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August 24, 2026
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Inter-state heroin trafficking enforcement uncovered concealed narcotics in transport vehicles, triggering arrests, confiscation, and continuing supply-chain investigations.
Operation Black Hawk targeted an alleged inter-state heroin trafficking network moving crude heroin from the North-East region towards Uttar Pradesh. Intelligence-led vehicle tracking and highway interceptions resulted in the seizure of over 18.6 kg of crude heroin and the arrest of three suspected network members under the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985. The narcotics were detected in specially fabricated concealed compartments within a passenger vehicle fuel tank and a heavy commercial vehicle body frame. Both vehicles and the contraband were confiscated, while financial and logistical investigations continue into suppliers and distribution channels.
August 24, 2026
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Five-day banking and uniform performance incentives drive proposed bank union action over unresolved pension and employment demands.
Banking labour relations are affected by proposed nationwide industrial action over five-day banking, performance-linked incentives, and pension-related demands. Five-day banking remains pending despite a bipartite arrangement for extended weekday hours. Unions dispute an incentive scheme that differentiates awards by seniority and individual performance, contending that it departs from bank-level performance linkage and uniformity across cadres. They also allege that implementation during pending conciliation breaches a status quo obligation, while pension revision, uniform dearness allowance, and a pension-scheme switch option remain unresolved.
August 24, 2026
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Free trade agreement strategy expands preferential market access and supports India's integration into global value chains and investment partnerships.
India's free trade agreement strategy seeks to expand preferential market access and integrate the country into global value chains as a trusted trading partner. Negotiations with additional country groups and individual nations are intended to extend agreement coverage to a substantial share of global trade. Investment opportunities are identified in data centres, manufacturing and artificial intelligence, alongside an objective of developing more balanced trade relations between India and Japan.
August 24, 2026
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Foreign exchange market conditions supported rupee appreciation, but crude prices, importer demand and geopolitical sanctions concerns limited gains.
Foreign exchange market conditions supported a modest early appreciation of the rupee against the US dollar due to relative dollar softness. The gain was limited by elevated crude oil prices, importer demand for dollars, and caution over anticipated sanctions affecting Iranian oil trade, banking networks and shipping routes. Currency markets remained sensitive to geopolitical uncertainty and possible wider trade effects.
August 23, 2026
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Undeclared gold importation led to customs interception, seizure, arrest and continuing investigation after concealment inside passenger clothing.
Customs enforcement against undeclared gold importation involved interception of a passenger arriving from Sharjah at Ahmedabad airport following passenger profiling. A gold chain concealed inside clothing was recovered after it was not declared for customs purposes. The chain was seized and the passenger was arrested under the Customs Act, 1962, before being released on bail, with further investigation continuing.
August 23, 2026
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Digital arrest cyber fraud used impersonation, forged notices and coercive video calls to obtain transfers through mule accounts.
Digital arrest cyber fraud allegedly used impersonation of law-enforcement and central banking officials, fabricated notices, threats of arrest and continuous video communications to coerce a retired railway employee into disclosing financial details and transferring funds for purported verification. The alleged proceeds were routed through mule and shell accounts. Banking records, KYC details, digital evidence and transaction trails allegedly connected a recipient account with suspicious transactions and multiple cyber-fraud cases; part of the cheated amount was recovered or refunded.
August 23, 2026
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Political targeting allegations challenge money-laundering enforcement actions, searches, questioning, and public disclosures in the CMRL investigation.
CPI(M) alleges that enforcement action under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act in the CMRL matter is politically motivated targeting of Pinarayi Vijayan, family members and party associates. It contends that searches, questioning and public communications during the investigation were used to create suspicion without incriminating evidence, and characterises references to hawala as a new investigative narrative. The party also alleges selective anti-money-laundering enforcement against opposition leaders and states that the company will address the CMRL-related matter.
August 23, 2026
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Money-laundering investigation into alleged liquor transport irregularities results in arrests connected with claimed loss to the government exchequer.
Money-laundering proceedings concerning alleged financial irregularities in liquor transport led to the arrest of former Andhra Pradesh minister Karumuri Nageswara Rao under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act. The inquiry concerns alleged wrongful loss to the government exchequer arising from liquor-transport operations. Investigative measures included raids and the arrest of Rao's son, along with arrests of a former state beverages corporation managing director and the person described as the principal accused.
August 23, 2026
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Alleged LLP record forgery raises cheating, breach of trust and conspiracy concerns over unauthorised partnership interest changes.
Alleged forgery, cheating, criminal breach of trust and conspiracy concern purported unauthorised changes to LLP statutory records filed with the Registrar of Companies. The allegations include use of false documents to remove a nominated partner, substitute another person as partner and transfer a partner's interest in the LLP. The matter also draws attention to separate land-collaboration allegations and delayed possession claims by homebuyers in a halted housing project.
August 23, 2026
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Voluntary production curtailment addresses polyester yarn cost volatility as weaving units seek customs-duty relief on inputs.
Voluntary production curtailment by weaving units is being adopted in response to increased polyester yarn and related input costs. Units may reduce shifts or observe periodic holidays according to individual commercial feasibility to limit yarn consumption until prices and fabric-market conditions stabilise. Industry representatives allege that yarn-price increases exceed corresponding input-cost movements and seek examination of possible artificial pricing, along with customs-duty relief on yarn and relevant inputs.
August 22, 2026
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Retaliatory tariffs escalate trade restrictions as historic tariff authority enables duties without prior investigation or a prescribed duration.
