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March 26, 2026
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Tax Residency Certificate issued on request supports residence proof for DTAA benefits and section 159 purposes.
Form 43 is the Tax Residency Certificate issued by the Assessing Officer to certify residence in India for the purposes of section 159 and Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement benefits. It is not filed by the taxpayer; it is issued on request when Form 42 is submitted with the required documents. The certificate is generated through the ITBA and made available on the e-filing portal, and no specific statutory limit is stated on the number of certificates that may be issued in a year for distinct valid periods.
March 26, 2026
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Tax residency certificate application streamlined through Form 42, with electronic filing, document upload, and issuance of Form 43.
Form 42 is the application for a tax residency certificate in India for the purposes of section 159 of the Income-tax Act, 2025 and treaty benefits under a Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement. It is filed electronically by a resident claiming Indian tax residency, with supporting identity, incorporation, and other documents, and may be verified through electronic verification code, Aadhaar OTP, net banking, bank or demat account mechanisms, or digital signature. Processing of the form results in issue of Form 43.
March 26, 2026
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Tax Residency Certificate application Form 42 governs online filing, supporting documents, and DTAA benefit access.
Form 42 is the prescribed application for obtaining a Tax Residency Certificate in India for the purposes of claiming benefits under Double Taxation Avoidance Agreements. It is filed online through the e-filing portal, requires a valid PAN, and is not mandatory in every case. The form cannot be edited after submission, though withdrawal may be enabled, and supporting documents such as passport, incorporation records, and proof of stay in India may be required.
March 26, 2026
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Petroleum and LPG supply security remains intact as the government rejects shortage claims and cites ample stock cover.
India's petroleum and LPG supply position is described as secure, with about 60 days of fuel stock cover and no rationing or shortage at retail outlets. The government says crude supplies for the next 60 days have been tied up from multiple international sources, refinery utilisation is above full capacity, and alternative imports have offset disruption linked to tensions around the Strait of Hormuz. It also states that 800,000 tonnes of LPG cargoes have been secured, about one month of LPG supply is arranged, and measures have been taken to prevent hoarding and keep deliveries steady.
March 26, 2026
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DTAA self-declaration for non-residents enables treaty tax benefits through electronic filing and residency verification.
Form 41 is a self-declaration for non-resident taxpayers seeking Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement benefits on income from India. It is filed once in a tax year, requires a valid Tax Residency Certificate and Tax Identification Number, and is submitted electronically through the income-tax e-filing portal. Treaty benefits depend on valid filing, supported by the required documents and electronic verification.
March 26, 2026
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DTAA compliance through Form 41 governs non-resident tax relief, online filing, and supporting residency documentation requirements.
Form 41 is a self-declaration under section 159(8) of the Income-tax Act, 2025 for non-resident taxpayers seeking DTAA benefits with India. It is mandatory, filed annually through the Income Tax e-filing portal, and requires a valid Tax Residency Certificate and tax identification number. The form cannot be edited after submission, no proof of tax payment is required, and the DTAA benefit is unavailable without a valid electronically filed form and supporting documents.
March 26, 2026
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Tax deferral for foreign retirement accounts through Form 40 applies to resident Indians with irrevocable relief option.
Form 40 is the prescribed electronic form for a resident Indian to exercise the option under Section 159 of the Income Tax Act, 2025, read with Rule 74, to claim tax relief in respect of income accrued in a foreign retirement account maintained in a notified country. The option is intended to prevent double taxation by deferring taxation in India until withdrawal or redemption of the income in the foreign country. The option may be exercised only once, is irrevocable, and applies to all future years and all specified accounts.
March 26, 2026
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Startup ecosystem support gains momentum through industry mentorship, innovation challenges, and market access for emerging technology startups.
Startup ecosystem support is being advanced through a Memorandum of Understanding between DPIIT and a digital entertainment company to promote product startups in digital entertainment, online gaming, esports, interactive media, and AI-driven technologies. The collaboration is intended to provide structured industry engagement, mentorship, knowledge exchange, curated opportunities, Proof-of-Concept development, market access, and integration into industry ecosystems wherever feasible. It also contemplates innovation challenges, hackathons, workshops, masterclasses, pilot collaborations, and outreach through Startup India programmes.
March 26, 2026
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Corporate law and management programme launches as a two-year residential LL.M. with integrated regulatory and compliance training.
IICA and NLUJAA, Assam have jointly launched a two-year, full-time residential LL.M. programme in Corporate Law and Management. The course is designed to integrate legal education with managerial and compliance-oriented perspectives, and to strengthen professional competencies in corporate law, governance and regulatory frameworks through academic engagement linked to the Ministry of Corporate Affairs. The programme carries 54 credits across four semesters, with the first year at NLUJAA and the second year at the IICA Campus, IMT Manesar.
March 26, 2026
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Tax relief for foreign retirement accounts requires valid Form 40 filing, online verification, and timely self-declaration.
Form 40 is the prescribed electronic form for a resident Indian to exercise the option for relief under section 158 of the Income-tax Act, 2025 in respect of income from a retirement benefit account maintained in a notified country. Valid filing within the prescribed due date is mandatory for an admissible claim, the option once exercised applies for the tax year and subsequent years, and the form cannot be edited after submission. The filing requires self-declaration, PAN, online verification, and supporting documents showing the foreign tax treatment and income computations.
March 26, 2026
