Customs baggage declaration required disclosure of dutiable and restricted imports, Red Channel reporting, and compliance with duty-free allowances.
Customs baggage declaration required arriving passengers to disclose travel details, dutiable goods and specified imported items, including prohibited articles, excess gold, currency, plant or animal products, satellite phones, flat-panel televisions and drones. Passengers answering affirmatively were required to report through the Red Channel. The form described prohibited imports, duty-free baggage allowances based on passenger category and travel origin, and duty on goods exceeding the applicable allowance. Customs officers could question passengers and examine their personal property. The form was subsequently superseded.

Declaration under Section 94 enables settlement of contested service tax arrears through the Dispute Resolution Scheme, 2008.
Form 1 prescribes the declaration under section 94 of the Finance Act, 2008 for the Dispute Resolution Scheme, 2008, requiring declarant details, STC and premises codes, and an itemised table of contested matters including show cause/demand notices, orders in original or on appeal, tax arrears (service tax, education cesses, interest, penalty), the amount proposed for settlement, and particulars of any writs or appeals. The declarant must verify correctness and non disqualification under section 93 and submit the form to the Central Excise Officer designated under section 92(b), with specified instructions on documentary evidence and completion.

Direct Tax Dispute Resolution Scheme form requires declarant details, computing amounts payable and proof of withdrawal or pendency of proceedings.
The declaration form under the Direct Tax Dispute Resolution Scheme requires declarant identity, PAN and assessment details, itemised particulars of appeals or penalty orders as of 29-2-2016, and computation of amounts payable under section 202 including outstanding tax, interest and an added 25% of minimum penalty where applicable; it also records pendency or withdrawal of judicial or alternative dispute resolution proceedings and includes a verification clause certifying correctness and non-disqualification.

Corporate insolvency resolution application: regulator must submit Form One with prescribed particulars, proposed administrator, and annexures.
An appropriate regulator must submit Form One under Rule 5 to initiate a corporate insolvency resolution process, providing the regulator's and authorised representatives' particulars, the financial service provider's identification, incorporation and capital details, registered office, the proposed Administrator's name and contact, and particulars of default. The application must include annexures: all referenced documents, the proposed Administrator's written consent to act as interim resolution professional, and proof of payment of the application fee, together with required authorisations for submission and service.

Income Declaration Scheme requires declared undisclosed income, tax at 30% plus surcharge and penalty, and asset verification.
Form 1 prescribes the declaration procedure under Section 183 for the Income Declaration Scheme, 2016, requiring declarant particulars, assessment years, and a detailed annexure statement of undisclosed income by asset category with required valuation reports. It sets computation of tax and charges (tax at 30%, surcharge 25% of tax, penalty 25% of tax), records of payments, and balance payable. The verification requires sworn accuracy, exclusions for certain offences, disclosure of searches/notices, and a benami transfer condition to preserve immunity.

Waiver of rights under the Direct Tax Dispute Resolution Scheme bars pursuit of domestic or international tax remedies.
The undertaking under the Direct Tax Dispute Resolution Scheme, 2016 is a voluntary and irrevocable declaration whereby the taxpayer or an authorised representative waives all rights in respect of specified tax, direct or indirect, to seek or pursue any remedy or claim under domestic law, equity, statute or international agreements. The form requires signature, place, designation, address and PAN and must be furnished with the declaration in Form 1 to the Designated Authority.

Full and final settlement certificate confirms payment and grants immunity from penalty under the statutory scheme, subject to conditions.
Certificate under the Dispute Resolution Scheme, 2008 certifies receipt of payment by a declarant as full and final settlement of determined tax arrears and grants penalty immunity, subject to the Scheme's provisions. The certificate requires withdrawal and proof of withdrawal of any writ, appeal or reference where applicable and is issued and signed by the designated authority for communication to the declarant and relevant tax officers and appellate bodies.

Administrator appointment consent in insolvency proceedings, requiring disclosure of concurrent appointments, disciplinary status, and conflicts of interest.
Form 2 requires the Administrator to agree to appointment if the application is admitted; disclose concurrent roles as interim resolution professional, resolution professional or liquidator; certify no disciplinary proceedings are pending with the Board or relevant regulator; and either state absence of any conflict of interest or specify existing interests that constitute a conflict.

Payment Schedule for Income Declaration Scheme requires staged instalments; non-payment voids the declaration, with tax surcharge and penalty components.
Form 2 records the designated authority's determination of the amount payable for declared undisclosed income, itemising components (tax, surcharge, penalty) and reasons for differences, and directs staged payment by prescribed instalments with defined deadlines; non-payment as directed causes the declaration to be void and deemed never made.