Retaliatory tariffs are set to escalate bilateral trade restrictions after the United States imposed tariffs of up to 50 per cent on specified Canadian imports. Canada proposes dollar-for-dollar countermeasures covering sectors including steel, dairy, appliances, agricultural equipment, pulp and paper and electronics. Section 338 of the Tariff Act of 1930 is invoked as the legal basis for the United States measures, permitting presidential import duties up to 50 per cent without a prior investigation or prescribed maximum duration. Escalation creates uncertainty for supply chains and renewal of the United States-Mexico-Canada Agreement.
August 22, 2026
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Reciprocal tariffs reshape Canada-United States trade relations, increasing supply-chain risks and accelerating Canadian trade diversification beyond its primary export market.
Canada-United States trade relations are described as entering a confrontational phase after tariff negotiations collapsed. The United States imposed tariffs on specified Canadian goods, while Canada committed to reciprocal import taxes and suspended negotiations. The dispute marks a retreat from preferential market access and continental integration. Canada's export dependence on the United States may limit retaliation and increase risks to output, employment, investment and integrated supply chains. Trade diversification, non-United States investment and expanded Pacific export infrastructure are identified as responses to a potentially enduring protectionist bilateral relationship.
August 22, 2026
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Retaliatory tariffs on United States goods will target key sectors after trade negotiations failed and reciprocal tariff relief was unavailable.
Retaliatory tariffs on United States goods will take effect from 8 September in response to United States tariffs on Canadian products and unsuccessful negotiations. The dollar-for-dollar measures will cover steel, dairy, appliances, agricultural equipment, pulp and paper, and electronics, with product-specific details to follow. Canada had been willing to remove certain retaliatory tariffs if corresponding United States tariffs were substantially reduced, but considered the final demands unacceptable.
August 22, 2026
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Power tariff revision faces political opposition over increased consumer electricity costs and conflict with prior free-electricity commitments.
Power tariff regulation in Jammu and Kashmir and Ladakh has been revised through approval of an average tariff increase, effective from 1 September 2026. Political representatives have opposed the increase on the ground that it adds to consumer hardship amid unemployment, inflation, and sectoral difficulties. The criticism also contrasts the revised tariff with prior commitments concerning free domestic electricity and gas.
August 22, 2026
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Recruitment examination integrity prompted enforcement scrutiny and proposed disciplinary inquiry, while an officer's absence was attributed to family emergency.
Reported absence of an IAS officer was attributed to a family medical emergency and a pending leave request, rather than enforcement searches concerning an alleged recruitment-examination scam. The officer denied any connection with those searches and expressed willingness to face an inquiry. Enforcement searches at the Karnataka Public Service Commission concerned a money-laundering investigation into alleged recruitment irregularities. The State Cabinet decided to advise suspension of the commission chairperson and initiation of an inquiry after an earlier suspension was set aside for lacking the Cabinet's aid and advice.
August 22, 2026
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Money-laundering and benami asset allegations prompt enforcement proceedings, while the accused officer's brother calls the action selective targeting.
Enforcement proceedings under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act concern allegations that suspended police officer Vijay Choudhary managed numerous assets through benami transactions and engaged in money laundering. An Anti-Corruption Bureau FIR had already been registered in relation to the allegations. Surinder Choudhary characterised the action as selective targeting but maintained that investigating agencies and the judiciary should address and decide matters concerning his family.
August 22, 2026
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Specialised dispute resolution requires technical expertise, timely proceedings, mediation support, and human oversight to safeguard natural justice.
Specialised, timely and effective dispute-resolution mechanisms are necessary for technically complex disputes in telecom, broadcasting, airport tariffs and cyber sectors. Technology may assist legal reasoning but cannot replace judicial reasoning, requiring verification, professional responsibility and meaningful human oversight. Effective specialised adjudication should combine domain expertise with judicial discipline, respond to technical complexity, and protect natural justice, transparency and reasoned decision-making. Mediation and other consensual mechanisms can support dispute resolution.
August 22, 2026
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Form 15CB certification faces scrutiny where inadequate verification allegedly enables foreign remittances through shell companies and false certificates.
Alleged misuse of Form 15CB certification has resulted in criminal proceedings concerning certificates issued for foreign remittances without verification of underlying documents. Form 15CB requires certification of applicable taxability and tax-deduction particulars for specified remittances to non-residents before processing by an authorised dealer. The allegations concern certificates that potentially enabled cross-border transfers through shell or non-existent companies, involving cheating, false certification, false evidence and common intention.
August 22, 2026
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Beginner stock market investing requires regulated accounts, risk-aware financial planning, diversification and informed company assessment before purchasing securities.
Beginner stock market investing requires a bank account, a trading or broking account with a SEBI-registered broker, and a Demat account for electronic holding of securities. Investments involve risk of loss and should align with financial goals, time horizon and loss-bearing capacity. Investors should understand primary and secondary markets, distinguish long-term investing from short-term trading, assess companies before purchase, diversify holdings, consider charges, maintain records and avoid borrowed-money investing, rumours and momentum-driven decisions.
August 22, 2026
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Capacity-based tobacco taxation targets undeclared packing machinery used for clandestine production and clearance without indirect tax payment.
Clandestine manufacture and clearance of pan masala, scented jarda and tobacco products without registration or payment of GST, HSNS Cess and central excise duty was detected through an intelligence-led search. Undeclared Form-Fill-Seal packing machines, workers, finished goods, raw materials, transport vehicles, packing materials and records indicated unaccounted production and clearance. Capacity-based monthly HSNS Cess for pan masala is computed according to the number, type and capacity of installed packing machines, while a corresponding capacity-based central excise levy applies to chewing tobacco, jarda and gutkha.