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Relief for additional salary and lump-sum receipts is streamlined through Form 39's electronic filing and self-computation system.
Form 39 is the prescribed electronic form for claiming relief under section 157(1) of the Income Tax Act, 2025 in cases involving additional salary or family pension received in arrears or in advance, gratuity, retrenchment compensation, commutation of pension, and similar lump-sum receipts. The form is filed on the e-filing portal, supports self-computation of admissible relief under Rule 73, and may be used for TDS purposes. The revised form includes basic details, receipt-specific computation columns, auto-populated summary fields, supporting document requirements, and electronic verification.
March 26, 2026
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Relief under section 157(1) through Form 39 requires electronic filing, PAN, and complete particulars for qualifying lump-sum receipts.
Relief under section 157(1) is claimed through Form 39 by an employee receiving additional salary, family pension, gratuity, retrenchment compensation, commutation of pension, or similar lump-sum receipts that may increase the tax burden in the year of receipt. The form may also be furnished to the tax-deductor for TDS purposes. It must be filed electronically, cannot be filed offline, requires a valid PAN, contains separate sections for different receipts, and cannot be edited after verification and acknowledgment.
March 26, 2026
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Foreign inward remittance certificate supports royalty deduction claims for resident authors and patentees through bank-certified Form 38 filing.
Form 38 is the prescribed certificate for foreign inward remittance and is filed with the return of income to support a royalty deduction claim under the Income-tax Act, 2025. It applies to an individual resident in India who is an author or patentee deriving specified royalty income. The form is certified by the bank manager of the receiving bank, requires supporting remittance and verification documents, and is submitted through details of payer, payee, payment, and electronic verification.
March 26, 2026
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Foreign royalty deduction requires Form 38, bank certification, and proof that remittance reached India within the prescribed period.
Form 38 is the prescribed statement to be filed with the return of income for claiming deduction in respect of foreign inward remittance from royalty income. It applies to an individual resident in India who is an author or patentee, must be certified by the receiving bank manager, and serves to evidence that the foreign royalty was brought into India within the prescribed period. The deduction is subject to the stated monetary ceiling for the financial year.
March 26, 2026
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Royalty income deduction for patentees hinges on Form 37, electronic filing, patent certification, and foreign remittance conditions.
Form 37 is the prescribed certificate for claiming deduction in respect of royalty income received by a resident individual patentee under the Income Tax Act, 2025. The form requires completion of patentee details, patent particulars, royalty agreement information, royalty received, foreign remittance data, and deduction claimed. Part A is verified by the patentee and Part B is certified by the Controller of Patents. It is filed electronically with supporting documents such as the royalty agreement, bank statement, foreign inward remittance certificate, and RBI approval where applicable.
March 26, 2026
Show AI Summary
Patent royalty deduction compliance requires valid Form 37, electronic filing, mandatory PAN, and certification by the Controller of Patents.
Form 37 is the prescribed certificate for a resident individual patentee claiming deduction for royalty income under section 152(5) of the Income-tax Act, 2025. The patentee must self-declare the royalty details in Part B, while the Controller of Patents must certify the patent registration and related particulars in Part C. The form must be filed electronically on the e-filing portal within the prescribed due date, cannot be filed offline, and once validly submitted it cannot be edited. PAN of the patentee is mandatory, no attachment is required, and royalty amounts received in foreign currency must be stated in Indian rupees.
March 26, 2026
Show AI Summary
Royalty income deduction claims require Form 36, with author declaration, publisher certification, and foreign remittance details.
Form 36 is the prescribed electronic certificate for claiming deduction under section 151(5) of the Income-tax Act, 2025 in respect of royalty income or similar consideration received by an author for publication of a book. It requires disclosure of the author, the book, the payer, royalty receipts, foreign remittance details, and the deduction claimed, along with taxpayer declaration and publisher certification. Supporting documents include the author-publisher agreement, royalty statements, bank records, and ISBN or publication proof.
March 26, 2026
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Royalty income deduction certificate requires timely electronic filing by authors, with mandatory PAN, self-declaration, and publisher certification.
Form 36 is the prescribed certificate for claiming deduction under section 151(5) of the Income-tax Act, 2025 by authors of scientific, literary or artistic books who receive royalty income, copyright fees, lump-sum consideration, or similar income. The form must be filed electronically by the author, with self-declaration and publisher certification, on or before the applicable due date, and valid filing is a mandatory condition for an admissible deduction claim. The form cannot be edited after submission, offline filing is not permitted, and the author's PAN and deduction amount claimed are mandatory fields.
March 26, 2026
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Deduction claims for offshore banking and IFSC units require accountant-certified Form 35 with income, expense and permission details.
Form 35 is the accountant's report to be furnished with the return of income for assessees claiming deduction on income from Offshore Banking Units in Special Economic Zones or units of an International Financial Services Centre. It applies to scheduled or foreign banks having such a unit, and requires verification by a chartered accountant. The form covers basic assessee details, unit particulars, permission documents, prior deduction claims, and income, expense and deduction figures, with e-verification through the chartered accountant's digital signature certificate.
March 26, 2026
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Deduction claims for offshore banking units require Form 35, accountant verification, and filing with the return of income.
Form 35 is the accountant's report to be filed with the return of income by assessees claiming deduction on income from Offshore Banking Units in Special Economic Zones or units of an International Financial Services Centre. It must be verified by a chartered accountant and filed by the return due date. The form captures unit particulars, permissions, income, expenses, net income and previous claims, and requires e-verification with the chartered accountant's digital signature certificate.

