreign contribution not taken up.
April 2, 2026
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GST revenue growth and tax administration reforms lifted Haryana's SGST collections and expanded the taxpayer base.
Haryana recorded 22 per cent growth in gross State GST revenue in FY26, with post-settlement SGST collections rising to Rs 48,289 crore and its national rank improving from ninth to sixth. The number of registered GST taxpayers increased to 6,30,818, while the growth was linked to GST rate rationalisation reforms and improved tax administration.
April 2, 2026
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GST revenue growth in Bihar remained strong despite rate rationalisation, election slowdown, and IGST settlement deductions.
Bihar's commercial taxes department reported total revenue collections of Rs 43,324 crore for the 2025-26 financial year, with GST collections of Rs 32,801 crore and net GST receipt of Rs 32,077 crore after IGST settlement deduction. The department said the 9.2 per cent GST growth remained significant despite GST rate rationalisation and an election-related slowdown. The state ranked fourth among large states in total GST collection, while petrol collections declined and the Registration Department exceeded its revenue target.
April 2, 2026
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Foreign exchange controls tighten as RBI caps bank rupee positions and restricts derivative rebooking to curb volatility.
Reserve Bank of India measures were reported to have triggered a sharp recovery in the rupee after recent foreign exchange volatility. The action included a cap on the net open position in the Indian rupee for banks, a bar on offering non-deliverable derivative contracts involving the rupee to resident or non-resident users, and a restriction on rebooking cancelled foreign exchange derivative contracts. The measures were described as a response to evolving market conditions and to curb risk in derivative activity.
April 2, 2026
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Foreign exchange counters at airports can now exchange Indian rupee notes for residents and non-residents beyond immigration controls.
Residents, as well as non-residents, may exchange Indian rupee notes at foreign exchange counters in departure halls of international airports beyond the immigration or customs desk. The earlier facility at such counters was limited to buying Indian rupees from non-residents and selling foreign currency to them. The Master Direction on Money Changing Activities is being amended to reflect the expanded exchange scope.
April 2, 2026
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Tax deduction statements for non-resident payments require quarterly electronic filing, with correction statements allowed after processing.
Form No. 144 is the quarterly statement for deduction of tax at source on payments other than salary made to non-residents. It is mandatory for every deductor required to deduct tax on such payments, must be filed electronically within the prescribed quarterly due dates, and cannot be edited after submission. Corrections may be filed after processing by CPC-TDS within two years from the end of the relevant tax year. Successful filing on TRACES generates an Acknowledgment Receipt Number.
April 2, 2026
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LPG supply prioritisation reshapes refinery allocations as propylene is partly redirected to ease petrochemical shortages.
The government has adjusted refinery output directions in response to LPG import disruptions and petrochemical feedstock shortages. After requiring C3 and C4 streams to be used exclusively for LPG production, the Ministry later allowed part of the propylene supply to return to the petrochemical industry. The policy is presented as a balance between domestic LPG supply security and the needs of sectors such as packaging and condom manufacturing, alongside partial restoration and enhancement of commercial LPG allocations for priority consumers.
April 2, 2026
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Tax collected at source reporting through Form 143 streamlines quarterly filing, certificate issuance, and collectee credit tracking.
Quarterly reporting of tax collected at source is filed in Form No. 143 by collectors responsible for collection on specified transactions under the Income-tax Act, 2025. The form requires collector particulars, challan and deposit details, and collectee-wise annexure information on amounts, dates, rates, tax collected and deposited, with quarterly due dates and utility-based electronic filing. Processing may lead to default corrections, issuance of the collectee tax certificate, and reflection of TCS as credit in the collectee's tax record.
April 2, 2026
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Tax collection at source statement filing requires quarterly electronic submission, correction limits, and acknowledgment on the portal.
Form No. 143 is the mandatory quarterly electronic statement for collection of tax at source on specified goods and transactions, to be filed by the collector, seller, operator or authorised person responsible for collection at the time of debit or receipt of payment. It follows a quarterly due-date schedule, cannot be edited after submission, and may be corrected only through a correction statement after processing by CPC-TDS, within two years from the end of the relevant tax year. Successful filing generates an Acknowledgment Receipt Number on the TRACES portal.
April 2, 2026
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Virtual Digital Asset TDS reporting requires quarterly electronic filing by exchanges with transaction-wise deduction, exemption, and challan details.