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Form No. 17 – Frequently Asked Questions (FAQ)

March 25, 2026

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Form No. 17 – Frequently Asked Questions (FAQ)

(Form of application under section 45(3)(b) and section 45(4)(b) of the Income-tax Act, 2025)

Name of form as per I.T. Rules, 1962

Form No. 3CF

Name of form as per I.T. Rules, 2026

Form No 17

Corresponding section of I.T. Act, 1961

35

Corresponding section of I.T. Act, 2025

45

Corresponding Rule of I.T. Rules, 1962

5C,5F

Corresponding Rule of I.T. Rules, 2026

32,35

1. What is Form No. 17?

Ans: Form No. 17 is an application form prescribed for seeking approval under:

  • Section 45(3)(b) of the Income-tax Act, 2025 (in case of a company), and
  • Section 45(4)(b) of the Income-tax Act, 2025 (in case of a research association/ university/ college/ other institution).

2. Who should file Form No. 17?

Ans: Form No. 17 should be filed by any of the following applicants seeking approval under the Income-tax Act, 2025:

  • a Company (for approval under section 45(3)(b)), or
  • a Research association/ University/ College/ Other institution (for approval under section 45(4)(b)).

3. Is Form No. 17 mandatory?

Ans: Form No. 17 is mandatory only if the applicant wants to obtain approval under section 45(3)(b) or section 45(4)(b) of the Income-tax Act, 2025.

4. When can Form No. 17 be filed?

Ans: Form No. 17 can be filed at any time during the financial year preceding the tax year from which the approval is sought. However, application for tax year 2026-27 can be made during that tax year.