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PMLA / Black Money

ED files prosecution sanction against P Chidambaram to expedite trial in 2 PMLA cases

February 26, 2026

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New Delhi, Feb 26 (PTI) The Enforcement Directorate on Thursday said it wants an expeditious trial against Congress leader P Chidambaram in two money laundering cases, Aircel-Maxis deal and INX Media, ”as it has submitted the required sanction for prosecution against the former Union finance minister before a designated court.

The federal probe agency had filed a chargesheet in the Aircel-Maxis case in 2018 and in the INX Media case in 2020 at the special Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA) court in Delhi (Rouse Avenue) and the court took their separate cognisance in 2021.

However, in November 2024, the Supreme Court directed (in the ED vs Bibhu Prasad Acharya case) that sanction for prosecution is mandatory in a PMLA chargesheet, similar to such an approval furnished while filing a chargesheet under the Criminal Procedure Code (CrPC).

Subsequent to this judgement, many accused charged under PMLA challenged the proceedings in multiple legal forums, leading to a delay in the trial including in these cases against P Chidambaram.

"To counter such delay and to comply with the judgement of the Hon'ble Supreme Court, ED has swiftly initiated remedial actions by seeking prosecution sanctions in all such prosecution complaints involving public servants," the ED said in a statement.

The agency said it sought the sanction for prosecution of Chidambaram from the competent authority which was obtained on February 10 along with a required order under section 197 of CrPC (Section 218 of Bharatiya Nagrik Suraksha Sanhita) for prosecuting the former Union minister in the two money laundering cases.

"The prosecution sanction order has been placed before the Hon'ble Special Court, Rouse Avenue by ED to expedite the trial in the case," the agency said.

P Chidambaram and his son Karti Chidambaram have always denied wrongdoing in these cases alleging it was a political witch hunt against them by the BJP-led central government.

P Chidambaram was named as accused number 6 in the Aircel-Maxis case while he was arraigned as accused no. 1 in the INX Media deal case chargesheet.

The ED filed a PMLA case in the Aircel-Maxis deal in 2012 taking cognisance of a CBI FIR of October 2011. It has filed two chargesheets in the case.

It is alleged by the ED that the former Union minister granted FIPB approval to Aircel-Maxis in lieu of quid pro quo as foreign investor (Maxis) applied for its foreign direct investment (FDI) approval to the tune of USD 800 million (Rs 3,565.91 crore). The competent authority for this approval was the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA).

"However, as part of a larger conspiracy, approval was fraudulently and dishonestly granted by the then finance minister P Chidambaram on 20.03.2006 who was competent to consider and approve FDI proposals involving total investment of Rs 600 crore or less," the ED said.

Probe found, as per the ED, that "illegal" gratification of Rs 1.16 crore was received by his son and Congress MP Karti Chidambaram in his companies named Advantage Strategic Consulting Pvt Ltd (ASCPL) and Chess Management Services.

The agency claimed there were financial transactions between the father and the son and funds of ASCPL were spent "for and on behalf of" P Chidambaram.

The INX Media money laundering case of 2017 was also filed on the basis of a CBI FIR lodged in that year and the ED filed two chargesheets in this case and also named Karti as an accused.

The probe pertains to grant of Foreign Investment Promotion Board (FIPB) approval to INX Media during the tenure of P Chidambaram as the finance minister.

The ED alleged that in consideration for granting and subsequently regularizing the FIPB approval, "illegal" gratification was received through entities "beneficially" owned/controlled by Karti Chidambaram.

These amounts were routed through shell companies including ASCPL and associated entities which were under direct or indirect control of and beneficially owned by Karti Chidambaram, it said.

"These funds were layered and integrated through the investment in shares of Vasan Health Care and AGS Health Care and subsequently multiplied through sale of shares and overseas investments," it claimed.

Karti Chidambaram and his close associates acted on behalf of P Chidambaram, interacted with people of INX Media regarding FIPB approval matters and "collected" proceeds of crime, the agency alleged.

The funds were also utilised for deposits in bank accounts and for investment in movable and immovable properties in India and abroad in the names of shell entities and associates, it said. PTI NES KVK KVK

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Acts Income Tax