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April 4, 2026
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Crude import flexibility keeps India's fuel supply secure despite reports of Iranian cargo diversion.
India said there are no payment hurdles for Iranian crude imports and that refiners continue to secure oil from Iran and a wide range of global suppliers. It rejected reports of an Iranian cargo diversion as factually incorrect, stating that destination changes during transit are common in oil trade for commercial and operational reasons. The ministry said crude oil requirements remain fully secured for the coming months, and noted that an LPG vessel carrying Iranian LPG has berthed at Mangalore and is discharging cargo.
April 4, 2026
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Global export hub logistics for Lalitpur Pharma Park strengthened through port connectivity and freight corridor integration.
Uttar Pradesh State Industrial Development Authority and Jawaharlal Nehru Port Authority have entered into a memorandum of understanding to develop the proposed Lalitpur Pharma Park as a global export hub by linking the industrial cluster to international maritime trade routes. The cooperation contemplates use of the Dadri-Khurja rail link with the Western Dedicated Freight Corridor and Eastern Dedicated Freight Corridor to create a multi-modal rail network for movement of pharmaceutical goods to JNPA, supporting import of raw materials and export of finished pharmaceutical products.
April 4, 2026
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Indian pharmaceutical exports maintain growth momentum as formulations, biologicals, vaccines and Ayush products lead performance.
Indian pharmaceutical exports maintained growth momentum despite global pricing pressures and trade volatilities, with shipments reaching over USD 28 billion up to February in FY26 and registering year-on-year growth of 5.6 per cent over the corresponding period in FY25. Export performance was led by formulations, biologicals, vaccines and Ayush products.
April 4, 2026
Show AI Summary
Payroll compliance mistakes demand accurate classification, timely deductions, and automated statutory checks to prevent audits and penalties.
Payroll compliance requires accurate employee classification, timely tax deduction, and correct statutory contribution management to avoid audits, penalties, and employee disputes. Common errors include misclassifying employees and contract workers, which can cause missed PF, ESI and TDS obligations, and incorrect or delayed TDS computation arising from failed declarations, salary changes, or tax regime switches. The compliance approach relies on onboarding checks, real-time recalculation, and automated deposit scheduling to reduce errors before they enter the payroll cycle.
April 4, 2026
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Bribery allegations against a CGST officer trigger a CBI trap, arrest, and continuing investigation into corruption claims.
Bribery allegations led to a CBI trap and arrest of an Assistant Commissioner, CGST, Ratlam, after a private person or middleman allegedly demanded money for not initiating GST proceedings against the complainant's firm. The accused was caught red-handed while accepting a bribe through the middleman, with searches continuing at the accused's premises and investigation still in progress.
April 4, 2026
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Mutual fund approval process for subscribing to eligible public issues under the Income-tax Act framework clarified.
Approval is sought by a mutual fund to subscribe to an eligible issue of public companies under Schedule XV(1)(z)(ii) of the Income-tax Act, 2025, through Form 190. The form must be filed three months before the issue of eligible capital with the prescribed details and documents, including mutual fund and management particulars, scheme details, SEBI and custodian records, audited financial statements, and approval documents relating to the public company's share issue.
April 4, 2026
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Mutual fund approval for eligible public company issues depends on timely filing of Form 190.
A mutual fund must file Form 190 to seek approval for investment in the eligible issue of public companies under Schedule XV(1)(z)(ii) of the Income-tax Act, 2025. The form corresponds to the earlier Form 59A under the Income-tax Rules, 1962, and to the corresponding rule framework under the Income-tax Rules, 2026. The application is to be filed by the mutual fund itself, together with the documents specified in the form, three months before the issue of eligible capital. Approval for subscription is granted on the basis of the particulars furnished in Form 190.
April 4, 2026
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Approval for issue of eligible capital under Schedule XV depends on Form 189 details, disclosures, and supporting documents.
Form 189 is the application for approval of issue of public companies under Schedule XV(1)(z)(i) of the Income-tax Act, 2025, and is filed by the public company three months before the issue of eligible capital. The form requires company particulars, management details, bankers and auditors, issue details, project details, and supporting documents such as incorporation certificate, audited financial statements, equity details, SEBI approval and any project report. Processed Form 189 leads to approval for issue of eligible capital on the basis of the details furnished.
April 4, 2026
Show AI Summary
Public company issue approval through Form 189 governs eligible capital issues and related deduction eligibility.
Form 189 is the prescribed application for approval of issue of public companies under Schedule XV(1)(z)(i) of the Income-tax Act, 2025. It is filed by the public company with supporting documents before the issue of eligible capital, and the approval is granted on the basis of the details furnished in the form. Individual contributions to the issue are stated to qualify for deduction under the Act.
April 4, 2026
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Consolidated approval form standardises gratuity and superannuation fund compliance, replacing rule-based particulars with structured filing.
Introduction of consolidated Form 188 standardises the approval process for Gratuity Fund and Superannuation Fund applications under Part B of Schedule XI by replacing the earlier text-based particulars in Rule 95 and Rule 109. The form is filed by trustees or an authorised person only for initial approval, and it requires details of the employer, the fund, eligible employees, account maintenance, fund status, trustee verification, and supporting documents such as the trust deed, fund rules, and accounts where applicable.
April 4, 2026
Show AI Summary
Approval mechanism for gratuity and superannuation funds is standardised through Form 188 with structured compliance requirements.