5. Where should Form No. 17 be filed?

Ans: The application in Form No. 17 shall be made to the Income Tax authority in the manner prescribed under the Rules.

6. What is the mode of filing Form No. 17?

Ans: Form No. 17 must be furnished electronically.

7. Should Form No. 17 be filed using DSC or EVC?

Ans: Form No. 17 shall be furnished electronically:

  • under Digital Signature (DSC), if the return of income is required to be furnished under digital signature; or
  • through Electronic Verification Code (EVC) in other cases.

8. Who should verify Form No. 17?

Ans: Form No. 17 must be verified by the person who is authorised to verify the return of income under section 265 of the Income-tax Act, 2025 (as applicable to the applicant).

9. What information is required in Form No. 17?

Ans: Form No. 17 requires the applicant to provide details broadly under the following parts:

(A) Part A – Incorporation / Constitution details

Includes details such as:

  • applicant type (company/ research association/ university/ college/ other institution)
  • name, address, PAN, status, residential status
  • email ID and contact number
  • relevant section code
  • incorporation/registration details
  • registrations under DARPAN/ FCRA/ Income-tax Act, 2025 (if applicable)
  • past rejection details (if any)

(B) Part B – Key persons and operational details

Includes:

  • details of founders, trustees, directors, shareholders holding 5% or more, etc.
  • beneficial owners (where applicable)
  • research facilities managed/ owned/ controlled
  • research projects undertaken in last three Tax Years
  • return filing details for last three Tax Years
  • income and expenditure details for last three Tax Years

10. What is the “Code relevant to Section” in Form No. 17?

Ans: In Form No. 17, the applicant must select the appropriate code depending on the nature of the organisation and the applicable clause. The codes include:

  • Research association [section 45(3)(a)(i)]
  • University/College/Other institution [section 45(3)(a)(i)]
  • Research association [section 45(3)(a)(ii)]
  • University/College/Other institution [section 45(3)(a)(ii)]
  • Company [section 45(3)(b)]

11. What registrations must be disclosed in Form No. 17?

Ans: The applicant must disclose registrations (where applicable), including:

  • registration under section 332 of the Income-tax Act, 2025 (if registered)
  • approval under Schedule VII of the Income-tax Act, 2025 (if approved)
  • approval/recognition by DSIR (if applicable)
  • registration/approval under section 45 of the Income-tax Act, 2025 (if already registered)
  • registration under FCRA Act (if registered)
  • registration on DARPAN portal (mandatory where applicant receives or intends to receive any grant/assistance from Government)

12. Is DARPAN registration mandatory to be filled in Form No. 17?

Ans: DARPAN registration number must be mandatorily provided if the applicant receives or intends to receive any grant or assistance from the Central Government or State Government.

13. What should be done if the applicant’s past application under section 45 was rejected?

Ans: If any past application for approval under section 45(3)(b) or 45(4)(b) (or corresponding provisions) was rejected, the applicant should provide copy of the rejection order.

14. What details of key persons are required in Form No. 17?

Ans: Form No. 17 requires details of all key persons such as:

  • Author(s)/ Founder(s)/ Settlor(s)/ Trustee(s)
  • Members of society/ governing council
  • Director(s)
  • shareholders holding 5% or more shareholding
  • office bearer(s)

The details include name, relation, PAN, address, mobile number and email ID.

15. What if a key person is not an individual?

Ans: If any person listed as a key person is not an individual, the applicant must provide details of natural persons who are beneficial owners (5% or more) of such person as on the date of application.

16. What operational details are required to be provided?

Ans: The applicant must provide details of laboratory/ research facility/ university/ college/ other institution managed/ controlled/ administered/ owned by the applicant, including:

  • name and PAN
  • whether notified/order passed under section 45 (Yes/No)
  • year of establishment
  • nature of activity
  • address
  • whether owned by applicant
  • person-in-charge details

17. What research project details must be furnished?

Ans: The applicant must provide details of research projects undertaken during the last three Tax Years, including:

  • project name
  • duration (from and to dates)
  • current status (ongoing/completed)
  • date of initiation
  • project cost/ estimated project cost
  • amount paid to other R&D institution (if any)

18. What income and expenditure details are required?

Ans: Form No. 17 requires details such as:

  • nature of business income (if any) and whether incidental to objectives
  • whether separate books maintained
  • return of income filed for last three Tax Years
  • donations and grants received for last three Tax Years
  • expenditure on research and non-research for last three Tax Years
  • annual research expenditure details for last three Tax Years

19. Is the Annexure in Form No. 17 mandatory?

Ans: The Annexure is to be filled only if the association claims exemption as per Schedule III (Table Sl. No. 23).

