1. Your primary contention is correct. A concise response (under 2,500 characters) could be:
In my view, the demand is legally unsustainable if it is based solely on the credit of restored transitional ITC to the Statement of Profit and Loss. GST is attracted only on a "supply" as defined under section 7 of the CGST Act. Restoration of eligible TRAN-1 credit, accepted by the department, does not involve any supply of goods or services, consideration, or any deemed supply under Schedule I.
The ITC was originally reversed in the books in 2018 only because of a technical glitch that prevented availment through TRAN-1. Once the Government reopened the TRAN-1 facility and the credit was successfully availed in 2022, supported by the department's acceptance, the accounting entry merely reinstated an asset that had earlier been written off. The fact that the reversal was routed through the Statement of Profit and Loss does not alter the nature of the transaction.
Accounting treatment cannot determine GST liability. There is no charging provision under the CGST Act that levies GST merely because an amount is credited to the profit and loss account. The department must first establish a taxable supply before invoking the charging section.
However, one aspect that should be examined is the exact allegation in the show cause notice. If the notice is based only on the P&L credit, the demand appears weak. If it alleges wrongful availment of ITC, excess utilization, or invokes sections 73/74 on any other ground, those allegations would need to be addressed separately.
Also, distinguish the GST issue from the income-tax treatment. Crediting the amount to the Statement of Profit and Loss may have income-tax implications depending on the earlier deduction claimed, but that does not create a GST liability.
Unless the department can point to a specific charging provision under the CGST Act, mere restoration of a previously reversed ITC through an accounting entry should not be subjected to GST.
Dear Sir,
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