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April 4, 2026
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Payroll compliance mistakes demand accurate classification, timely deductions, and automated statutory checks to prevent audits and penalties.
Payroll compliance requires accurate employee classification, timely tax deduction, and correct statutory contribution management to avoid audits, penalties, and employee disputes. Common errors include misclassifying employees and contract workers, which can cause missed PF, ESI and TDS obligations, and incorrect or delayed TDS computation arising from failed declarations, salary changes, or tax regime switches. The compliance approach relies on onboarding checks, real-time recalculation, and automated deposit scheduling to reduce errors before they enter the payroll cycle.
April 4, 2026
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Bribery allegations against a CGST officer trigger a CBI trap, arrest, and continuing investigation into corruption claims.
Bribery allegations led to a CBI trap and arrest of an Assistant Commissioner, CGST, Ratlam, after a private person or middleman allegedly demanded money for not initiating GST proceedings against the complainant's firm. The accused was caught red-handed while accepting a bribe through the middleman, with searches continuing at the accused's premises and investigation still in progress.
April 4, 2026
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Mutual fund approval process for subscribing to eligible public issues under the Income-tax Act framework clarified.
Approval is sought by a mutual fund to subscribe to an eligible issue of public companies under Schedule XV(1)(z)(ii) of the Income-tax Act, 2025, through Form 190. The form must be filed three months before the issue of eligible capital with the prescribed details and documents, including mutual fund and management particulars, scheme details, SEBI and custodian records, audited financial statements, and approval documents relating to the public company's share issue.
April 4, 2026
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Mutual fund approval for eligible public company issues depends on timely filing of Form 190.
A mutual fund must file Form 190 to seek approval for investment in the eligible issue of public companies under Schedule XV(1)(z)(ii) of the Income-tax Act, 2025. The form corresponds to the earlier Form 59A under the Income-tax Rules, 1962, and to the corresponding rule framework under the Income-tax Rules, 2026. The application is to be filed by the mutual fund itself, together with the documents specified in the form, three months before the issue of eligible capital. Approval for subscription is granted on the basis of the particulars furnished in Form 190.
April 4, 2026
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Approval for issue of eligible capital under Schedule XV depends on Form 189 details, disclosures, and supporting documents.
Form 189 is the application for approval of issue of public companies under Schedule XV(1)(z)(i) of the Income-tax Act, 2025, and is filed by the public company three months before the issue of eligible capital. The form requires company particulars, management details, bankers and auditors, issue details, project details, and supporting documents such as incorporation certificate, audited financial statements, equity details, SEBI approval and any project report. Processed Form 189 leads to approval for issue of eligible capital on the basis of the details furnished.
April 4, 2026
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Public company issue approval through Form 189 governs eligible capital issues and related deduction eligibility.
Form 189 is the prescribed application for approval of issue of public companies under Schedule XV(1)(z)(i) of the Income-tax Act, 2025. It is filed by the public company with supporting documents before the issue of eligible capital, and the approval is granted on the basis of the details furnished in the form. Individual contributions to the issue are stated to qualify for deduction under the Act.
April 4, 2026
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Consolidated approval form standardises gratuity and superannuation fund compliance, replacing rule-based particulars with structured filing.
Introduction of consolidated Form 188 standardises the approval process for Gratuity Fund and Superannuation Fund applications under Part B of Schedule XI by replacing the earlier text-based particulars in Rule 95 and Rule 109. The form is filed by trustees or an authorised person only for initial approval, and it requires details of the employer, the fund, eligible employees, account maintenance, fund status, trustee verification, and supporting documents such as the trust deed, fund rules, and accounts where applicable.
April 4, 2026
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Approval mechanism for gratuity and superannuation funds is standardised through Form 188 with structured compliance requirements.
Form 188 provides a standardised application mechanism for approval of Gratuity Funds and Superannuation Funds, replacing earlier rule-based procedural requirements. It is filed once by the trustees or an authorised person, with prescribed particulars and supporting documents such as the trust deed, fund rules, accounts, and balance sheet where applicable. The application is examined by the jurisdictional authority, which may seek clarifications and then grant approval, issue deficiency notice, or reject the application.
April 4, 2026
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Appeal against fund recognition refusal uses Form 187, with supporting documents and filing within 60 days.
Appeal against refusal to recognise or withdrawal of recognition from a recognised provident fund, and refusal to approve or withdrawal of approval from a superannuation fund or gratuity fund, is filed in Form 187 by the employer, trustee, or authorised representative within 60 days of communication of the order. The form requires appellant particulars, fund details, grounds of appeal, verification, and supporting documents such as the impugned order, original application, proof of filing, authorisation, and fee challan.
April 4, 2026
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Appeals for provident, superannuation and gratuity funds require Form 187, supporting documents and filing within 60 days.
Form 187 prescribes the appellate mechanism under the Income-tax Act, 2025 for matters concerning recognised provident funds, superannuation funds and approved gratuity funds, including appeals against orders affecting recognition, approval, withdrawal, cancellation or refusal of such status. The form is to be used by trustees, employers or other authorised persons representing the fund where an adverse order has been passed by the competent income-tax authority. Appeals must be filed within 60 days from communication of the order, and filing does not by itself operate as a stay unless specifically granted.