20. What enclosures/documents are required to be attached with Form No. 17?

Ans: The following documents/details may be required as enclosures (as applicable):

  • self-certified copy of instrument of creation (if constituted under an instrument)
  • self-certified copy of creation/establishment document (if not constituted under an instrument)
  • self-certified copy of registration documents (RoC/ firms & societies/ trusts etc.)
  • self-certified copy of FCRA registration (if applicable)
  • self-certified copy of existing notification/ order granting approval under section 45 (if any)
  • comprehensive note on research activities (or NIL declaration if none)
  • audited annual accounts for last three Tax Years (or NIL declaration for each year)
  • donors list for last three Tax Years (or NIL declaration)
  • patent/copyright/ trademark details (if any)

21. What are the key conditions applicable after approval is granted?

Ans: The approval granted is subject to conditions such as:

  • maintaining books of account / separate books of account for sums received for research
  • getting books audited and furnishing audit report by due date under section 263(1)
  • maintaining statement of donations received and amount applied for research
  • furnishing statement of research work done by due date under section 263(1)
  • ensuring activities remain genuine and as per conditions of approval

22. What is the due date for furnishing audit report and related statements after approval?

Ans: The audit report and required statements must be furnished by the due date of furnishing the return of income under section 263(1) of the Income-tax Act, 2025.

23. Can the approval granted under section 45 be withdrawn?

Ans: Yes. The prescribed authority may withdraw the approval granted under section 45(3)(b) or 45(4)(b) if it is satisfied that the applicant:

  • has ceased activities, or
  • activities are not genuine, or
  • activities are not being carried out in accordance with conditions/rules.

24. Will the applicant get an opportunity of being heard before rejection/withdrawal?

Ans: Yes. No order treating the application as invalid, rejecting the application, or withdrawing the approval shall be passed without giving a reasonable opportunity of being heard.

25. What is the processing timeline for Form No. 17?

Ans: The processing steps include:

  • deficiency letter may be served if defect/ document missing (within one month)
  • applicant must remove deficiency within 30 days from the end of the month in which the deficiency letter is served.
  • if complete, inquiry and recommendation by jurisdictional authority within 3 months
  • approval notification or rejection order to be issued within one year from the end of the month in which Form No. 17 is filed

26. How to ensure Form No. 17 is successfully submitted (DSC/ EVC steps)?

Ans: While submitting Form No. 17 electronically:

  • select the appropriate verification mode (DSC or EVC) as applicable
  • complete verification as per the authorised person under section 265
  • ensure acknowledgment is generated after successful submission

27. What is UDIN and when is it required in relation to Form No. 17?

Ans: UDIN (Unique Document Identification Number) is required for documents/certificates issued by an accountant (where applicable) as defined in the section 515(3)(b) of the Act. Where Form No. 17 requires audit report or certification by an accountant (such as statements certified by auditor), UDIN should be generated and mentioned as per professional requirements for validity and traceability.

28. Is Form No. 17 to be submitted physically also?

Ans: The form is to be furnished electronically. Additionally, the applicant is required to send a copy of the application in Form No. 17 to Member (IT), CBDT along with the acknowledgment receipt as evidence of having furnished the application form in duplicate in the office of the jurisdictional Commissioner/ Director.

29. What is the significance of Form No. 17 approval?

Ans: Approval under section 45(3)(b) or 45(4)(b) enables the applicant entity to be recognised for the purposes of the Income-tax Act, 2025, and supports eligibility of donors/payments as per the applicable provisions linked with such approval.

30. What common mistakes should be avoided while filing Form No. 17?

Ans: Applicants should avoid:

  • incorrect “Code relevant to Section” selection
  • incomplete registration details (DARPAN/ FCRA/Income-tax Act, 2025 approvals)
  • missing enclosures (instrument, audited accounts, donor lists, NIL declarations where required)
  • mismatch in key person details and beneficial ownership disclosures
  • not completing DSC/ EVC verification properly

Topics

Acts Income Tax