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March 26, 2026
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Relief for additional salary and lump-sum receipts is streamlined through Form 39's electronic filing and self-computation system.
Form 39 is the prescribed electronic form for claiming relief under section 157(1) of the Income Tax Act, 2025 in cases involving additional salary or family pension received in arrears or in advance, gratuity, retrenchment compensation, commutation of pension, and similar lump-sum receipts. The form is filed on the e-filing portal, supports self-computation of admissible relief under Rule 73, and may be used for TDS purposes. The revised form includes basic details, receipt-specific computation columns, auto-populated summary fields, supporting document requirements, and electronic verification.
March 26, 2026
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Relief under section 157(1) through Form 39 requires electronic filing, PAN, and complete particulars for qualifying lump-sum receipts.
Relief under section 157(1) is claimed through Form 39 by an employee receiving additional salary, family pension, gratuity, retrenchment compensation, commutation of pension, or similar lump-sum receipts that may increase the tax burden in the year of receipt. The form may also be furnished to the tax-deductor for TDS purposes. It must be filed electronically, cannot be filed offline, requires a valid PAN, contains separate sections for different receipts, and cannot be edited after verification and acknowledgment.
March 26, 2026
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Foreign inward remittance certificate supports royalty deduction claims for resident authors and patentees through bank-certified Form 38 filing.
Form 38 is the prescribed certificate for foreign inward remittance and is filed with the return of income to support a royalty deduction claim under the Income-tax Act, 2025. It applies to an individual resident in India who is an author or patentee deriving specified royalty income. The form is certified by the bank manager of the receiving bank, requires supporting remittance and verification documents, and is submitted through details of payer, payee, payment, and electronic verification.
March 26, 2026
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Foreign royalty deduction requires Form 38, bank certification, and proof that remittance reached India within the prescribed period.
Form 38 is the prescribed statement to be filed with the return of income for claiming deduction in respect of foreign inward remittance from royalty income. It applies to an individual resident in India who is an author or patentee, must be certified by the receiving bank manager, and serves to evidence that the foreign royalty was brought into India within the prescribed period. The deduction is subject to the stated monetary ceiling for the financial year.
March 26, 2026
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Royalty income deduction for patentees hinges on Form 37, electronic filing, patent certification, and foreign remittance conditions.
Form 37 is the prescribed certificate for claiming deduction in respect of royalty income received by a resident individual patentee under the Income Tax Act, 2025. The form requires completion of patentee details, patent particulars, royalty agreement information, royalty received, foreign remittance data, and deduction claimed. Part A is verified by the patentee and Part B is certified by the Controller of Patents. It is filed electronically with supporting documents such as the royalty agreement, bank statement, foreign inward remittance certificate, and RBI approval where applicable.
March 26, 2026
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Patent royalty deduction compliance requires valid Form 37, electronic filing, mandatory PAN, and certification by the Controller of Patents.
Form 37 is the prescribed certificate for a resident individual patentee claiming deduction for royalty income under section 152(5) of the Income-tax Act, 2025. The patentee must self-declare the royalty details in Part B, while the Controller of Patents must certify the patent registration and related particulars in Part C. The form must be filed electronically on the e-filing portal within the prescribed due date, cannot be filed offline, and once validly submitted it cannot be edited. PAN of the patentee is mandatory, no attachment is required, and royalty amounts received in foreign currency must be stated in Indian rupees.
March 26, 2026
Show AI Summary
Royalty income deduction claims require Form 36, with author declaration, publisher certification, and foreign remittance details.
Form 36 is the prescribed electronic certificate for claiming deduction under section 151(5) of the Income-tax Act, 2025 in respect of royalty income or similar consideration received by an author for publication of a book. It requires disclosure of the author, the book, the payer, royalty receipts, foreign remittance details, and the deduction claimed, along with taxpayer declaration and publisher certification. Supporting documents include the author-publisher agreement, royalty statements, bank records, and ISBN or publication proof.
March 26, 2026
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Royalty income deduction certificate requires timely electronic filing by authors, with mandatory PAN, self-declaration, and publisher certification.
Form 36 is the prescribed certificate for claiming deduction under section 151(5) of the Income-tax Act, 2025 by authors of scientific, literary or artistic books who receive royalty income, copyright fees, lump-sum consideration, or similar income. The form must be filed electronically by the author, with self-declaration and publisher certification, on or before the applicable due date, and valid filing is a mandatory condition for an admissible deduction claim. The form cannot be edited after submission, offline filing is not permitted, and the author's PAN and deduction amount claimed are mandatory fields.
March 26, 2026
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Deduction claims for offshore banking and IFSC units require accountant-certified Form 35 with income, expense and permission details.
Form 35 is the accountant's report to be furnished with the return of income for assessees claiming deduction on income from Offshore Banking Units in Special Economic Zones or units of an International Financial Services Centre. It applies to scheduled or foreign banks having such a unit, and requires verification by a chartered accountant. The form covers basic assessee details, unit particulars, permission documents, prior deduction claims, and income, expense and deduction figures, with e-verification through the chartered accountant's digital signature certificate.
March 26, 2026
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Deduction claims for offshore banking units require Form 35, accountant verification, and filing with the return of income.
Form 35 is the accountant's report to be filed with the return of income by assessees claiming deduction on income from Offshore Banking Units in Special Economic Zones or units of an International Financial Services Centre. It must be verified by a chartered accountant and filed by the return due date. The form captures unit particulars, permissions, income, expenses, net income and previous claims, and requires e-verification with the chartered accountant's digital signature certificate.