Tax settlement under Direct Tax Dispute Resolution Scheme requires payment within thirty days or the declaration is void.
Form 3 certifies that, after receipt of a declaration under section 202, the designated authority has determined the amounts payable by the declarant towards full and final settlement of tax arrears or specified tax under the Direct Tax Dispute Resolution Scheme, and directs payment of the sum within thirty days; non-payment within that period renders the declaration void.

Payment intimation under Income Declaration Scheme requires Form Three with bank codes, challan serials and TDS/TCS credit details.
Intimation under the Income Declaration Scheme requires submission of Form 3 listing payments with bank BSR codes, deposit dates, challan serial numbers and amounts, attachment of proof of payment, and a separate schedule for claiming TDS/TCS credit supported by TDS/TCS certificates. The form also requires a verified declaration by the declarant or authorized signatory affirming inclusion of TDS/TCS-related income in the declared income and that such credit was not earlier claimed.

Direct Tax Dispute Resolution Scheme payment intimation to Designated Authority requiring bank challan details and proof of payment.
The form requires a declarant to notify the Designated Authority of payments under section 204(2) of the Finance Act, 2016 pursuant to the Direct Tax Dispute Resolution Scheme, 2016, referencing the certificate issued in Form 3 and identifying the declarant by name, address, PAN and assessment year. It mandates detailed bank payment particulars (BSR code, deposit date, challan serial number and amount) and attachment of proof of payment, and records filing particulars including certificate reference, place, signature, date, designation and address.

Income Declaration Scheme certificate records accepted undisclosed income, payable tax liabilities, and benami property transfer obligation.
Form 4 certifies acceptance of a declaration under the Income Declaration Scheme, 2016, recording declarant identity, PAN, receipt details, assessment year, undisclosed income accepted, asset descriptions, and liabilities (tax, surcharge, penalty and total). It records tax payment particulars and conditions issuance of the certificate on full payment. The form requires the declarant to furnish proof of transfer of benami property to the real owner by the prescribed deadline or forfeit immunity under the Benami Transactions (Prohibition) Act, 1988.

Direct Tax Dispute Resolution Scheme: payment certified and immunity granted for disputed tax upon full settlement.
Certification that the declarant has paid the sum determined by the designated authority under the Direct Tax Dispute Resolution Scheme, 2016 toward full and final settlement of specified tax arrear; the certificate records assessment year, appeal reference, disputed income and disputed tax and, subject to the Scheme's provisions, grants immunity from prosecution or penalty under the Income-tax Act/Wealth-tax Act in respect of the specified disputed tax/disputed income.

Full and final settlement under the Direct Tax Dispute Resolution Scheme grants immunity after payment and withdrawal of proceedings.
Order certifying that, following a declaration under the Scheme, the designated authority determined the specified tax and payable sum, the declarant paid that sum, withdrew any judicial or alternative dispute proceedings with proof, and furnished the prescribed undertaking; the order then certifies payment and grants immunity, subject to the Scheme, from prosecution or penalty in respect of the disputed tax/disputed income and lists assessment year, appeal reference, disputed income and disputed tax particulars.

Initiation of personal guarantor insolvency: Form A requirements and documentary evidence to commence resolution proceedings.
Application by a personal guarantor to initiate insolvency resolution is made on Form A, requiring detailed personal particulars, asset listings with identification of excluded assets, creditor wise debt particulars including security and retention of title details, and a statement that claimed debts exclude specified categories. The form demands documentary proof of debts, a recent statement of affairs covering assets, liabilities, guarantees and financials, and, where applicable, a resolution professional's registration, disclosures and consent to act. The guarantor must declare and verify the truthfulness of the application and attach prescribed supporting documents.

Bankruptcy trustee consent form requires eligibility declarations, disclosures, and written acceptance from an insolvency professional.
Written consent is required from an insolvency professional proposed to be appointed as bankruptcy trustee in the bankruptcy process for personal guarantors to corporate debtors. The form captures the professional's consent and declarations of registration, absence of disciplinary proceedings, no disqualification or disability to act as trustee, and eligibility under the applicable regulations and the Code. It also requires disclosure of processes in hand, including appointments as interim resolution professional, resolution professional, liquidator, bankruptcy trustee, authorised representative, and any other role stated by the professional.

Special Economic Zone application requirements: prescribed Form A disclosures, financing detail, land possession and compliance undertakings.
Form A prescribes required information for setting up a Special Economic Zone: applicant identity and corporate status; SEZ type and precise location; land ownership or lease details and contiguity; area allocation for processing and non processing uses and proposed infrastructure and operational standards; detailed investment and financing breakdown including equity and foreign direct investment; a project report with export and employment projections for five years; and a mandatory undertaking and affidavit to comply with the Special Economic Zones Act, 2005 and related rules.