April 4, 2026
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Customs enforcement along the India-Nepal border led to seizure of undocumented soft drinks and air conditioners.
Customs enforcement along the India-Nepal border led to seizure of soft drinks and air conditioners being moved without valid customs documents. A vehicle carrying 1,575 bottles of soft drinks was intercepted after the driver tried to flee, while two split air conditioners transported on bicycles were also recovered in a separate patrol operation. The goods, vehicle and bicycles were handed over to the Customs Department.
April 4, 2026
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Indian pharmaceutical exports show sustained growth as formulations, biologicals, vaccines and Ayush products drive resilience.
Indian pharmaceutical exports recorded sustained growth in FY26, reaching nearly USD 29 billion by the end of February and increasing over the corresponding period in the previous financial year. The export performance was led by formulations, biologicals, vaccines and Ayush products, and was described as resilient despite global challenges, pricing pressures and trade volatility. The sector's overall value was placed at about USD 60 billion, with projected expansion to USD 130 billion by 2030.
April 4, 2026
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Recognised Provident Fund recognition process requires trust deed compliance, supporting documents, scrutiny and ongoing investment and reporting obligations.
Application under Rule 40C seeks recognition of a provident fund so it qualifies as a Recognised Provident Fund for income-tax purposes. It applies to employers, trustees and existing funds seeking recognition on formation, conversion, amendment, merger or split. The form requires trust deed details, fund rules, investment policy, financial information and supporting documents, followed by scrutiny, possible revisions, issuance of recognition and ongoing compliance with investment, audit and reporting requirements.
April 4, 2026
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Recognised Provident Fund recognition through Form 186 depends on disclosure, supporting documents, and compliance with trust conditions.
Form 186 is the prescribed application for seeking recognition of a provident fund as a Recognised Provident Fund for income-tax purposes. It is filed by the employer, trustees, or an existing trust seeking recognition, and is ordinarily a one-time application subject to refiling or intimation for material changes in the trust deed or fund rules. The form requires detailed disclosures and supporting documents, and on approval the fund attains RPF status with tax treatment governed by applicable statutory limits and conditions. Recognition may later be withdrawn for non-compliance.
April 4, 2026
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Recognised provident fund accounting in Form 185 requires annual subscriber-wise records of contributions, interest, withdrawals, and balances.
Rule 294 requires recognised provident fund accounts to be prepared at intervals not exceeding twelve months, with a separate account maintained for each subscriber in Form 185. The form is maintained internally by the provident fund trust or authorised officers, and records subscriber particulars, opening balance, monthly contributions, interest, withdrawals or advances, closing balance, and verification. Part A is maintained separately for each subscriber, while Part B presents the same information in consolidated annual subscriber-wise form.
April 4, 2026
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Recognised Provident Fund recordkeeping requires Form 185 to track contributions, interest, withdrawals, and annual balances.
Form No. 185 is the prescribed accounting format for individual subscriber records under a Recognised Provident Fund, maintained by trustees or authorised officers under the Income-tax Rules. It records annual subscriber-wise particulars such as contributions, interest credited, withdrawals or advances, opening and closing balances, and verification details. Part-A is kept for each subscriber, while Part-B is the annual consolidated abstract filed with the Assessing Officer.
April 4, 2026
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Deduction audit report for petroleum and natural gas businesses requires deposit verification, withdrawal checks, and Chartered Accountant certification.
Form No. 183 is the prescribed audit report for claiming deduction under section 49 in the business of prospecting, extracting, or producing petroleum, natural gas, or both in India. It is furnished by a Chartered Accountant and verifies audit of the relevant books, timely deposit into the specified account, permitted use of withdrawals, disallowance of inadmissible expenditure, and transfer restrictions on assets acquired under the scheme. The form is filed annually before the return due date and requires supporting records of books, deposits, withdrawals, and asset transfers.
April 4, 2026
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Supply chain disruption hits Bikaner snack exports as conflict delays shipments and raises freight and input costs.
West Asia conflict has disrupted Bikaner exports and imports, causing delays in shipments of bhujia, papad, namkeen and spices to Gulf and European markets. Traders report longer transit routes, container shortages, higher freight charges, rising raw material and packaging costs, and consignments stuck at ports or in transit, affecting the city's export-driven economy.
April 4, 2026
Show AI Summary
Audit report for petroleum and natural gas deduction claims requires certification, supporting records, and online filing compliance.
Form No. 183 is the prescribed audit report under Rule 291 read with Section 49 of the Income-tax Act, 2025 for an assessee engaged in the business of prospecting, extracting, or producing petroleum, natural gas, or both in India. It is mandatory where the deduction is claimed and must be certified by an Accountant. The form requires supporting books, financial statements, evidence of deposits and withdrawals from the specified account, and a computation showing that the deduction remains within the permissible limit.
April 4, 2026
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Deduction claim audit report for tea, coffee and rubber businesses requires Chartered Accountant certification and compliance with deposit rules.
Form No. 182 is a statutory audit report for assessees engaged in growing and manufacturing tea, coffee or rubber who claim deduction under section 48. It must be furnished by a Chartered Accountant annually before the return due date and certifies audit of books, timely deposit in the specified account or approved scheme, withdrawal utilisation, disallowable amounts, asset transfers, and the deduction permissible. The form is now a smart, tabulated e-form with mandatory professional identifiers and standardised fields for e-filing and validation.