Form No. 142 is the quarterly electronic statement to be furnished by a Virtual Digital Asset exchange for reporting tax deducted at source on transfer of virtual digital assets and transactions where tax was not deducted under the notified exemption framework. It must be filed with the Director General of Income-tax (Systems) and includes exchange particulars, transaction details, challan data and a declaration of correctness. The filing process uses the e-filing portal and supports smart features such as auto-population, validation, API integration and standardised fields.
April 2, 2026
Show AI Summary
Virtual digital asset tax reporting requires quarterly exchange filing, full tax deposit, and electronic submission with challan details.
Form No. 142 is a PAN-based quarterly statement to be filed electronically by a Virtual Digital Asset exchange that has agreed to deposit tax on transfers of virtual digital assets in place of deduction by the buyer or broker. It applies to VDA transactions where the exchange deposits tax, including purchase, exchange, and partly or fully in-kind settlements, and is mandatory for reporting transactions covered by the prescribed TDS mechanism. The form is filed quarterly, captures exchange, buyer or broker, transaction, and challan details, and requires full tax deposit before submission.
April 2, 2026
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Combined TDS Form 141 streamlines reporting for rent, property, professional fees, and virtual digital asset transfers.
Form No. 141 is the combined PAN-based challan-cum-statement for reporting and depositing tax deducted at source on rent, transfer of immovable property, specified professional, contract, commission and brokerage payments, and transfer of virtual digital assets. It replaces the earlier separate Forms 26QB, 26QC, 26QD and 26QE, is filed electronically within 30 days from the end of the month of deduction, and uses separate schedules for each transaction category. The revised form also allows consolidated reporting for same-status parties and introduces prefilled details, smart validations, standardised fields, and correction mechanisms.
April 2, 2026
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Settlement-linked quashing of proceedings keeps SEBI closure issue alive for Sterling Biotech and the Sandesara brothers.
Settlement-linked quashing of proceedings concerning Sterling Biotech Limited and the Sandesara brothers remained under consideration, with the Supreme Court indicating that SEBI must close its proceedings in view of the earlier order under which deposit of the settlement amount was to trigger quashing of all proceedings. The Court recorded that the amount had already been deposited in the registry and that the earlier order had been given effect to, while SEBI sought time after internal deliberations on the closure issue.
April 2, 2026
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Trade liberalisation under India-Australia ECTA expands market access, boosts exports, and advances zero-duty access for Indian goods.
India-Australia Economic Cooperation and Trade Agreement has completed four years, marking stronger bilateral economic engagement through expanded market access, reduced trade barriers, and deeper trade and supply-chain linkages. India has granted preferential access on 70.3% of its tariff lines, while Australia has granted preferential access on 100% of its tariff lines and imports from India, with most lines duty-free immediately and all Indian exports eligible for zero-duty access from 1 January 2026. The Mutual Recognition Arrangement on Organic Products supports trade by recognising certification systems and reducing duplication, cost, and time.
April 2, 2026
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Customs duty exemption on critical petrochemical inputs aims to ease supply disruptions and support downstream manufacturing.
Full customs duty exemption is granted on critical petrochemical products as a temporary and targeted relief measure in response to the ongoing conflict in West Asia and resulting supply chain disruptions. The exemption continues until 30 June 2026 and is intended to ensure continued availability of essential petrochemical inputs for domestic industry, reduce cost pressures on downstream sectors, and maintain supply stability. The notified products cover petrochemical feedstock, intermediates and related industrial inputs used across multiple manufacturing sectors.
April 2, 2026
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Consolidated TDS reporting through Form 141 streamlines tax deduction filing, schedule-wise payment, and compliance for specified transactions.
Form No. 141 is a single consolidated challan-cum-statement for reporting and payment of tax deducted at source on specified transactions through separate schedules instead of multiple standalone forms. It replaces Forms 26QB, 26QC, 26QD and 26QE, and requires only the relevant schedule to be completed for the transaction reported. The form is filed using PAN, not TAN, and is available for rent, immovable property, contractor or professional payments, and transfer of virtual digital assets, with one transaction type per form.
April 2, 2026
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Defence exports growth reflects India's indigenous manufacturing strength, wider global acceptance, and streamlined export regulation.
India's defence exports recorded a new high, driven by indigenous manufacturing strength, wider global acceptance of Indian defence products, and a collaborative ecosystem involving defence public sector undertakings and private industry. The exports reached more than 80 countries, while the number of exporters increased, reflecting growing participation in the sector. The ministry also noted that streamlined export regulatory processes, a revamped online portal, and simplified authorisation procedures supported this growth.