Professional membership certificate confirms enrollment in insolvency professional agency and period of validity issued under bye law authority.
The Certificate of Professional Membership issued under bye law 10 attests that a named individual is enrolled as a professional member of a specified insolvency professional agency and records the agency assigned membership number; it specifies the certificate's date of validity, contains an authorised signature block for the agency, and identifies place and date of issuance as the agency's formal attestation of enrollment and membership status.

Corporate insolvency public announcement sets claim filing deadlines, submission modes, and penalty exposure for false proofs of claim.
Public announcement under Regulation 6 for commencement of the corporate insolvency resolution process requires notice to creditors of the corporate debtor and sets out the relevant particulars to be published, including the identity of the debtor, insolvency commencement date, estimated closure date, and details of the interim resolution professional. Creditors are called upon to submit claims with proof within the prescribed period to the interim resolution professional, with financial creditors required to file electronically only and other creditors permitted to use person, post, or electronic modes.

Resolution professional consent form required eligibility, disclosure duties, and confirmation of no disciplinary proceedings before appointment.
Written consent by an insolvency professional to act as resolution professional required confirmation of registration, absence of disciplinary proceedings or disqualification, eligibility under the applicable regulations, and disclosure of current insolvency-related assignments. The proposed appointee was also required to declare compliance with the code of conduct and disclosure obligations. The form was later omitted.

Registration as an insolvency professional requires enrolment, pre registration course completion, documentation and IPA verification.
Application for registration as an insolvency professional sets out a tripartite process: the applicant must supply identification, qualifications, insolvency examination and pre-registration course completion, work experience, disclosures of convictions/disciplinary or insolvency history and specified attachments; the professional member must confirm enrolment, course completion and fee payment; and the insolvency professional agency must verify eligibility, disciplinary and criminal records, DIN/DPIN and regulatory databases and recommend registration to the Board.

CENVAT credit refund: procedure for exporters to claim refund under rule 5 with prescribed calculations and documentation.
Application for refund of CENVAT credit under Rule 5 requires quarterly particulars of exports, total CENVAT credit taken, reversals and net credit, total turnover, and separate computed refund amounts for goods and services using the prescribed formulae. The claimant must provide bank details, declare compliance with Rule 5 and related notifications, confirm no duplicate claims or drawback/rebate claims, attach specified enclosures (customs-certified shipping bills/ARE-1, bank realization certificates, auditor's certificate), and the amount claimed must not exceed the computed refund or available credit; administrative scrutiny and payment posting instructions are provided.

Claim form under inspection and investigation regulations omitted, after earlier requiring identity, loss details, computation and verification.
Form A prescribed under Regulation 14(3) for a claim under an order under section 220(4) of the Code was omitted with effect from 02-06-2026. The earlier form required the claimant's name and address, identity particulars, bank remittance details, an explanation of loss suffered on account of the contravention, computation of loss, and verification of truth and completeness, with notarisation for claims above the stated threshold.

Information utility registration form requires disclosures on ownership, governance, infrastructure, compliance, and fit and proper status.
Application for grant or renewal of certificate of registration as an information utility required details on the applicant's identity, constitutional documents, ownership and control, financial strength, directors and employees, infrastructure, business plan, exit management plan, and fit and proper status of key persons. The form also required declarations of truth, non-suppression of material facts, and acknowledgment that registration may be summarily cancelled if information is false or misleading. For renewal, compliance with the certificate conditions and the Code, rules, regulations, guidelines and directions had to be provided.

Fast Track Insolvency commencement: creditors must submit proofs to the interim resolution professional within the prescribed period.
The public announcement under Regulation 6 requires disclosure of the corporate debtor's identifying particulars, the fast track commencement date, estimated closure date, and the interim resolution professional's contact and registration details. Creditors are called to submit proofs of claim to the interim resolution professional within the prescribed period from appointment; financial creditors must submit electronically while other creditors may use prescribed modes. The announcement warns that false or misleading proofs of claim will attract penalties and provides for the interim resolution professional's signature.

Stakeholder consultation reporting form in liquidation process covers meeting details, agenda items, and liquidation-related disclosures before omission.
Form A was a proforma for reporting consultations with stakeholders in liquidation proceedings under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (Liquidation Process) Regulations, 2016. The earlier form required details of the liquidator, corporate debtor, liquidation case, stakeholder, consultation date, communications received, and a summary of consultation. A later substituted version expanded the reporting format to cover meeting details and agenda items such as remuneration of professionals, sale process, liquidator's fees, valuation, litigation status, preliminary report, avoidance and wrongful trading proceedings, liquidation cost, extension of payment time, continuation of business, early dissolution, and other agenda items, before being omitted.