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EASE 8.0 Reform Agenda Advances Transformation of Public Sector Banks

March 10, 2026

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EASERise Reforms centred on Four Themes: Risk & Resilience, Innovation, Socio-Economic Impact and Excellence

Reforms focus on digital lending, AI adoption, financial inclusion and operational excellence to build resilient and customer-centric public sector banks

Under the EASE reform programme, PSBs have made significant progress on various parameters including improvements in customer grievance redressal, asset quality, and operational efficiency.

These reforms are as under:

  1. Improved customer grievance redressal mechanism by enabling remediation action tagging and integrating complaints to Bank’s Customer Relationship Management Portal
  2. Enhanced asset quality: PSBs have embedded multiple advanced capabilities in their Loan Management Systems, which inter alia include bureau analysis tools, automated retrieval of financial statements from the Ministry of Corporate Affairs’ portal, bank statement integration through Account Aggregators, data-driven underwriting models, and GST integration. These enhancements have significantly improved portfolio quality while also strengthening resilience to potential credit shocks
  3. PSBs have dedicated sales team for Current Account Savings Account acquisition through digital assisted journeys for customer convenience and outreach
  4. 11 PSBs have set up Resiliency Operations Centres to strengthen IT governance and resilience of IT infrastructure
  5. Seven PSBs have deployed at least one Gen-AI use case to enhance operational efficiency and customer service
  6. Seven PSBs have established centralised Business Intelligence units to proactively assess market potential and identify leads for outbound field sales and branches
  7. Five PSBs have governance framework with representation of Divyangjans in Customer Service Cell and Grievance Redressal Cell along with setting up of Digital Accessibility Cell and appointment of Nodal officers
  8. PSBs have strengthened accessibility for Divyangjans and Senior Citizens customers through initiatives including rollout of Braille-enabled debit and credit cards, priority call routing to trained agents, regional language interfaces, and dedicated service cells reflecting a stronger emphasis on empathy and inclusivity across PSBs
  9. Effective collections mechanism through customer specific and product wise collection strategies across various digital channels. 11 PSBs have a collection mobile application for better monitoring and follow-up features to reduce collection operational cost
  10. 10 PSBs have AI-driven voice bots and WhatsApp chatbots for recovery actions
  11. PSBs have Digital tool/portal/platform for monitoring SARFAESI/DRT/NCLT cases

EASE has served as a catalyst in the transformation journey of PSBs through its structured approach to reforms. As per RBI’s provisional data, as on 31.12.2025, below are key highlights that illustrate the significant impact witnessed by PSBs throughout this remarkable journey.

