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April 3, 2026
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No objection certificate for departing persons not domiciled in India issued as tax clearance through departmental process.
Form 155 is the no objection certificate and tax clearance certificate issued by the Assessing Officer to a person not domiciled in India under section 420(1) of the Income-tax Act, 2025, read with Rule 228 of the Income-tax Rules, 2026. It is issued in response to Form 154 filed by a person leaving India, records identity and travel details, and states the validity period of the certificate. The certificate is issued through the departmental ITBA functionality and may need to be shown to Customs or Immigration Officers if required.
April 3, 2026
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Tax Clearance Certificate for non-domiciled persons is issued on Form 154 applications and may be required for immigration checks.
Form 155 is a Tax Clearance Certificate issued by the prescribed authority in response to Form 154 for a person not domiciled in India. It is not filed by the taxpayer, is issued subject to the conditions in the Act through the ITBA system, and has no prescribed statutory timeline. The certificate is event-based, depends on travel requirements, and may be produced before immigration officers if asked.
April 3, 2026
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Undertaking for tax clearance on departure from India requires employer or other signatory support and manual filing.
Form 154 is an undertaking required from an employer or other person when a person not domiciled in India is leaving India. It is filed manually under section 420(1) and Rule 228, and is supported by passport or Emergency Certificate details. The form is generally attached to a request for a Tax Clearance Certificate, and processing results in issuance of Form 155.
April 3, 2026
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Form 154 undertaking governs tax clearance for non-domiciled persons leaving India with India-sourced income.
Form 154 is the prescribed undertaking for a non-domiciled person leaving India with India-sourced income in connection with business, profession or employment. It is signed by the employer or other person concerned, filed offline before the prescribed authority, and is required each time such person departs India. The form supports issuance of a tax clearance certificate, requires a valid PAN, and is accompanied by a passport or emergency certificate, while Aadhaar is not required and proof of tax payment is optional.
April 3, 2026
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Tax recovery notice and certificate require payment within 15 days before recovery proceedings can begin.
Form 153 is the statutory Certificate and Notice of Demand issued by the Tax Recovery Officer for recovery of outstanding tax arrears under the Income-tax Act, 2025, read with the Income-tax Rules, 2026. It is an event-driven recovery instrument issued after default and a recovery certificate, may cover multiple tax years and multiple heads of arrears, and directs the taxpayer to pay within 15 days, failing which recovery proceedings may follow.
April 3, 2026
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Tax recovery demand notice under Form 153 requires payment of arrears within 15 days before coercive recovery begins.
Form 153 is the statutory Certificate and Notice of Demand issued by the Tax Recovery Officer for unpaid tax arrears, including tax, interest, penalty, fine, or other sums. It requires payment within 15 days and may cover multiple tax years or multiple heads of arrears in one notice. If payment is not made, recovery proceedings may follow, including attachment or sale of property and other enforcement measures, with interest, costs, charges, and expenses also accruing.
April 3, 2026
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Advance tax estimate dispute through Form 152 lets an assessee submit reasons and a revised income estimate.
Form 152 is used to intimate the Assessing Officer under section 407(8) where an assessee considers the estimate of income or advance tax in a notice of demand under section 289, issued pursuant to an order under section 407(2) or section 407(5), to be excessive. The assessee may state the reasons for disputing the estimate and furnish a revised estimate of income subject to advance tax for the relevant tax year. The form includes the demand reference, reasons for dispute, revised head-wise income estimate, computation of advance tax payable, and verification, together with supporting documents where required.
April 3, 2026
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Advance tax estimate disputes can be notified through Form 152 with reasons and a revised income estimate.
Form 152 is the statutory mechanism for intimating the Assessing Officer that a demand for advance tax is excessive and for furnishing a revised estimate of income subject to advance tax. It is optional and may be filed only by a person served with such notice who considers the Assessing Officer's estimate to be higher than the correct estimate for the relevant tax year. The form must be filed before the Assessing Officer who issued the demand and must specify the reasons for disputing the estimate along with a head-wise revised estimate of income.
April 3, 2026
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Advance tax compliance through Form 151 notice of demand, setting estimated liability, instalments, and due dates for payment.
Form 151 is the prescribed notice of demand for requiring payment of advance tax under the Income-tax Act, 2025. It is issued by the Assessing Officer to an assessee liable to pay advance tax under section 407(2) or 407(5), based on available information regarding the assessee's income for the relevant tax year. The notice states the estimated advance tax liability and the instalments and due dates for payment, and is accompanied by a computation of advance tax payable under section 407.
April 3, 2026
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Advance tax notice under Form 151 sets out estimated income, instalments, and payment requirements for assessees.
Form 151 is the prescribed notice of demand for requiring payment of advance tax where an assessee is liable to pay advance tax on estimated income for the relevant tax year. It is issued by the assessing officer on the basis of the officer's computation of estimated income subject to advance tax and the advance tax payable, and it informs the assessee of the demand and the instalments and due dates for payment. The form must also set out the assessee's particulars, the statutory basis, the tax year, and the amount payable.
April 3, 2026
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Tax collection default certificate: Form 150 enables electronic proof that the collectee paid tax and the collector is not treated as in default.