March 26, 2026
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Additional employee cost deduction guidance for audited assessees filing Form 34 with Chartered Accountant verification.
Form 34 is the prescribed report to be filed with the return of income by audited assessees claiming deduction for additional employee cost under section 146 of the Income-tax Act, 2025. It is verified by a Chartered Accountant and filed under Rule 68. The deduction is stated to be 30% of the additional employee cost for three tax years, and the form applies to assessees earning business or professional income who are liable to audit under section 44AB and satisfy the payment conditions for employee emoluments through permitted banking or electronic modes.
March 26, 2026
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Marine insurance loss and abandonment claims explained through partial loss, total loss and claim documentation requirements.
Marine insurance distinguishes partial loss from total loss, including particular average loss, general average loss, actual total loss and constructive total loss. Abandonment allows the insured to relinquish rights in damaged or lost cargo or vessel to the insurer and claim the insured value when recovery or repair is not commercially viable. The claim process depends on prompt notice, formal relinquishment, supporting documents, surveyor assessment and verification under the policy terms.
March 26, 2026
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Additional employee cost deduction through Form 34 depends on audit, eligibility conditions, and prescribed payment modes.
Deduction for additional employee cost is claimed through Form 34, which audited assessees must file with the return of income and have verified by a Chartered Accountant. The form applies to business or professional assessees liable to audit and supports a deduction of 30% of additional employee cost for three consecutive tax years. Additional employees are subject to eligibility conditions, and emoluments exclude employer pension or provident fund contributions and terminal lump-sum payments.
March 26, 2026
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SEZ deduction claim documentation requires Form 33, reserve account details and plant acquisition particulars for verification.
Form 33 is the prescribed statement for an assessee claiming deduction in respect of profits and gains derived by newly established units in SEZ under section 144 of the Income-tax Act, 2025. It is to be furnished along with the return of income and verified by the proprietor, partner or director. The form captures particulars of the assessee, the unit, the SEZ Reinvestment Allowance Reserve Account, withdrawals from the reserve, and details of plant or machinery purchased from withdrawn amounts, together with verification and e-verification requirements.
March 26, 2026
Show AI Summary
SEZ reinvestment reserve reporting: Form 33 supports deduction claims for new plant and machinery purchases under section 144.
Form 33 is the prescribed statement for assessees claiming deduction under section 144 in respect of profits and gains derived by newly established units in SEZs. It is filed where amounts are withdrawn from the SEZ Reinvestment Reserve Account for purchase of new plant or machinery, and it must be verified by the proprietor, partner, or director. The form is to be filed along with the return of income, and the deduction is based on the particulars reported in the form.
March 26, 2026
Show AI Summary
Audit report form requirements govern deduction claims under specified income-tax provisions, with section-wise disclosures and chartered accountant verification.
Form 32 is the prescribed audit-report form for assessees claiming deductions under the specified provisions of the Income-tax Act, 2025, and it must be verified by a Chartered Accountant. The form is filed by the due date applicable to the audit report and requires basic particulars, section-specific disclosure fields, supporting documents such as agreements, SEZ notifications, start-up certification, turnover and profit details, and capital expenditure details where relevant. Filing is completed by entering the applicable deduction particulars and electronic verification through the Chartered Accountant's DSC.
March 26, 2026
Show AI Summary
Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code misuse allegations surface over creditor voting control and resolution process conduct in a fraud FIR.
Fraud allegations arose from an FIR filed on the basis of an Enforcement Directorate complaint linked to a money laundering probe. The complaint stated that Experion entities were examined in relation to the insolvency proceedings of Dignity Buildcon Private Limited and were said to have misused the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code during the Corporate Insolvency Resolution Process. It further alleged acquisition of debt and debentures to increase voting rights in the Committee of Creditors and pressure on the authorised representative of Alchemist Asset Reconstruction Company to vote for a resolution plan.
March 26, 2026
Show AI Summary
Audit report requirements govern deductions for specified business, start-ups, SEZ units, and North-Eastern eligible businesses.
Form 32 is the audit report required for deductions under the specified provisions of the Income-tax Act, 2025, and must be verified by a Chartered Accountant. It applies to claims for specified business capital expenditure, industrial and infrastructure undertakings, SEZ development, eligible start-ups, housing projects, North-Eastern business units, and newly established SEZ units, and must be filed by the audit-report due date. The document also states the conditions for specified business capital expenditure, start-up eligibility and duration, and the qualifying North-Eastern businesses.
March 26, 2026
Show AI Summary
Rent deduction declaration requires Form 31, with landlord details, rent evidence, and e-verification alongside the return.
Form 31 is the declaration to be furnished by an assessee claiming deduction under section 134 of the Income-tax Act, 2025 in respect of rent paid for residential accommodation. It applies to a resident individual who pays rent for furnished or unfurnished accommodation, does not receive house rent allowance, and does not own residential property at the place of employment or residence. The form is to be filed along with the return of income and requires rent details, landlord particulars, supporting documents, and e-verification through DSC or Aadhaar.
March 26, 2026
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Rent deduction declaration under section 134 requires Form 31 for eligible resident individuals without house rent allowance.
Form 31 is the declaration required for claiming deduction under section 134 for rent paid for residential accommodation. It applies to a resident individual who does not receive house rent allowance and does not own residential property at the place of employment or residence. The form must be filed along with the return of income, and the deduction is available on the basis of details furnished in the form, subject to the annual ceiling of Rs. 60,000.