Voluntary liquidation notice requires Form A particulars, stakeholder claims deadlines, and electronic filing by financial creditors.
Voluntary liquidation requires a public announcement in Form A containing prescribed particulars of the corporate person, the liquidation commencement date, the liquidator's contact details, and the last date for submission of claims. Stakeholders are called upon to submit proof of claims to the liquidator within the specified time period. Financial creditors must submit claims electronically, while other stakeholders may use in person, post, or electronic modes. False or misleading proofs of claim attract penalties.

Insolvency professional agency registration requires detailed corporate, governance, financial and compliance disclosures for approval.
Application for grant or renewal of registration as an insolvency professional agency requires an authorised submission with declarations of truthfulness and undertaking to comply with the Code and Board requirements; enclosure of constitutional documents; and detailed annexed disclosures on corporate identity, conformity of bye-laws, shareholding and financial strength, control and fit-and-proper status of significant persons, board and employee particulars, infrastructure for agency functions, and, for renewals, compliance, reporting and grievance particulars.

Recognition of stock exchange under securities law requires formal application, enclosures, undertakings and detailed governance and trading disclosures.
Application for recognition or renewal of a stock exchange under section 3 of the Securities Contracts (Regulation) Act, 1956 requires submission of Form A with an undertaking to comply with section 4, payment receipt, four copies of rules, memorandum and articles and bye laws, and completion of the Annexure detailing corporate, membership, governing body, trading, clearing, market conduct, disciplinary, listing and fee recovery arrangements.

Refund of CENVAT Credit: procedure for claiming and crediting unutilised input credit under partial reverse charge.
Refund of CENVAT credit under Rule 5B provides that service providers who render services subject to partial reverse charge must itemise output services, values, tax liabilities and compute the refundable amount as the lesser of the receiver's service tax liability and unutilised CENVAT credit on inputs or input services; applicants must debit their CENVAT account, supply bank details, attach ST-3 returns, make prescribed declarations, and submit the form for scrutiny, sanction and accounting by Central Excise authorities.

Central Sales Tax registration requires detailed business, place-of-business and inter-state goods particulars for certificate issuance.
Application for a certificate of registration under Central Sales Tax on Form A requires identification of the dealer and manager, applicant's status, principal and other business premises and warehouses in the State, and places of business in other States. The form seeks existing registration/licence details, ownership and partner particulars with extent of interest, commencement and first inter state sale dates, accounting year and frequency, nature of business, classes of goods purchased in inter state trade and their uses, manufacturing or power generation particulars where applicable, and a signed declaration.

Bankruptcy petition by guarantor requires comprehensive disclosure and nomination of an insolvency professional to initiate the prescribed bankruptcy process.
Form A is the prescribed application by a personal guarantor to initiate the bankruptcy process and requires full identification, asset inventories with excluded assets identified, creditor-wise particulars of secured and unsecured debts including dates and amounts in default, and affirmation regarding excluded categories of debt. The application permits nomination of an insolvency professional who must declare eligibility and submit disclosures. Mandatory attachments include prior insolvency records, guarantee contracts, tax returns, bankers' books, statement of affairs and supporting financial and title documents.

Authorisation for procurement of services enables SEZ units and developers to procure specified registered service providers under service tax rules.
Authorisation enables an SEZ unit or developer to procure specified services for authorised operations, requiring unit identification (name, address, PAN, import-export code, jurisdictional division, service/Central Excise registration) and a schedule of authorised specified services with corresponding service providers and their service tax registration; the document must be signed and stamped by the jurisdictional Deputy/Assistant Commissioner of Central Excise with contact details.

Exemption reporting for SEZ service procurement: quarterly return required listing service providers and exempt service values.
Quarterly return (Form A-3) for SEZ units/developers to report services procured without payment of service tax under the exemption notification, identifying the unit by name, address, PAN, IEC and registration numbers, and listing each exempted service with description, service provider details and registration, invoice number and date, value of service, and service tax plus cess amount claimed, to be signed and dated by an authorised person.

Refund of service tax: procedure to claim reimbursement for specified services used in SEZ, including required particulars and declarations.
Procedure to claim refund of service tax on specified services used for authorised operations in an SEZ: applicants must submit identification (including PAN, IEC, registration), bank account details, and invoice-level particulars in Table I (services exclusively used) or Table II (partially used), with certified documentary copies. The application must disclose previous year turnovers for authorised and DTA operations and include declarations confirming authorized use, payment to service provider, no prior refund or CENVAT credit, and maintenance of supporting accounts, signed by an authorised person.

Ab initio exemption for specified services requires SEZ units to declare exclusive use and maintain accounts, or repay with interest.
Ab initio exemption is claimed via Form A 1 by a SEZ Unit/Developer supplying identification and service registration details, declaring accuracy and maintenance of accounts, and affirming that specified services are used for authorised SEZ operations. The form requires listing specified services and providers, disclosure of any DTA business, and an undertaking to repay exempted amounts with applicable interest if services are not exclusively used for authorised operations. The declaration must be signed by an authorised person and verified by the Specified Officer.

