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April 4, 2026
Show AI Summary
Maritime supply continuity keeps LPG inflows moving despite Strait of Hormuz disruption and regional shipping tensions.
Continued LPG inflows to India are reported despite disruption in the Strait of Hormuz, with an Indian-flagged tanker safely transiting the waterway and an Iranian LPG cargo reaching Mangalore for discharge. Maritime authorities are monitoring vessel movements, port operations and crew safety, while coordinating with ship owners, Indian missions and the Directorate General of Shipping. Several Indian-flagged vessels remain stranded on the western side of the strait, though seafarers are safe and port operations across India remain normal.
April 4, 2026
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Identity misuse in tax notices triggers fraud and forgery inquiry over alleged business run using Aadhaar and PAN details.
Identity misuse was alleged after a farmer received income tax and GST notices for dues linked to a firm allegedly operated in his name in Delhi. He said he had never travelled to Delhi or formed any business enterprise, and preliminary inquiry reportedly found that the firm used his Aadhaar and PAN details. A complaint was submitted to the district administration, which constituted a two-member team to investigate the suspected fraud and forgery involving misuse of identity documents and resulting tax demands.
April 4, 2026
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Pharmaceutical exports growth reflects strong global demand, diversified markets and compliance-led expansion despite pricing pressures.
India's pharmaceutical exports continued to expand despite global pricing pressure and trade volatility, with outbound shipments reaching over USD 28 billion up to February of the current financial year and recording growth of 5.6 per cent over the corresponding period in the previous year. Export growth was led by formulations, biologicals, vaccines and AYUSH products, while the sector's total export performance in the preceding financial year also showed strong year-on-year growth. Pharmexcil indicated that export expansion would depend on policy prioritisation, market diversification, increased foreign direct investment inflows and improved regulatory efficiency, with a medium-term export target of USD 65 billion by 2030.
April 4, 2026
Show AI Summary
Crude import flexibility keeps India's fuel supply secure despite reports of Iranian cargo diversion.
India said there are no payment hurdles for Iranian crude imports and that refiners continue to secure oil from Iran and a wide range of global suppliers. It rejected reports of an Iranian cargo diversion as factually incorrect, stating that destination changes during transit are common in oil trade for commercial and operational reasons. The ministry said crude oil requirements remain fully secured for the coming months, and noted that an LPG vessel carrying Iranian LPG has berthed at Mangalore and is discharging cargo.
April 4, 2026
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Global export hub logistics for Lalitpur Pharma Park strengthened through port connectivity and freight corridor integration.
Uttar Pradesh State Industrial Development Authority and Jawaharlal Nehru Port Authority have entered into a memorandum of understanding to develop the proposed Lalitpur Pharma Park as a global export hub by linking the industrial cluster to international maritime trade routes. The cooperation contemplates use of the Dadri-Khurja rail link with the Western Dedicated Freight Corridor and Eastern Dedicated Freight Corridor to create a multi-modal rail network for movement of pharmaceutical goods to JNPA, supporting import of raw materials and export of finished pharmaceutical products.
April 4, 2026
Show AI Summary
Indian pharmaceutical exports maintain growth momentum as formulations, biologicals, vaccines and Ayush products lead performance.
Indian pharmaceutical exports maintained growth momentum despite global pricing pressures and trade volatilities, with shipments reaching over USD 28 billion up to February in FY26 and registering year-on-year growth of 5.6 per cent over the corresponding period in FY25. Export performance was led by formulations, biologicals, vaccines and Ayush products.
April 4, 2026
Show AI Summary
Payroll compliance mistakes demand accurate classification, timely deductions, and automated statutory checks to prevent audits and penalties.
