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April 3, 2026
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Immunity from penalty and prosecution through Form 161 requires full payment, no appeal, and online filing.
Form 161 is the prescribed application under section 440(2) of the Income-tax Act, 2025 for seeking immunity from penalty and prosecution after an assessment or reassessment order. It is optional and event-based, must be filed within one month from the end of the month of receipt of the order, and is available only where the taxpayer has paid the full tax and interest demand and has not filed any appeal. The form requires order details, demand details, proof of payment, and PAN, and can be submitted only online through the e-Filing portal.
April 3, 2026
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Refund of wrongly deducted tax through Form 160 requires full transaction details, supporting documents, and timely filing.
Refund of tax deducted at source and deposited to the Central Government is available through Form 160 where tax was not required to be deducted on the relevant income or transaction. The form is filed by the deductor before the Assessing Officer having jurisdiction, within thirty days from payment of tax, and must contain transaction details, deductee details, agreement particulars, and proof of the tax deducted and deposited. Supporting documents and verification enable examination of whether the refund claim is admissible.
April 3, 2026
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Refund of wrongly deducted tax through Form 160 requires proof that no tax was deductible and full TDS disclosure.
Refund of tax deducted at source and paid to the Central Government may be sought through Form 160 where the deductor contends that no tax was deductible on the relevant income or transaction. The form is the prescribed application under the Income-tax law and is to be used only in cases where tax was actually deducted and deposited, but the applicant later claims that the deduction was not required under the Act. It is filed before the TDS Assessing Officer having jurisdiction over the applicant, and the application is supported by the statutory particulars needed to test the claim of non-deductibility.
April 3, 2026
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Tax Clearance Certificate Form 159 governs clearance for persons leaving India and requires Assessing Officer issuance on Form 158.
Tax Clearance Certificate in Form 159 is issued by the Assessing Officer in response to Form 158 and is prescribed under section 420(5) of the Income-tax Act, 2025 read with Rule 228 of the Income-tax Rules, 2026. The form records the departing person's identity details and travel-linked validity, is issued through ITBA functionality, and has no statutory timeline for issue. Form 158 is the supporting application, and the note states that the taxpayer cannot leave India without the requisite clearance certificate.
April 3, 2026
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Tax Clearance Certificate governs departure-related compliance and is issued by the Assessing Officer on a Form 158 application.
Form 159 is the Tax Clearance Certificate issued by the Assessing Officer in response to Form 158. It is not filed by the taxpayer, but is issued to the specified taxpayer through the ITBA functionality, subject to the requirements of the Income-tax Act, 2025. No statutory time limit is prescribed for issuance, and the certificate is event-based, depending on the travel requirements of the person leaving India.
April 3, 2026
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Tax clearance certificate requirements for persons leaving India are set out through electronic filing of Form 158.
Form 158 is the application for a Tax Clearance Certificate required from a person directed by the Assessing Officer to obtain clearance before leaving India. It is filed each time the requirement applies, captures travel, identification, business, and passport details, and must be supported by documents such as passport or emergency certificate, PAN, and travel booking records. The form is filed electronically through the income-tax portal and digitally signed; on processing, Form 159 is issued as the Tax Clearance Certificate.
April 3, 2026
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Tax Clearance Certificate filing under Form 158 requires mandatory electronic submission before leaving India.
Form 158 is the mandatory electronic application for a Tax Clearance Certificate for domiciled persons required to obtain clearance before leaving India under the Income-tax Act, 2025. It must be filed each time the person leaves India, through the e-filing portal only. PAN is mandatory, while Aadhaar is not required. Supporting documents include passport or emergency certificate details and travel booking documents. The form cannot be edited after submission, and verification may be completed through prescribed electronic modes.
April 3, 2026
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Foreign departure undertaking for persons without PAN or taxable income is proposed as a manual compliance form.
Form 157 is a manual undertaking to be furnished by persons domiciled in India leaving India at the time of departure under section 420(4) of the Income-tax Act, 2025 and Rule 228 of the Income-tax Rules, 2026. It applies only to persons without PAN or without income chargeable to tax. The form requires identity and passport details, an undertaking regarding PAN or taxable income status, and particulars of the foreign visit, supported by passport documents or an emergency certificate where no passport is available.
April 3, 2026
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Form 157 certificate filing rules for domiciled persons leaving India without PAN or taxable income
Form 157 is a proposed new income-tax certificate form for persons domiciled in India leaving India who do not have PAN, do not have income chargeable to tax in India, or are not required to obtain PAN. It is mandatory subject to notified exceptions, must be filed each time the person leaves India, and is to be submitted manually before the jurisdictional Assessing Officer with the prescribed identity documents. The form does not require proof of tax payment, Aadhaar is no longer required in the personal details, and corrections may be made before submission or later through the Assessing Officer.
April 3, 2026
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Form 156 filing requirement for Indian residents leaving India is being split into declaration and undertaking formats.
Persons domiciled in India leaving India must furnish Form 156 at the time of departure as an undertaking under section 420(3) of the Income-tax Act, 2025 read with rule 228 of the Income-tax Rules, 2026, subject to notified exceptions. The form is to be filed electronically through the Income-tax Department e-filing portal and requires personal particulars, travel purpose, duration of stay abroad, passport details, and supporting documents such as passport and PAN, or an emergency certificate where no passport is available. The form structure is being rationalised by splitting the existing manual form into Form 156 and Form 157.