Auditor certificate requirement: refund claims must include auditor certification of export and total turnover compliance under rule 5.
Refund claims must include an auditor certificate under rule 5 of the CENVAT Credit Rules, 2004; the Form A-1 (Annexure A I) requires the auditor to confirm qualification, that the books for the relevant quarter were audited, and that the export turnover and total turnover figures in Form A are correct as per the books and conform to rule 5, with auditor signature and date.

Central excise registration for textile producers requires applicant identification, product and raw material disclosure, and a signed declaration.
The form prescribes information required for central excise registration: legal business name and premises address, PAN if available, authorised person's name and contact, names and addresses of proprietors/partners/principal officers, description of major excisable goods and principal raw materials. It requires an applicant declaration of truth and authority to sign (with all partners signing for unregistered partnerships) and provides an acknowledgment section for issuance or mailing of the registration certificate with the central excise officer's signature and seal.

Central excise registration for hand rolled cheroot manufacturers requires business details, goods and inputs disclosure, declaration and acknowledgement.
Application form for central excise registration of manufacturers of hand rolled cheroots under sub-heading no. 2402.00 requires business status, business and responsible-person details (name, addresses, principal business address, PAN if available), description of excisable goods, and major raw materials/inputs. It mandates a signed declaration by the appropriate responsible person with legible stamp and provides an acknowledgement for issuance of the registration certificate including officer signature and seal.

Approval of co-developer: application requires developer and co-developer details, investment, infrastructure and formal recommendation for SEZ projects.
Application for approval of a co-developer in a Special Economic Zone requires developer and proposed co-developer identification, SEZ type and area, the specific infrastructure or authorised operations and area to be undertaken by the co-developer, proposed investment and net worth, level of developer equity in related entities, presence and enclosure of a developer-co-developer agreement, an applicant declaration accepting conditions and consequences for false statements, and the Development Commissioner's recommendation after examination.

Liberalised Remittance Scheme compliance required for outward remittances, with Form A2 declarations and authorised dealer certification.
Form A2 is the statutory application and declaration for drawal of foreign exchange under FEMA, requiring applicant identification, remittance mode (draft, direct bank transfer, traveller's cheques or currency), and selection of an appropriate purpose code. Remitters under the Liberalised Remittance Scheme must declare compliance with LRS limits and source of funds. The Authorised Dealer must certify eligibility, conformity with Reserve Bank instructions, record AD particulars, and stamp and sign the form for processing and reporting.

Registration as insolvency professional requires agency enrolment, statutory compliance and verified affirmations before the regulator.
The form prescribes a unified enrolment and registration process for an entity and its members as an insolvency professional, requiring an authorised application, disclosures on corporate links, insolvency or bankruptcy history, and confirmation that the entity and its partners/directors meet the fit and proper standard and comply with regulations 12 and 13. Applicants must provide attestations, fee payment proof and specified attachments; misrepresentation may lead to summary cancellation or derecognition. The insolvency professional agency must verify details, confirm eligibility and recommend registration to the Board.

Written consent for resolution professional appointment requires eligibility declarations, disclosure compliance, and processes-in-hand particulars.
Form AA prescribed written consent for an insolvency professional proposed as resolution professional under regulation 3(1A). The form required consent to the appointment, confirmation of registration, absence of disciplinary proceedings or disability, eligibility under the Code and regulations, compliance with disclosure obligations, and disclosure of processes already in hand. It was inserted by notification and later omitted with effect from 02-06-2026.

Written consent to act as liquidator governed appointment declarations, eligibility confirmations, and disclosure obligations for insolvency professionals.
Written consent to act as liquidator was prescribed in Form AA under regulation 31A of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (Liquidation Process) Regulations, 2016, as the consent document for an insolvency professional proposed by the stakeholders' consultation committee for appointment as liquidator in a corporate debtor's liquidation process. The form was later omitted. The declaration required confirmation of registration, absence of disciplinary proceedings, absence of disability to act as liquidator, eligibility under the Code and regulations, disclosure compliance, and disclosure of processes in hand.

Authorised representative consent form under insolvency resolution rules, with disclosure duties and later omission from the framework.
Written consent format prescribed for an insolvency professional to act as authorised representative of financial creditors in a class during the corporate insolvency resolution process under Regulation 4A(3). The form required consent to appointment, declarations regarding registration, absence of disciplinary proceedings, absence of disability to act, an undertaking not to canvass creditors, and disclosure of processes in hand. It was inserted by notification and later omitted with effect from 02-06-2026.