Payroll compliance requires accurate employee classification, timely tax deduction, and correct statutory contribution management to avoid audits, penalties, and employee disputes. Common errors include misclassifying employees and contract workers, which can cause missed PF, ESI and TDS obligations, and incorrect or delayed TDS computation arising from failed declarations, salary changes, or tax regime switches. The compliance approach relies on onboarding checks, real-time recalculation, and automated deposit scheduling to reduce errors before they enter the payroll cycle.
April 4, 2026
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Bribery allegations against a CGST officer trigger a CBI trap, arrest, and continuing investigation into corruption claims.
Bribery allegations led to a CBI trap and arrest of an Assistant Commissioner, CGST, Ratlam, after a private person or middleman allegedly demanded money for not initiating GST proceedings against the complainant's firm. The accused was caught red-handed while accepting a bribe through the middleman, with searches continuing at the accused's premises and investigation still in progress.
April 4, 2026
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Mutual fund approval process for subscribing to eligible public issues under the Income-tax Act framework clarified.
Approval is sought by a mutual fund to subscribe to an eligible issue of public companies under Schedule XV(1)(z)(ii) of the Income-tax Act, 2025, through Form 190. The form must be filed three months before the issue of eligible capital with the prescribed details and documents, including mutual fund and management particulars, scheme details, SEBI and custodian records, audited financial statements, and approval documents relating to the public company's share issue.
April 4, 2026
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Mutual fund approval for eligible public company issues depends on timely filing of Form 190.
A mutual fund must file Form 190 to seek approval for investment in the eligible issue of public companies under Schedule XV(1)(z)(ii) of the Income-tax Act, 2025. The form corresponds to the earlier Form 59A under the Income-tax Rules, 1962, and to the corresponding rule framework under the Income-tax Rules, 2026. The application is to be filed by the mutual fund itself, together with the documents specified in the form, three months before the issue of eligible capital. Approval for subscription is granted on the basis of the particulars furnished in Form 190.
April 4, 2026
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Approval for issue of eligible capital under Schedule XV depends on Form 189 details, disclosures, and supporting documents.
Form 189 is the application for approval of issue of public companies under Schedule XV(1)(z)(i) of the Income-tax Act, 2025, and is filed by the public company three months before the issue of eligible capital. The form requires company particulars, management details, bankers and auditors, issue details, project details, and supporting documents such as incorporation certificate, audited financial statements, equity details, SEBI approval and any project report. Processed Form 189 leads to approval for issue of eligible capital on the basis of the details furnished.
April 4, 2026
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Public company issue approval through Form 189 governs eligible capital issues and related deduction eligibility.
Form 189 is the prescribed application for approval of issue of public companies under Schedule XV(1)(z)(i) of the Income-tax Act, 2025. It is filed by the public company with supporting documents before the issue of eligible capital, and the approval is granted on the basis of the details furnished in the form. Individual contributions to the issue are stated to qualify for deduction under the Act.
April 4, 2026
Show AI Summary
Consolidated approval form standardises gratuity and superannuation fund compliance, replacing rule-based particulars with structured filing.
Introduction of consolidated Form 188 standardises the approval process for Gratuity Fund and Superannuation Fund applications under Part B of Schedule XI by replacing the earlier text-based particulars in Rule 95 and Rule 109. The form is filed by trustees or an authorised person only for initial approval, and it requires details of the employer, the fund, eligible employees, account maintenance, fund status, trustee verification, and supporting documents such as the trust deed, fund rules, and accounts where applicable.
April 4, 2026
Show AI Summary
Approval mechanism for gratuity and superannuation funds is standardised through Form 188 with structured compliance requirements.