Form No. 150 is the electronic accountant's certificate required where a collector has failed to collect tax at source, but the collectee has included the relevant income in the return and paid the tax due, so that the collector is not treated as an assessee in default under section 398(2). The form is furnished electronically through the prescribed online filing framework, supported by a Chartered Accountant's certification confirming inclusion of income in the collectee's return and proof of tax payment. The process uses TRACES and e-filing portal steps, with prescribed transaction details, supporting records, and digitally signed certification.
April 3, 2026
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Tax at source default regularisation through Form No. 150 requires accountant certification and preserves interest liability.
Form No. 150 provides a mechanism for a collector who failed to collect tax at source to avoid being treated as an assessee in default where the collectee has filed a return, included the relevant amount in income, and paid the tax due. The form relies on an accountant's certificate in Annexure A and applies to both resident and non-resident collectees. Filing begins on the TRACES website and is processed through the e-filing portal, while interest remains payable for the period from the date tax was collectible until the collectee files the return.
April 3, 2026
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Assessee-in-default relief through accountant certification when the payee has disclosed income and paid tax.
Form No. 149 is the accountant's certificate used where tax was not deducted or was deducted short, but the payee has reported the income and paid the tax. It is filed electronically by the deductor through TRACES with Chartered Accountant certification to establish that the deductor is not treated as an assessee-in-default under section 398(2), though interest may still apply until the deductee pays the tax.
April 3, 2026
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Tax deduction default relief through Form 149 allows deductors to regularise failure to deduct tax once deductee tax payment is verified.
Form No. 149 provides a mechanism for a deductor to regularise failure to deduct tax at source where the deductee has already filed a return and paid the tax due. The Accountant's certificate in Annexure A confirms that the deductee filed the return, included the relevant income, and paid the tax. The form may be filed for resident or non-resident deductees, and if accepted the deductor is not treated as an assessee in default, though interest remains payable until the deductee files the return. Filing is initiated through TRACES and the e-filing portal.
April 3, 2026
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Quarterly remittance reporting by IFSC units requires Form 148 filing for cross-border payments and e-verification.
Form No. 148 requires every IFSC unit making remittance to a non-resident other than a company or to a foreign company to file a quarterly statement through the e-Filing portal, whether the remittance is taxable or not. The form consolidates remittance reporting, prescribes quarterly due dates, and sets out unit details and remittance particulars to be furnished and verified online. Non-compliance within the due date may attract a penalty of up to Rs. 1 lakh, while remittances not chargeable to tax continue to be reported in Form No. 148 instead of Part D of Form No. 145.
April 3, 2026
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Mandatory quarterly remittance reporting by IFSC units requires online filing, DSC verification, and timely compliance.
Form No. 148 is a mandatory quarterly statement for IFSC units making remittances to a non-resident other than a company or to a foreign company. It must be filed online through the e-Filing portal, e-verified by DSC, and furnished by the 15th day of the month following each quarter. The form requires remittee and remittance details, cannot be modified after submission, and non-filing or late filing may attract a penalty of up to Rs. 1 lakh.
April 3, 2026
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Foreign remittance reporting requires quarterly Form No. 147 filing with linked Form No. 145 details and digital verification.
Form No. 147 requires authorised dealers to furnish a quarterly statement of remittances to non-residents and foreign companies through the e-Filing portal. Filing is due each quarter after obtaining ITDREIN and mapping an authorised person, with Part A covering dealer particulars and Part B covering remitter, remittee and remittance details, including Form No. 145 acknowledgement particulars where applicable. Non-filing within time attracts penalty, and the form is integrated with the Department's risk profiling and verification system.
April 3, 2026
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Authorised dealer reporting for cross-border remittances requires mandatory quarterly Form No. 147 filing and electronic verification.
Form No. 147 is a mandatory quarterly statement filed by an Authorised Dealer for remittances to a non-resident, other than a company, or to a foreign company. It must be filed only through the e-Filing portal, after generation of ITDREIN and mapping of an authorised person with a valid Digital Signature Certificate for e-verification. The form is due quarterly by the 15th of the month following each quarter and is supported by Form No. 145 details. Late filing may attract penalty.
April 3, 2026
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Accountant's certificate for foreign remittances requires chargeability review, treaty relief analysis, and e-verification before payment is made.
Form No. 146 is the accountant's certificate for specified foreign remittances to a non-resident other than a company or to a foreign company where the payment or aggregate payments exceed the prescribed threshold and no Assessing Officer certificate has been obtained. It requires the Chartered Accountant to certify chargeability under domestic income-tax provisions and applicable DTAA relief, with supporting details on remitter, remittee, remittance, tax deduction, and verification. The form is filed through the e-filing system, e-verified using DSC, may be withdrawn within seven days, and inaccurate certification exposes the accountant to penalty.
April 3, 2026
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Accountant's certificate for foreign remittances governs taxability checks, digital filing, withdrawal limits, and one-time consumption for Part C.
Form No. 146 is the accountant's certificate required for filing Part C of Form No. 145 where a remittance is chargeable to tax and exceeds the prescribed threshold during the tax year. It is certified by a registered Chartered Accountant with a Digital Signature Certificate and assignment of Form No. 145, Part C, and it examines chargeability under the Income-tax Act and any applicable Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement. The form is filed online or through the offline utility, verified by Digital Signature Certificate, and may be withdrawn within seven days subject to the linked filing status.