Annual Activity Certificate requirement: auditor-certified accounts and compliance certification must be submitted to the designated AD bank and tax authority.
Annual Activity Certificate requires BO/LO/PO of foreign entities to submit an auditor signed certificate and audited financial statements confirming activities conformed to permissions granted by the Reserve Bank or designated AD Category I bank; project offices must also certify project status and attest that no inter project fund transfers occurred without prior Reserve Bank approval. The AAC and audited accounts must be filed with the designated AD Category I bank and a copy provided to the tax authority by the prescribed deadline, with allowance for alternate year ends within six months of the balance sheet date; multiple offices file a combined AAC via the nodal office.

Annual Performance Report requirement mandates yearly disclosure of overseas investment, repatriation and step down subsidiary details by investors.
The APR framework mandates annual submission of Form APR by persons resident in India with ODI, reporting capital structure, control status, shareholding changes, two-year financials, repatriations, retained earnings, and SDS details; requires declarations confirming compliance with OI Regulations and Rule-based structural requirements, submission of share certificates to the AD bank within six months, auditor/chartered accountant certification on financial statements (audited or unaudited as applicable), and AD bank certification of document bona fides, with specified exemptions, filing deadlines and documentation standards.

Recognition of stock exchanges under SCRA requires grant subject to conditions, timely renewal filing and gazette publication.
Granting recognition to a stock exchange is effected by a formal instrument following an application for recognition or renewal under the Securities Contracts (Regulation) framework; recognition may be granted for a specified period or permanently, subject to conditions stated in the instrument or later prescribed, and renewal applications must be submitted within a prescribed advance period with the recognition published in the central and State official gazettes.

Authorisation for assignment for registered insolvency professionals specifies issuance, membership and registration details, validity period and renewal by the agency
Authorisation for assignment under bye-law 12A requires the agency to issue Form B to an enrolled professional member who is registered with the IBBI, recording membership and registration numbers and bearing the agency's signature. The Form specifies a defined validity period and permits renewal; it operates as the agency's formal attestation that the named insolvency professional is authorised to accept assignments under the bye-laws.

Operational creditor proof of claim form requires debt details, supporting documents, set-off disclosure, and verification.
Proof of claim by operational creditors, other than workmen and employees, under the insolvency resolution process for corporate persons is to be submitted in Form B. The form requires identification of the operational creditor and corporate debtor, disclosure of the total claim with interest, supporting documents, any dispute or pending proceedings, the manner in which the debt was incurred, mutual dealings for set-off, and particulars of any security or retention of title arrangement. It also requires bank account details, a list of documents, and a declaration and verification of the claim.

Demand notice for guarantors: required particulars and proof obligations precede initiation of the insolvency resolution process.
Form B prescribes the form of demand notice creditors must send to personal guarantors before initiating insolvency resolution. It requires declaration of unpaid debt in default and detailed particulars of the debt, including secured and unsecured components, particulars of security, retention of title arrangements, court or information-utility records, and supporting documents. The notice gives the guarantor a limited cure period to prove repayment by specified evidence and demands unconditional payment within that period; failure to pay will result in initiation of the insolvency resolution process and the served notice must be attached to the creditor's application.

Proof of claim requirements for operational creditors under fast track insolvency ensure documented entitlement and disclosure for resolution processing.
Submission of a Proof of Claim by an operational creditor under Regulation 7 requires Form B addressed to the Interim Resolution Professional/Resolution Professional, supplying creditor identification and contact details, total claim amount including interest as at the fast track commencement date, documents substantiating the debt, particulars of how and when the debt arose, disclosures of mutual credits, set-offs, retention of title, pending disputes or proceedings, bank account details for payment, and an accompanying affidavit attesting to the indebtedness and genuineness of evidence.

Certificate of registration form for information utilities omitted, removing the prescribed template and renewal format.
The prescribed Form B certificate of registration under Regulation 5 of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (Information Utilities) Regulations, 2017 has been omitted. The form previously set out the template for granting or renewing a certificate of registration to act as an information utility, including the validity period and renewal provision.

Registration certificate under central sales tax defines dealer classification, inter state taxable goods, and compliance obligations.
The Certificate of Registration documents a dealer's formal registration, principal place of business, classes of goods and categories of use that determine inter State taxability, and whether the dealer manufactures or generates listed goods or power. It records the dealer's accounting year, additional places of business and warehouse locations, states the certificate's validity period, and bears the issuing authority's signature, thereby establishing the dealer's taxable scope and reporting obligations under the Central Sales Tax framework.

Proof of claim by operational creditors in voluntary liquidation requires detailed claim particulars, supporting documents, and affidavit verification.
Proof of claim by operational creditors other than workmen and employees in voluntary liquidation was set out in Form B. The form required the creditor to provide identity and correspondence details, the amount and nature of the claim, dispute and proceeding details, how the debt was incurred, mutual credits or set-off matters, security or assignment particulars, bank account details, and supporting documents. The accompanying affidavit required affirmation of indebtedness, reliance on supporting documents, and disclosure of any satisfaction or security received.