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PMLA / Black Money

National Herald case: Delhi HC to hear on April 20 ED plea against Gandhis

March 9, 2026

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New Delhi, Mar 9 (PTI) The Delhi High Court on Monday listed for hearing on April 20 a plea by the ED challenging the trial court's order that refused to take cognisance of its chargesheet against Congress leaders Sonia Gandhi, Rahul Gandhi and others in the National Herald-linked money laundering case.

Justice Swarana Kanta Sharma said the court would not be able to hear the matter today.

Additional Solicitor General S V Raju, appearing for the Enforcement Directorate, requested the court to give a short date in the matter.

The court subsequently adjourned the matter for hearing on April 20.

On December 22, the high court had issued notice to the Gandhis and others on the main petition as well as on the ED's application seeking a stay on the December 16, 2025 trial court order, which held that cognisance of the agency's complaint in the case was "impermissible in law" as it was not founded on an FIR.

Besides Gandhis, the high court had also issued notices to Suman Dubey, Sam Pitroda, Young Indian, Dotex Merchandise Pvt Ltd and Sunil Bhandari on the ED's plea.

The ED has accused Sonia Gandhi and Rahul Gandhi, as well as late Congress leaders Motilal Vora and Oscar Fernandes, along with Suman Dubey, Sam Pitroda, and a private company, Young Indian, of conspiracy and money laundering.

It has been alleged that they acquired properties worth approximately Rs 2,000 crore belonging to Associated Journals Limited (AJL), which publishes the National Herald newspaper.

The ED further alleged that the Gandhis held the majority 76 per cent shares in Young Indian, which "fraudulently" usurped the assets of AJL in exchange for a Rs 90 crore loan.

On February 19, Solicitor General Tushar Mehta appeared for the ED and argued that the case concerned a "neat question of law" and the reasons given by the trial court to refuse taking cognizance were "patently perverse".

He said the case has to be argued on law and not facts, and the trial court's findings were "coming in the way" of other cases.

In its order, the trial court had said that an investigation and the consequent prosecution complaint (equivalent to a chargesheet) pertaining to the offence of money laundering were "not maintainable" in the absence of an FIR for the offence mentioned in the schedule to the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA).

It said the agency's probe stemmed from a private complaint and not an FIR and despite receiving the complaint made by BJP leader Subramanian Swamy and the consequent summoning order in 2014, the Central Bureau of Investigation refrained from registering an FIR in relation to the alleged scheduled offence.

The ED, in its plea in the high court, has claimed that the trial court order has in effect given a hall pass to a category of money launderers only on the ground that the scheduled offence is reported by a private individual by way of a complaint to a magistrate.

It claimed there are such grave allegations levelled against Gandhis and others which cannot be brushed aside lightly by relying upon judicial precedents cited to conclude that the ingredients of the criminal offences alleged are lacking.

"The sole ground given for declining cognisance is that a prosecution complaint filed by an authorised officer under the PMLA cannot be based on a scheduled offence emanating from a private complaint filed by a private individual and such scheduled offence must be registered only by a law enforcement agency, that is, either by way of an FIR by the police or a complaint by a person authorised to investigate the scheduled offence," the plea said.

The ED said the special judge has failed to appreciate that cognisance taken by a competent court on a private complaint stands on a much higher footing than a mere FIR registered by police wherein there is a possibility that cognisance may be declined after filing of a chargesheet by police. PTI ADS KVK KVK

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Acts Income Tax