Form 188 provides a standardised application mechanism for approval of Gratuity Funds and Superannuation Funds, replacing earlier rule-based procedural requirements. It is filed once by the trustees or an authorised person, with prescribed particulars and supporting documents such as the trust deed, fund rules, accounts, and balance sheet where applicable. The application is examined by the jurisdictional authority, which may seek clarifications and then grant approval, issue deficiency notice, or reject the application.
April 4, 2026
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Appeal against fund recognition refusal uses Form 187, with supporting documents and filing within 60 days.
Appeal against refusal to recognise or withdrawal of recognition from a recognised provident fund, and refusal to approve or withdrawal of approval from a superannuation fund or gratuity fund, is filed in Form 187 by the employer, trustee, or authorised representative within 60 days of communication of the order. The form requires appellant particulars, fund details, grounds of appeal, verification, and supporting documents such as the impugned order, original application, proof of filing, authorisation, and fee challan.
April 4, 2026
Show AI Summary
Appeals for provident, superannuation and gratuity funds require Form 187, supporting documents and filing within 60 days.
Form 187 prescribes the appellate mechanism under the Income-tax Act, 2025 for matters concerning recognised provident funds, superannuation funds and approved gratuity funds, including appeals against orders affecting recognition, approval, withdrawal, cancellation or refusal of such status. The form is to be used by trustees, employers or other authorised persons representing the fund where an adverse order has been passed by the competent income-tax authority. Appeals must be filed within 60 days from communication of the order, and filing does not by itself operate as a stay unless specifically granted.
April 4, 2026
Show AI Summary
Customs enforcement along the India-Nepal border led to seizure of undocumented soft drinks and air conditioners.
Customs enforcement along the India-Nepal border led to seizure of soft drinks and air conditioners being moved without valid customs documents. A vehicle carrying 1,575 bottles of soft drinks was intercepted after the driver tried to flee, while two split air conditioners transported on bicycles were also recovered in a separate patrol operation. The goods, vehicle and bicycles were handed over to the Customs Department.
April 4, 2026
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Indian pharmaceutical exports show sustained growth as formulations, biologicals, vaccines and Ayush products drive resilience.
Indian pharmaceutical exports recorded sustained growth in FY26, reaching nearly USD 29 billion by the end of February and increasing over the corresponding period in the previous financial year. The export performance was led by formulations, biologicals, vaccines and Ayush products, and was described as resilient despite global challenges, pricing pressures and trade volatility. The sector's overall value was placed at about USD 60 billion, with projected expansion to USD 130 billion by 2030.
April 4, 2026
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Recognised Provident Fund recognition process requires trust deed compliance, supporting documents, scrutiny and ongoing investment and reporting obligations.
Application under Rule 40C seeks recognition of a provident fund so it qualifies as a Recognised Provident Fund for income-tax purposes. It applies to employers, trustees and existing funds seeking recognition on formation, conversion, amendment, merger or split. The form requires trust deed details, fund rules, investment policy, financial information and supporting documents, followed by scrutiny, possible revisions, issuance of recognition and ongoing compliance with investment, audit and reporting requirements.
April 4, 2026
Show AI Summary
Recognised Provident Fund recognition through Form 186 depends on disclosure, supporting documents, and compliance with trust conditions.
Form 186 is the prescribed application for seeking recognition of a provident fund as a Recognised Provident Fund for income-tax purposes. It is filed by the employer, trustees, or an existing trust seeking recognition, and is ordinarily a one-time application subject to refiling or intimation for material changes in the trust deed or fund rules. The form requires detailed disclosures and supporting documents, and on approval the fund attains RPF status with tax treatment governed by applicable statutory limits and conditions. Recognition may later be withdrawn for non-compliance.
April 4, 2026
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Recognised provident fund accounting in Form 185 requires annual subscriber-wise records of contributions, interest, withdrawals, and balances.
Rule 294 requires recognised provident fund accounts to be prepared at intervals not exceeding twelve months, with a separate account maintained for each subscriber in Form 185. The form is maintained internally by the provident fund trust or authorised officers, and records subscriber particulars, opening balance, monthly contributions, interest, withdrawals or advances, closing balance, and verification. Part A is maintained separately for each subscriber, while Part B presents the same information in consolidated annual subscriber-wise form.
April 4, 2026
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Recognised Provident Fund recordkeeping requires Form 185 to track contributions, interest, withdrawals, and annual balances.
Form No. 185 is the prescribed accounting format for individual subscriber records under a Recognised Provident Fund, maintained by trustees or authorised officers under the Income-tax Rules. It records annual subscriber-wise particulars such as contributions, interest credited, withdrawals or advances, opening and closing balances, and verification details. Part-A is kept for each subscriber, while Part-B is the annual consolidated abstract filed with the Assessing Officer.
April 4, 2026
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Deduction audit report for petroleum and natural gas businesses requires deposit verification, withdrawal checks, and Chartered Accountant certification.
Form No. 183 is the prescribed audit report for claiming deduction under section 49 in the business of prospecting, extracting, or producing petroleum, natural gas, or both in India. It is furnished by a Chartered Accountant and verifies audit of the relevant books, timely deposit into the specified account, permitted use of withdrawals, disallowance of inadmissible expenditure, and transfer restrictions on assets acquired under the scheme. The form is filed annually before the return due date and requires supporting records of books, deposits, withdrawals, and asset transfers.