SEZ approval requires developer compliance with SEZ Act, statutory clearances, environmental safeguards and operational conditions.
Approval for a Special Economic Zone is subject to compliance with the Special Economic Zones Act, 2005 and related rules; execution of a Bond cum Legal Undertaking; statutory and local clearances; environmental and rehabilitation obligations; securing project funding; implementation within the prescribed period with periodic progress reports; maintenance of manpower and operational standards; Board approval for specific activities to access duty free import or domestic procurement; prohibition on personal use of duty free goods; bearing cost of government staff; and submission of maps and statutory returns for notification and regulatory oversight.

Bankruptcy process for personal guarantors enables creditors to apply for adjudication and propose an insolvency professional.
Form B prescribes a creditor's application to initiate bankruptcy proceedings against a personal guarantor, requiring full particulars of applicant and guarantor, a detailed statement of the debt (including default, security and supporting documents), declaration on excluded debts, and whether a secured creditor will relinquish security. It mandates attaching prior insolvency process records, documentary proof of debt and default, and, if proposed, a declaration by the insolvency professional confirming registration, eligibility, disclosures and willingness to act as bankruptcy trustee.

Liquidation public announcement format governs claim filing, disclosure requirements, and electronic submission by financial creditors.
Prescribed the format of Form B public announcement under the liquidation process regulations, requiring disclosure of the corporate debtor's particulars, liquidation commencement date, liquidator details, and last date for submission of claims. Stakeholders were called upon to submit proofs of claim within thirty days from the liquidation commencement date; financial creditors were to file only by electronic means, while other stakeholders could file in person, by post, or electronically. The form also stated that false or misleading proofs of claim would attract penalties.

Certificate of registration authorises individuals to act as insolvency professionals under the applicable regulation, effective from specified commencement.
A Certificate of Registration is granted under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (Insolvency Professionals) Regulations, 2016 authorising the named person to act as an insolvency professional in accordance with those Regulations, identifying the registration number placeholder and specifying validity from a stated commencement date, issued and attested by an authorised signatory of the Board with place and date fields for administrative completion.

Creditor claim proof form requires detailed debt particulars, security disclosure, and secured creditor election on enforcement rights.
Claim with proof by a creditor under the insolvency resolution process for personal guarantors to corporate debtors requires submission of a prescribed claim form to the resolution professional with creditor identification, addresses, contact details, amount claimed including interest, supporting documents, dispute details, manner and date of incurrence of debt, set-off particulars, retention of title arrangements, transfer account details, and details of any security held. A secured creditor must indicate whether it agrees to forfeit the right to enforce security during the repayment plan period, as this affects the voting share. The creditor must sign a declaration and verification confirming the truth, validity, and completeness of the claim and supporting documents.

Proxy appointment form for bankruptcy committee meetings allowed creditors to authorise voting representation on listed agenda matters.
Form B prescribed a proxy appointment format for the bankruptcy process for personal guarantors to corporate debtors. It allowed a creditor holding a specified voting share of the bankrupt's debt to appoint a proxy to attend and vote at the committee meeting and any adjournment on the matters in the meeting notice and agenda. The form required particulars of the creditor and proxy, including address, identification numbers, e-mail, signatures and date. The note states that the form was later omitted with effect from 02-06-2026.

Registration of insolvency professional agency: certificate granted or renewed with a specified validity period and renewal provision.
Granting or renewal of a certificate of registration to act as an insolvency professional agency under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016, recorded on Form B with certificate number, named registrant, an indicated validity period between inserted start and end dates, and a provision that the registration may be renewed; the form ends with signature, name, designation, place and date for issuance by the Board.

Customs and excise bond obligations secure compliance with duty, export conditions, recordkeeping and payment on demand.
General Bond Form B 17 binds export oriented units and their sureties jointly and severally to secure observance of Customs and Central Excise laws and Foreign Trade Policy, to maintain prescribed accounts and evidence of use, to prevent pilferage, and to fulfill export obligations. It requires deposit/endorsement of cash or securities, permits provisional assessment with post assessment payment on demand, preserves continuous liability despite transfer of goods, and provides that the surety remains liable notwithstanding Government forbearance, with recovery from security or enforcement of bond rights.

In-principle approval for SEZ proposals requires formal application, statutory and environmental compliance, and proof of land rights.
Grant of in-principle approval for an SEZ is subject to submission of a formal Form A application with proof of land possession/leasehold rights, an updated project report and prescribed enclosures to the Director (SEZ). The developer must hold the identified area by ownership or long-term lease on the date of application, obtain all statutory and environmental approvals, provide for rehabilitation of displaced persons, comply with local planning and labour laws, follow external borrowing guidelines for project funding, secure board approval for proposed activities, and may seek a limited extension with justification.