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Corp. Laws / SEBI / IBC

Sebi adopts conflict of interest, disclosure framework for top officials

March 23, 2026

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Mumbai, Mar 23 (PTI) Capital markets regulator Sebi on Monday adopted a disclosure framework requiring top officials to disclose their assets and recuse themselves from related decision-making, almost two years after the issue came to the fore with allegations against the then chief Madhabi Puri Buch.

The board of the capital markets regulator Sebi on Monday approved several recommendations of a high-level committee on "conflict of interest" which was constituted immediately after current chairman Tuhin Kanta Pandey took charge.

Buch, whose term ended in early 2025, had faced allegations of potential conflicts of interest and nondisclosures during her term, becoming the first of the market regulator's chiefs to face such allegations while in office. Pandey, her successor, appointed the high-level panel to suggest ways to avoid similar issues in future.

As per the Sebi board decision on Monday, the Chairman and Whole Time Members (WTMs) are to be brought within the definition of "insider".

"The immovable property details of the Chairman, WTM, Executive Directors and Chief General Managers may be publicly disclosed in line with the requirements already applicable to Government of India All India Service (AIS) and Central Civil Services(CCS) officers.

However, details of assets and liabilities in the format to be prescribed would have to be internally disclosed to Sebi," the regulator said.

The board also decided to create an "ethics infrastructure", which will involve setting up the 'office of ethics and compliance' for management of conflict of interest framework for employees.

It approved the setting up of a digital system for management of conflict of interest, a whistleblower system for reporting actual, potential, or perceived conflicts of interest and training and development programmes to foster a culture of ethical conduct.

The board also accepted recommendations in case of recusals relating to material financial interest and other circumstances that may require recusal, as given in the HLC report.

Also, it approved a digital system and recusal framework may be put in place to record disclosure of conflicted relationships as well as to process recusals, including grant of approvals.

The Sebi board approved a recommendation of the high-level committee (HLC) for a uniform application of restrictions on investments and trading (in equity and equity-related instruments, other than permitted investments in mutual funds) for the Chairman and WTMs as currently applicable to employees.

The HLC had submitted its report on November 10 but Pandey had earlier pointed to some discontent within the Sebi brass due to which a final decision was pending in the matter.

Among others, the chairman and the WTMs may be required to choose one of the four options for investments held by them at the time of joining: liquidate the investments, freeze the investments, sell the investments according to a trading plan, or sell the investments without a trading plan with prior approval.

Investments in equity and equity-related instruments in commercial ventures (including unlisted companies) must be fully liquidated or kept frozen during the tenure of the Chairman or the WTMs. Vested options, if any, must be exercised before joining Sebi.

The definition of "family should be aligned for members and employees. Additionally, a member or an employee must disclose any negotiation or agreement regarding future employment.

Sebi said that several key recommendations of HLC were approved by the board without modification, while the board took note of public and media comments, privacy and other concerns expressed by employees with respect to other recommendations of HLC.

The board decided that the decision of the Board on the recommendations of HLC may be suitably incorporated in the 2008 Code on Conflict of Interest for Members of the Board for voluntary adoption as per the current practice.

Also, after deliberations, the board decided to refer certain HLC recommendations to the Central Government for consideration. These included notifying a separate set of regulations for board members and overseeing board Members' conflicts of interest.

The next steps for implementing the recommendations of HLC include making amendments to the SEBI (Employees' Service) Regulations, 2001, revising 2008 Code on Conflict of Interest for members of board and provide necessary operational guidelines.

Further, systems and processes would be put in place for implementing the framework for the management of conflicts of interest within Sebi.

Pandey's predecessor Buch had come under attack last year from now-shuttered Hindenburg Research which alleged that she and her husband held "hidden" holdings in Bermuda and Mauritius entities also drawn upon by the older brother of Adani group founder Gautam Adani, which possibly held the agency back from investigating fraud charges against the powerful conglomerate. Both Buch and the Adani group had denied all allegations.

The Sebi board also took a slew of other decisions on Monday, including allowing flexibility to foreign portfolio investors in winding up of schemes and surrendering registrations.

When asked about the issues in the private credit market in the US and if he sees any impact on India, Pandey replied in the negative.

Amid market volatility following the West Asia conflict, the Sebi chief said the regulator will work to ensure market integrity.

Meanwhile, Pandey said that Sebi will soon begin an awareness campaign for investors in association with the Association of Mutual Funds of India and the exchanges. PTI AA SP MR

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