Form 188 provides a standardised application mechanism for approval of Gratuity Funds and Superannuation Funds, replacing earlier rule-based procedural requirements. It is filed once by the trustees or an authorised person, with prescribed particulars and supporting documents such as the trust deed, fund rules, accounts, and balance sheet where applicable. The application is examined by the jurisdictional authority, which may seek clarifications and then grant approval, issue deficiency notice, or reject the application.
April 4, 2026
Show AI Summary
Appeal against fund recognition refusal uses Form 187, with supporting documents and filing within 60 days.
Appeal against refusal to recognise or withdrawal of recognition from a recognised provident fund, and refusal to approve or withdrawal of approval from a superannuation fund or gratuity fund, is filed in Form 187 by the employer, trustee, or authorised representative within 60 days of communication of the order. The form requires appellant particulars, fund details, grounds of appeal, verification, and supporting documents such as the impugned order, original application, proof of filing, authorisation, and fee challan.
April 4, 2026
Show AI Summary
Appeals for provident, superannuation and gratuity funds require Form 187, supporting documents and filing within 60 days.
Form 187 prescribes the appellate mechanism under the Income-tax Act, 2025 for matters concerning recognised provident funds, superannuation funds and approved gratuity funds, including appeals against orders affecting recognition, approval, withdrawal, cancellation or refusal of such status. The form is to be used by trustees, employers or other authorised persons representing the fund where an adverse order has been passed by the competent income-tax authority. Appeals must be filed within 60 days from communication of the order, and filing does not by itself operate as a stay unless specifically granted.
April 4, 2026
Show AI Summary
Customs enforcement along the India-Nepal border led to seizure of undocumented soft drinks and air conditioners.
Customs enforcement along the India-Nepal border led to seizure of soft drinks and air conditioners being moved without valid customs documents. A vehicle carrying 1,575 bottles of soft drinks was intercepted after the driver tried to flee, while two split air conditioners transported on bicycles were also recovered in a separate patrol operation. The goods, vehicle and bicycles were handed over to the Customs Department.
April 4, 2026
Show AI Summary
Indian pharmaceutical exports show sustained growth as formulations, biologicals, vaccines and Ayush products drive resilience.
Indian pharmaceutical exports recorded sustained growth in FY26, reaching nearly USD 29 billion by the end of February and increasing over the corresponding period in the previous financial year. The export performance was led by formulations, biologicals, vaccines and Ayush products, and was described as resilient despite global challenges, pricing pressures and trade volatility. The sector's overall value was placed at about USD 60 billion, with projected expansion to USD 130 billion by 2030.
April 4, 2026
Show AI Summary
Recognised Provident Fund recognition process requires trust deed compliance, supporting documents, scrutiny and ongoing investment and reporting obligations.
Application under Rule 40C seeks recognition of a provident fund so it qualifies as a Recognised Provident Fund for income-tax purposes. It applies to employers, trustees and existing funds seeking recognition on formation, conversion, amendment, merger or split. The form requires trust deed details, fund rules, investment policy, financial information and supporting documents, followed by scrutiny, possible revisions, issuance of recognition and ongoing compliance with investment, audit and reporting requirements.
April 4, 2026
Show AI Summary
Recognised Provident Fund recognition through Form 186 depends on disclosure, supporting documents, and compliance with trust conditions.
Form 186 is the prescribed application for seeking recognition of a provident fund as a Recognised Provident Fund for income-tax purposes. It is filed by the employer, trustees, or an existing trust seeking recognition, and is ordinarily a one-time application subject to refiling or intimation for material changes in the trust deed or fund rules. The form requires detailed disclosures and supporting documents, and on approval the fund attains RPF status with tax treatment governed by applicable statutory limits and conditions. Recognition may later be withdrawn for non-compliance.