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Form No. 24 – Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs)

March 25, 2026

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Form No. 24 – Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs)

Form of Audit Report under Section 59(4) of the Income-tax Act, 2025.

Name of Form as per I.T. Rules, 1962 Form

3

CE Name of Form as per I.T. Rules, 2026

Form No. 24

Corresponding Section of I.T. Act, 1961

44DA

Corresponding section of I.T. Act, 2025

59

Corresponding Rule of I.T. Rules, 1962

Rule 6GA

Corresponding Rules of I.T. Rules, 2026

Rule 43

1. What is Form No. 24?

Ans:- Form No. 24 is a prescribed audit report required to be furnished under Rule 43 read with Section 59(4) of the Income-tax Act, 2025. It is applicable to non-residents or foreign companies earning income by way of royalty or fees for technical services (FTS) from India through a Permanent Establishment (PE) or a fixed place of profession situated in India.

2. Who should file Form No. 24?

Ans:- Form No. 24 is required to be furnished by:

  • Non-resident individuals
  • Foreign companies
  • Any other non-resident entities

who earn royalty or fees for technical services from India and where such income is effectively connected with a Permanent Establishment or fixed place of profession in India. The form is certified by an Accountant as defined in section 515(3)(b) of the Income-tax Act, 2025.

3. Is Form No. 24 compulsory?

Ans:- Yes. Furnishing of Form No. 24 is mandatory where income by way of royalty or fees for technical services is taxable under Section 59 through a Permanent Establishment or fixed place of profession in India.

4. When does the requirement of furnishing Form No. 24 arise?

Ans:- The requirement arises when a non-resident assessee or foreign company earns royalty or fees for technical services from India under an agreement with the Government of India or an Indian concern, and such income is effectively connected with a Permanent Establishment or fixed place of profession in India.