April 3, 2026
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Departure undertaking requirement governs Form 156 filing, with PAN-based e-filing and limited verification options for domiciled persons leaving India.
Form 156 is an undertaking to be furnished by persons domiciled in India leaving India at the time of departure, subject to notified exceptions. It applies only where the person has a valid PAN and income chargeable to tax in India, and is filed each time the person leaves India. The form cannot be edited after submission and acknowledgement. Filing is electronic through the income tax e-filing portal, with verification by electronic verification code or digital signature certificate, and requires passport or emergency certificate details, without proof of tax payment or Aadhaar.
April 3, 2026
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No objection certificate for departing persons not domiciled in India issued as tax clearance through departmental process.
Form 155 is the no objection certificate and tax clearance certificate issued by the Assessing Officer to a person not domiciled in India under section 420(1) of the Income-tax Act, 2025, read with Rule 228 of the Income-tax Rules, 2026. It is issued in response to Form 154 filed by a person leaving India, records identity and travel details, and states the validity period of the certificate. The certificate is issued through the departmental ITBA functionality and may need to be shown to Customs or Immigration Officers if required.
April 3, 2026
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Tax Clearance Certificate for non-domiciled persons is issued on Form 154 applications and may be required for immigration checks.
Form 155 is a Tax Clearance Certificate issued by the prescribed authority in response to Form 154 for a person not domiciled in India. It is not filed by the taxpayer, is issued subject to the conditions in the Act through the ITBA system, and has no prescribed statutory timeline. The certificate is event-based, depends on travel requirements, and may be produced before immigration officers if asked.
April 3, 2026
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Undertaking for tax clearance on departure from India requires employer or other signatory support and manual filing.
Form 154 is an undertaking required from an employer or other person when a person not domiciled in India is leaving India. It is filed manually under section 420(1) and Rule 228, and is supported by passport or Emergency Certificate details. The form is generally attached to a request for a Tax Clearance Certificate, and processing results in issuance of Form 155.
April 3, 2026
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Form 154 undertaking governs tax clearance for non-domiciled persons leaving India with India-sourced income.
Form 154 is the prescribed undertaking for a non-domiciled person leaving India with India-sourced income in connection with business, profession or employment. It is signed by the employer or other person concerned, filed offline before the prescribed authority, and is required each time such person departs India. The form supports issuance of a tax clearance certificate, requires a valid PAN, and is accompanied by a passport or emergency certificate, while Aadhaar is not required and proof of tax payment is optional.
April 3, 2026
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Tax recovery notice and certificate require payment within 15 days before recovery proceedings can begin.
Form 153 is the statutory Certificate and Notice of Demand issued by the Tax Recovery Officer for recovery of outstanding tax arrears under the Income-tax Act, 2025, read with the Income-tax Rules, 2026. It is an event-driven recovery instrument issued after default and a recovery certificate, may cover multiple tax years and multiple heads of arrears, and directs the taxpayer to pay within 15 days, failing which recovery proceedings may follow.
April 3, 2026
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Tax recovery demand notice under Form 153 requires payment of arrears within 15 days before coercive recovery begins.
Form 153 is the statutory Certificate and Notice of Demand issued by the Tax Recovery Officer for unpaid tax arrears, including tax, interest, penalty, fine, or other sums. It requires payment within 15 days and may cover multiple tax years or multiple heads of arrears in one notice. If payment is not made, recovery proceedings may follow, including attachment or sale of property and other enforcement measures, with interest, costs, charges, and expenses also accruing.
April 3, 2026
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Advance tax estimate dispute through Form 152 lets an assessee submit reasons and a revised income estimate.
Form 152 is used to intimate the Assessing Officer under section 407(8) where an assessee considers the estimate of income or advance tax in a notice of demand under section 289, issued pursuant to an order under section 407(2) or section 407(5), to be excessive. The assessee may state the reasons for disputing the estimate and furnish a revised estimate of income subject to advance tax for the relevant tax year. The form includes the demand reference, reasons for dispute, revised head-wise income estimate, computation of advance tax payable, and verification, together with supporting documents where required.
April 3, 2026
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Advance tax estimate disputes can be notified through Form 152 with reasons and a revised income estimate.
Form 152 is the statutory mechanism for intimating the Assessing Officer that a demand for advance tax is excessive and for furnishing a revised estimate of income subject to advance tax. It is optional and may be filed only by a person served with such notice who considers the Assessing Officer's estimate to be higher than the correct estimate for the relevant tax year. The form must be filed before the Assessing Officer who issued the demand and must specify the reasons for disputing the estimate along with a head-wise revised estimate of income.
April 3, 2026
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Advance tax compliance through Form 151 notice of demand, setting estimated liability, instalments, and due dates for payment.
Form 151 is the prescribed notice of demand for requiring payment of advance tax under the Income-tax Act, 2025. It is issued by the Assessing Officer to an assessee liable to pay advance tax under section 407(2) or 407(5), based on available information regarding the assessee's income for the relevant tax year. The notice states the estimated advance tax liability and the instalments and due dates for payment, and is accompanied by a computation of advance tax payable under section 407.