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Guidance Note - Form 23

March 25, 2026

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Guidance Note on Form 23

Form 23 is an Income-tax notification form issued for an approved Skill Development Project under Section 47(1)(b) of the Income-tax Act, 2025, in accordance with Rule 39 and Rule 40. This Form is issued by the Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) to formally notify an approved skill development project in the Official Gazette.

Purpose of Form 23

The primary purpose of Form 23 is to:

  • Notify an approved Skill Development Project under Section 47(1)(b) of the Income-tax Act, 2025.
  • Specify the Tax Year(s) for which the project is approved.
  • Record key project particulars, including title, purpose, training institute details, duration, and approved expenditure.
  • Lay down terms and conditions subject to which the project remains notified.
  • Enable tax benefits linked to approved skill development projects.

Issuance Requirements

  • Who issues Form 23: Form 23 is issued by the CBDT, after an eligible company’s application in Form 22 is examined and recommended by the National Council for Vocational Education and Training (NCVET) under Rule 39.
  • When Form 23 is issued: Form 23 is issued when:
  • The project satisfies conditions under Rule 39 and Rule 40, and
  • The Board approves notification under Section 47(1)(b) of the Income-tax Act, 2025.
  • The notification is valid for a period not exceeding three Tax Years.

How Form 23 is authenticated

Form 23 is authenticated through:

  • Signature of the authorized CBDT officer, and
  • Publication in the Official Gazette.

Information Contained in Form 23

The Form contains the following key details:

  • Particulars of the Company
  • Name
  • PAN
  • Address
  • Reference number of application
  • Date of application
  • Details of the Skill Development Project
  • Title of the project
  • Purpose of the project
  • Name and address of the training institute
  • Date of commencement
  • Duration in months
  • Approved Tax Year(s)
  • Total expected expenditure (excluding land/building)
  • Conditions subject to which the project is notified

Frequency and Validity Period

  • Frequency: Form 23 is not filed by the assessee. It is issued once per approved project, or upon renewal of notification.
  • Validity Period: Notification under Form 23 is valid for up to three Tax Years, unless extended or revoked.

Compliance Obligations After Notification

After issuance of Form 23, the eligible company must:

  • Maintain separate books of account for the project
  • Get project accounts audited by an accountant under Rule 40
  • Furnish audited statements and audit report on or before the due date under Section 263(1) of the Income-tax Act, 2025
  • Ensure expenses claimed are wholly and exclusively for the notified project
  • Comply with all notification conditions
  • Ensure project activities remain genuine and in accordance with law

Renewal of Notification

If satisfied with project performance, the Board may extend notification for a further period not exceeding three Tax Years, in consultation with NCVET, as per Rule 39.

Revocation of Notification

Notification under Form 23 may be revoked if:

  • The company or training institute ceases activities
  • Project activities are not genuine
  • Separate books of account are not maintained
  • Audit or reporting requirements are not complied with
  • Conditions of notification are violated
  • Statutory provisions under Rule 39 or Rule 40 are breached

Revocation is carried out after giving the assessee an opportunity of being heard.

Communication of Notification

A copy of Form 23 is communicated to:

  • The applicant
  • The training institute
  • NCVET
  • Jurisdictional Commissioner of Income-tax

UDIN, FRN and DSC Requirements

  • UDIN (Unique Document Identification Number): Where a Chartered Accountant certifies or audits project accounts, a UDIN must be generated and quoted in the audit or certification.
  • FRN (Firm Registration Number): If certification or audit is issued by an audit firm, the Firm Registration Number (FRN) must be mentioned.
  • DSC (Digital Signature Certificate): A valid DSC is required where related filings, audit reports, or submissions are made electronically.

Key Points to Note

  • Form 23 is a notification form, not an application form.
  • It is issued only after approval of Form 22.
  • Notification applies only for specified Tax Year(s).
  • Only eligible companies under Rule 40 qualify.
  • Projects must be carried out in recognized training institutes.
  • Expenditure must exclude cost of land and building and any expenditure on the project that is reimbursed or reimbursable to the assessee by any person, whether directly or indirectly.
  • “Tax Year” terminology replaces earlier year references.
  • Continuous compliance is required to avoid revocation.

Outcome Details

  • Project Recognition: Form 23 grants formal Government recognition to an approved Skill Development Project.
  • Continuation or Cancellation:
  • Compliant projects may be renewed
  • Non-compliant projects may face revocation of notification

Challenges and Solutions

The revised Form 23 framework supports improved governance through:

  • Standardized project disclosures
  • Transparent approval conditions
  • Audit-backed accountability
  • Digital monitoring and verification
  • Structured linkage between approval (Form 22) and notification (Form 23)

Common Changes Across Forms

  • Assessment / Previous Year replaced with Tax Year
  • Updated statutory references to the Income-tax Act, 2025
  • Enhanced audit, UDIN, FRN, and DSC integration
  • Improved digital compliance and structured reporting  

Topics

Acts Income Tax