  1. During FY2024-25, all PSBs were profit making with highest ever aggregate net profit of ₹1.78 lakh crore, as against the loss of ₹85,371 crore reported by PSBs in FY2017-18. Further, the net profit of PSBs during the first nine months of FY2025-26 was ₹1.46 lakh crore.
  2. Gross NPA ratio of PSBs have declined to a fresh low of 2.10% (₹2.54 lakh crore) in Dec-25 from 4.97% (₹2.79 lakh crore) in Mar-15, and from a peak of 14.58% (₹8.96 lakh crore) in Mar-18.
  3. Capital adequacy has improved significantly with Capital to Risk- weighted Assets Ratio (CRAR) of PSBs improving by 401 bps to reach 15.46% in Dec-25 from 11.45% in Mar-15.
  4. During FY2024-25, no PSB was under RBI’s Prompt Corrective Action (PCA) as against FY2017-18 where 11 PSBs out of 21 were under PCA.
  5. In FY2024-25, all PSBs have digital journeys across Retail, Agriculture and MSME sectors, while no such journeys were offered in FY2017-18.
  6. Now all PSBs have a centralized integrated grievance redressal portal, while manual grievance redressal system existed in FY2017-18.
  7. In FY2024-25, PSBs have achieved an Annualised Return on Total Assets of 1.10%, which was -0.87% in FY2017-18.

In FY2025-26, EASE 8.0 Common Reforms have been launched as EASERise with four themes on Risk and Resilience, Innovation, Socio-economic Impact and Excellence. This comprehensive reform agenda is focused on risk & resilience, Gen-Artificial Intelligence (AI) & Agentic AI adoption, inclusive banking, sustainability, customer experience, and operational excellence with the objective to strengthen PSBs as agile, future-ready and customer-centric institutions. The details of major initiatives introduced or revised in EASE 8.0 are as under:

(I) Governance:

  1. Inclusive Governance Framework to ensure Divyangjans representation in Customer Service Committees, Grievance Redressal Cell, and setting up a dedicated Accessibility Cell having Accessibility employees
  2. Dedicated outbound sales team governance structures
  3. Enhanced Learning and Development governance
  4. Environmental, Social and Governance Scorecard integration and dedicated Customer Retention Squad governance framework
  5. Artificial Intelligence roadmaps and leveraging its use cases for operational efficiency

(II) Customer Service:

  1. Specifically designed asset and liability products for Gig/platform workers, Youth, Women and Startups
  2. Multilingual Customer service in Regional Languages (Digital Channels and Service forms)
  3. Enhanced Mobile-App capabilities for Retail and Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) customers
  4. Asset and Liability digital assisted journey for customer onboarding 
  5. Virtual Relationship Managers for identified customers
  6. End-to-end digital journeys for trade finance solutions 
  7. Self-service touch points for Divyangjans

(III) Digital Lending:

  1. Digital journeys for Retail, MSME and Agri-loan products.
  2. Digital assisted framework for customer convenience
  3. Integrating advanced capabilities in loan management system for MSME underwriting
  4. Integration with Account Aggregator ecosystem
  5. Automatic credit appraisal generation capabilities and use of analytics/AI in underwriting

(IV) Risk Management:

  1. Focus on Expected Credit Loss models
  2. Digital portal/platforms for monitoring of Operational Risks taxonomy and Early Warning Signals
  3. Fraud prevention and Anti-Money Laundering checks in the existing as well as new bank customers’ onboarding journey
  4. Enhanced models for mule account identification and enhanced customer due diligence
  5. Technology Modernisation and resilience of IT Applications by setting up Resiliency Operation Centre and efficient third-party risk management
  6. Digital forensic readiness for cyber incidents
  7. App/platform/portal-based recovery and collection monitoring mechanisms

The Enhanced Access and Service Excellence (EASE) Reform Agenda is finalised on yearly basis at the start of each financial year (FY), under the guidance of EASE Steering Committee of member PSBs under the aegis of Indian Banks’ Association. The Reforms Agenda is objectively assessed and reviewed quarterly by the EASE Steering Committee.

Under EASE Reforms, normally timelines are defined within the FY, and the metrics are scheduled for operationalisation from April onwards during the FY, to ensure structured implementation.

A structured quarterly evaluation is overseen by EASE Steering Committee comprising stakeholders from all PSBs, to assess the progress and improvements based on defined metrics, quarterly data submissions/review, and relative performance among PSBs.

The evaluation framework systematically captures performance outcomes by measuring improvements across defined reform indicators. Progress is assessed through periodic data submissions, trend analysis, and relative performance among PSBs to ensure objectivity and comparability.

This information was given by the Minister of State in the Ministry of Finance Shri Pankaj Chaudhary in Rajya Sabha today.

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