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EASE 8.0 Reform Agenda Advances Transformation of Public Sector Banks

March 10, 2026

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EASERise Reforms centred on Four Themes: Risk & Resilience, Innovation, Socio-Economic Impact and Excellence

Reforms focus on digital lending, AI adoption, financial inclusion and operational excellence to build resilient and customer-centric public sector banks

Under the EASE reform programme, PSBs have made significant progress on various parameters including improvements in customer grievance redressal, asset quality, and operational efficiency.

These reforms are as under:

  1. Improved customer grievance redressal mechanism by enabling remediation action tagging and integrating complaints to Bank’s Customer Relationship Management Portal
  2. Enhanced asset quality: PSBs have embedded multiple advanced capabilities in their Loan Management Systems, which inter alia include bureau analysis tools, automated retrieval of financial statements from the Ministry of Corporate Affairs’ portal, bank statement integration through Account Aggregators, data-driven underwriting models, and GST integration. These enhancements have significantly improved portfolio quality while also strengthening resilience to potential credit shocks
  3. PSBs have dedicated sales team for Current Account Savings Account acquisition through digital assisted journeys for customer convenience and outreach
  4. 11 PSBs have set up Resiliency Operations Centres to strengthen IT governance and resilience of IT infrastructure
  5. Seven PSBs have deployed at least one Gen-AI use case to enhance operational efficiency and customer service
  6. Seven PSBs have established centralised Business Intelligence units to proactively assess market potential and identify leads for outbound field sales and branches
  7. Five PSBs have governance framework with representation of Divyangjans in Customer Service Cell and Grievance Redressal Cell along with setting up of Digital Accessibility Cell and appointment of Nodal officers
  8. PSBs have strengthened accessibility for Divyangjans and Senior Citizens customers through initiatives including rollout of Braille-enabled debit and credit cards, priority call routing to trained agents, regional language interfaces, and dedicated service cells reflecting a stronger emphasis on empathy and inclusivity across PSBs
  9. Effective collections mechanism through customer specific and product wise collection strategies across various digital channels. 11 PSBs have a collection mobile application for better monitoring and follow-up features to reduce collection operational cost
  10. 10 PSBs have AI-driven voice bots and WhatsApp chatbots for recovery actions
  11. PSBs have Digital tool/portal/platform for monitoring SARFAESI/DRT/NCLT cases

EASE has served as a catalyst in the transformation journey of PSBs through its structured approach to reforms. As per RBI’s provisional data, as on 31.12.2025, below are key highlights that illustrate the significant impact witnessed by PSBs throughout this remarkable journey.