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Form No. 24 – Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs)

March 25, 2026

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Form No. 24 – Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs)

Form of Audit Report under Section 59(4) of the Income-tax Act, 2025.

Name of Form as per I.T. Rules, 1962 Form

3

CE Name of Form as per I.T. Rules, 2026

Form No. 24

Corresponding Section of I.T. Act, 1961

44DA

Corresponding section of I.T. Act, 2025

59

Corresponding Rule of I.T. Rules, 1962

Rule 6GA

Corresponding Rules of I.T. Rules, 2026

Rule 43

1. What is Form No. 24?

Ans:- Form No. 24 is a prescribed audit report required to be furnished under Rule 43 read with Section 59(4) of the Income-tax Act, 2025. It is applicable to non-residents or foreign companies earning income by way of royalty or fees for technical services (FTS) from India through a Permanent Establishment (PE) or a fixed place of profession situated in India.

2. Who should file Form No. 24?

Ans:- Form No. 24 is required to be furnished by:

  • Non-resident individuals
  • Foreign companies
  • Any other non-resident entities

who earn royalty or fees for technical services from India and where such income is effectively connected with a Permanent Establishment or fixed place of profession in India. The form is certified by an Accountant as defined in section 515(3)(b) of the Income-tax Act, 2025.

3. Is Form No. 24 compulsory?

Ans:- Yes. Furnishing of Form No. 24 is mandatory where income by way of royalty or fees for technical services is taxable under Section 59 through a Permanent Establishment or fixed place of profession in India.

4. When does the requirement of furnishing Form No. 24 arise?

Ans:- The requirement arises when a non-resident assessee or foreign company earns royalty or fees for technical services from India under an agreement with the Government of India or an Indian concern, and such income is effectively connected with a Permanent Establishment or fixed place of profession in India.

5. What documents / information are required to prepare Form No. 24?

Ans:- The Chartered Accountant will require:

a. Complete books of account and records relating to the business of the Permanent Establishment (PE) or fixed place of profession in India for the relevant tax year.

b. Accurate computation of income earned by way of royalty or fees for technical services (FTS), ensuring such income is effectively connected with the Indian PE.

c. Documentation supporting the claim for expenditure (excluding those not allowable under Section 59) that is strictly attributable to the PE or fixed place of profession.

d. A copy of the agreement with the Government of India or the Indian concern under which the royalty or FTS is earned (Annexure A-2).

e. A detailed note on the intangible property (know-how, copyrights, patents, etc.) used, or the specific contract for which the fees are payable (Annexure A-3).

f. A descriptive note outlining the activities of the PE or the fixed place of profession in India (Annexure A-4).

g. Details of any change in the method of accounting employed compared to the previous year and its effect on profit or loss (Annexure A-1).

h. The Accountant’s Membership Number, Firm Registration Number, and a generated Unique Document Identification Number (UDIN) for the electronic certification.

6. What is the due date for furnishing Form No. 24?

Ans:- Form No. 24 is required to be furnished annually, at least one month prior to the due date for furnishing the return of income under Section 263(1) of the Income-tax Act, 2025.

7. What is the effect of furnishing Form No. 24?

Ans:- Furnishing of Form No. 24 enables computation of royalty or fees for technical services on a net income basis after allowing only such expenses as are attributable to the Permanent Establishment or fixed place of profession in India.

8. What is the structure of Form No. 24?

Ans:- Form No. 24 consists of:

- Main Audit Report: The core certification under Section 59 of the Income-tax Act, 2025, where the accountant certifies the amount of royalty or fees for technical services (FTS) and its effective connection with the Permanent Establishment (PE) or fixed place of profession in India.

- Annexure – Part A: This section captures the General Particulars of the Assessee, including their name, address, Permanent Account Number (PAN), and the relevant tax year.

- Annexure – Part B: This section contains the Statement of Particulars relating to income by way of royalty or fees for technical services, detailing the books of account, method of accounting, details of the payer, and head-wise expenditure attributable to the PE.

- Specific Annexures (A-1 to A-4): Depending on the responses in Part B, additional detailed notes must be attached, such as the copy of the agreement (Annexure A-2), notes on intangible property (Annexure A-3), and notes on the specific activities of the PE (Annexure A-4).

9. What is the process flow of filing Form No. 24?

Ans:- The process flow includes:

a. The process starts with identifying whether the non-resident or foreign company has a Permanent Establishment (PE) or a fixed place of profession in India during the tax year.

b. All income earned via royalty or fees for technical services (FTS) effectively connected to the PE must be compiled, along with expenditures strictly attributable to the PE.

c. The assessee must engage an "Accountant" as defined in Section 515(3)(b) to audit these accounts and verify the correctness of the income computation.

d. The accountant prepares the audit report and mandatory annexures, including Annexure A-2 (Agreement copy), Annexure A3 (Note on intangibles/contracts), and Annexure A-4 (Note on PE activities).

e. The accountant logs into the e-filing portal to fill out the form, ensuring the inclusion of their Membership Number, Firm Registration Number, and a generated Unique Document Identification Number (UDIN).

f. The accountant must digitally sign the form using their Digital Signature Certificate (DSC) to upload it.

g. After the Accountant uploads the form, it appears in the taxpayer’s worklist; the process is only complete once the assessee logs in and "Accepts" the form.

10. What is the outcome after furnishing Form No. 24?

Ans:- Upon furnishing and acceptance of Form No. 24, the income by way of royalty or fees for technical services is assessed under Section 59 on a net basis, forming part of the assessment record.

11. Why is Form No. 24 important?

Ans:- Form No. 24 is a statutory audit certificate that ensures correct attribution of income and expenses and verifies that income is effectively connected to the Permanent Establishment or fixed place of profession in India. It prevents excess deduction of expenses and ensures correct taxation of royalty or fees for technical services earned by non-residents.  

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