5. What documents / information are required to prepare Form No. 24?

Ans:- The Chartered Accountant will require:

a. Complete books of account and records relating to the business of the Permanent Establishment (PE) or fixed place of profession in India for the relevant tax year.

b. Accurate computation of income earned by way of royalty or fees for technical services (FTS), ensuring such income is effectively connected with the Indian PE.

c. Documentation supporting the claim for expenditure (excluding those not allowable under Section 59) that is strictly attributable to the PE or fixed place of profession.

d. A copy of the agreement with the Government of India or the Indian concern under which the royalty or FTS is earned (Annexure A-2).

e. A detailed note on the intangible property (know-how, copyrights, patents, etc.) used, or the specific contract for which the fees are payable (Annexure A-3).

f. A descriptive note outlining the activities of the PE or the fixed place of profession in India (Annexure A-4).

g. Details of any change in the method of accounting employed compared to the previous year and its effect on profit or loss (Annexure A-1).

h. The Accountant’s Membership Number, Firm Registration Number, and a generated Unique Document Identification Number (UDIN) for the electronic certification.

6. What is the due date for furnishing Form No. 24?

Ans:- Form No. 24 is required to be furnished annually, at least one month prior to the due date for furnishing the return of income under Section 263(1) of the Income-tax Act, 2025.

7. What is the effect of furnishing Form No. 24?

Ans:- Furnishing of Form No. 24 enables computation of royalty or fees for technical services on a net income basis after allowing only such expenses as are attributable to the Permanent Establishment or fixed place of profession in India.

8. What is the structure of Form No. 24?

Ans:- Form No. 24 consists of:

- Main Audit Report: The core certification under Section 59 of the Income-tax Act, 2025, where the accountant certifies the amount of royalty or fees for technical services (FTS) and its effective connection with the Permanent Establishment (PE) or fixed place of profession in India.

- Annexure – Part A: This section captures the General Particulars of the Assessee, including their name, address, Permanent Account Number (PAN), and the relevant tax year.

- Annexure – Part B: This section contains the Statement of Particulars relating to income by way of royalty or fees for technical services, detailing the books of account, method of accounting, details of the payer, and head-wise expenditure attributable to the PE.

- Specific Annexures (A-1 to A-4): Depending on the responses in Part B, additional detailed notes must be attached, such as the copy of the agreement (Annexure A-2), notes on intangible property (Annexure A-3), and notes on the specific activities of the PE (Annexure A-4).

9. What is the process flow of filing Form No. 24?

Ans:- The process flow includes:

a. The process starts with identifying whether the non-resident or foreign company has a Permanent Establishment (PE) or a fixed place of profession in India during the tax year.

b. All income earned via royalty or fees for technical services (FTS) effectively connected to the PE must be compiled, along with expenditures strictly attributable to the PE.

c. The assessee must engage an "Accountant" as defined in Section 515(3)(b) to audit these accounts and verify the correctness of the income computation.

d. The accountant prepares the audit report and mandatory annexures, including Annexure A-2 (Agreement copy), Annexure A3 (Note on intangibles/contracts), and Annexure A-4 (Note on PE activities).

e. The accountant logs into the e-filing portal to fill out the form, ensuring the inclusion of their Membership Number, Firm Registration Number, and a generated Unique Document Identification Number (UDIN).

f. The accountant must digitally sign the form using their Digital Signature Certificate (DSC) to upload it.

g. After the Accountant uploads the form, it appears in the taxpayer’s worklist; the process is only complete once the assessee logs in and "Accepts" the form.

10. What is the outcome after furnishing Form No. 24?

Ans:- Upon furnishing and acceptance of Form No. 24, the income by way of royalty or fees for technical services is assessed under Section 59 on a net basis, forming part of the assessment record.

11. Why is Form No. 24 important?

Ans:- Form No. 24 is a statutory audit certificate that ensures correct attribution of income and expenses and verifies that income is effectively connected to the Permanent Establishment or fixed place of profession in India. It prevents excess deduction of expenses and ensures correct taxation of royalty or fees for technical services earned by non-residents.  

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