  1. During FY2024-25, all PSBs were profit making with highest ever aggregate net profit of ₹1.78 lakh crore, as against the loss of ₹85,371 crore reported by PSBs in FY2017-18. Further, the net profit of PSBs during the first nine months of FY2025-26 was ₹1.46 lakh crore.
  2. Gross NPA ratio of PSBs have declined to a fresh low of 2.10% (₹2.54 lakh crore) in Dec-25 from 4.97% (₹2.79 lakh crore) in Mar-15, and from a peak of 14.58% (₹8.96 lakh crore) in Mar-18.
  3. Capital adequacy has improved significantly with Capital to Risk- weighted Assets Ratio (CRAR) of PSBs improving by 401 bps to reach 15.46% in Dec-25 from 11.45% in Mar-15.
  4. During FY2024-25, no PSB was under RBI’s Prompt Corrective Action (PCA) as against FY2017-18 where 11 PSBs out of 21 were under PCA.
  5. In FY2024-25, all PSBs have digital journeys across Retail, Agriculture and MSME sectors, while no such journeys were offered in FY2017-18.
  6. Now all PSBs have a centralized integrated grievance redressal portal, while manual grievance redressal system existed in FY2017-18.
  7. In FY2024-25, PSBs have achieved an Annualised Return on Total Assets of 1.10%, which was -0.87% in FY2017-18.

In FY2025-26, EASE 8.0 Common Reforms have been launched as EASERise with four themes on Risk and Resilience, Innovation, Socio-economic Impact and Excellence. This comprehensive reform agenda is focused on risk & resilience, Gen-Artificial Intelligence (AI) & Agentic AI adoption, inclusive banking, sustainability, customer experience, and operational excellence with the objective to strengthen PSBs as agile, future-ready and customer-centric institutions. The details of major initiatives introduced or revised in EASE 8.0 are as under:

(I) Governance:

  1. Inclusive Governance Framework to ensure Divyangjans representation in Customer Service Committees, Grievance Redressal Cell, and setting up a dedicated Accessibility Cell having Accessibility employees
  2. Dedicated outbound sales team governance structures
  3. Enhanced Learning and Development governance
  4. Environmental, Social and Governance Scorecard integration and dedicated Customer Retention Squad governance framework
  5. Artificial Intelligence roadmaps and leveraging its use cases for operational efficiency

(II) Customer Service:

  1. Specifically designed asset and liability products for Gig/platform workers, Youth, Women and Startups
  2. Multilingual Customer service in Regional Languages (Digital Channels and Service forms)
  3. Enhanced Mobile-App capabilities for Retail and Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) customers
  4. Asset and Liability digital assisted journey for customer onboarding 
  5. Virtual Relationship Managers for identified customers
  6. End-to-end digital journeys for trade finance solutions 
  7. Self-service touch points for Divyangjans

(III) Digital Lending:

  1. Digital journeys for Retail, MSME and Agri-loan products.
  2. Digital assisted framework for customer convenience
  3. Integrating advanced capabilities in loan management system for MSME underwriting
  4. Integration with Account Aggregator ecosystem
  5. Automatic credit appraisal generation capabilities and use of analytics/AI in underwriting

(IV) Risk Management:

  1. Focus on Expected Credit Loss models
  2. Digital portal/platforms for monitoring of Operational Risks taxonomy and Early Warning Signals
  3. Fraud prevention and Anti-Money Laundering checks in the existing as well as new bank customers’ onboarding journey
  4. Enhanced models for mule account identification and enhanced customer due diligence
  5. Technology Modernisation and resilience of IT Applications by setting up Resiliency Operation Centre and efficient third-party risk management
  6. Digital forensic readiness for cyber incidents
  7. App/platform/portal-based recovery and collection monitoring mechanisms

The Enhanced Access and Service Excellence (EASE) Reform Agenda is finalised on yearly basis at the start of each financial year (FY), under the guidance of EASE Steering Committee of member PSBs under the aegis of Indian Banks’ Association. The Reforms Agenda is objectively assessed and reviewed quarterly by the EASE Steering Committee.

Under EASE Reforms, normally timelines are defined within the FY, and the metrics are scheduled for operationalisation from April onwards during the FY, to ensure structured implementation.

A structured quarterly evaluation is overseen by EASE Steering Committee comprising stakeholders from all PSBs, to assess the progress and improvements based on defined metrics, quarterly data submissions/review, and relative performance among PSBs.

The evaluation framework systematically captures performance outcomes by measuring improvements across defined reform indicators. Progress is assessed through periodic data submissions, trend analysis, and relative performance among PSBs to ensure objectivity and comparability.

This information was given by the Minister of State in the Ministry of Finance Shri Pankaj Chaudhary in Rajya Sabha today.

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Acts Income Tax