Export bill certification: bank-issued certificate reporting realised and overdue export bills, including extensions obtained.
Certificate of Export form BCX reports export bills negotiated or sent for collection for a half-yearly period, listing exporter identity, destination countries, total export bills realised and bills outstanding beyond the due date or six months from shipment, with space for remarks. It must be signed and stamped by two authorised bank signatories and specify any outstanding bills for which extension of time has been obtained from the Reserve Bank.

Enrolment application for event venues requires specified identity, bank and verification details for VAT registration compliance.
Enrolment application for function venues requires applicant identity and contact details, venue type, PAN and name as on PAN, principal and additional addresses, TIN if applicable, bank account information (account number, IFSC, bank name and branch), authorised signatory details, date and an office enrolment number. The form includes a verification declaration requiring the authorised signatory to affirm the truth and completeness of the information and provide signature, full name and designation for VAT registration and administrative record-keeping.

VAT return requirement for hospitality events mandates reporting of event details, caterer TIN, food and liquor sales for compliance.
Form BE-2 requires banquet halls, farm houses, clubs, caterers and similar dealers to file fortnightly returns disclosing enrolment number and dealer contact details, a schedule of upcoming functions (venue, booking and function dates/times, booking party particulars), number of persons/plates by meal category, whether liquor will be served and corresponding licence coverage, caterer particulars including TIN, rate per person excluding VAT, and total value of food and liquor sold excluding VAT, with an authorised signatory verification declaring accuracy.

Foreign exchange remittance reporting requires banks to file BEF statements for sizable import payments lacking documentary proof.
Authorised dealers must submit a duplicate BEF statement to the Reserve Bank's Regional Office for import related remittances lacking documentary evidence despite reminders, including only remittances above the prescribed threshold. The BEF comprises Part I (defaulting importers) and Part II (subsequent receipt of documents for earlier reports); previously reported entries must not be repeated. Dealers may exclude cases supported by acceptable alternative documents or provisional into bond bills followed by exchange control bills for home consumption. Half yearly statements, including 'NIL' returns, must be filed within the prescribed period and certified by the authorised official.

Debt recording and security reporting form under information utility regulations, including default particulars and proof documents.
Form C under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (Information Utilities) Regulations, 2017 sets out the information to be furnished for recording a debt, the creation of security on that debt, and the default particulars, together with the documents that may be uploaded as proof. The form captures the parties to the debt, debt identification and terms, security details such as charge type, asset description, valuation and registration particulars, and default data including date of default, amount overdue, last payment and suit status.

Financial creditor proof of claim form sets disclosure requirements for voluntary liquidation submissions to the liquidator.
FORM C formerly prescribed the manner in which a financial creditor was to submit proof of claim in a voluntary liquidation process to the liquidator. The form required particulars of the creditor, the total claim amount including interest, the nature of the debt, supporting documents, details of any security, mutual dealings or set-off, assignment or transfer, and bank account information for distribution of liquidation proceeds. It also required signature, authority where applicable, an affidavit, and verification.

Proof of claim by financial creditors: mandatory particulars and supporting evidence required for fast track insolvency claim admission.
Form C is the prescribed proof of claim for financial creditors under Regulation 8 of the Fast Track Insolvency Resolution Process. It requires creditor identification and contact details, the total claim amount inclusive of interest as at the fast track commencement date, documentary proof of the debt, particulars of debt origination, disclosures of mutual dealings and security, bank account details for transfer under a resolution plan, and a list of supporting documents. An affidavit and verification must affirm the claim, the genuineness of documents, absence or particulars of satisfaction or security, and include signature and authority where applicable.

Financial creditors' claim filing under insolvency rules requires detailed particulars, supporting documents, declarations, and updated claim disclosure.
Submission of claim and proof of claim by financial creditors is prescribed in Form C under the Insolvency Resolution Process for Corporate Persons Regulations. The form requires the creditor's particulars, claim amount, supporting documents, debt details, mutual dealings, security, and bank account information, together with a declaration and verification on the debt, documents relied on, satisfaction or security, and related-party status. The note also records later revisions to include claims against a principal borrower or guarantor and an undertaking to update the claim after partial or full satisfaction, before Form C was omitted with effect from 02-06-2026.

Proof of claim by operational creditors in liquidation requires detailed disclosure, supporting documents, and sworn verification.
Proof of claim by operational creditors other than workmen and employees in liquidation required Form C submission to the liquidator, with particulars of the creditor, total claim, nature of debt, supporting documents, manner and date of incurrence, mutual dealings, retention of title or other security, assignment details, and bank account details. The claimant also had to attach relied-on documents, sign through an authorised person if applicable, and file an affidavit and verification confirming the debt, the authenticity of documents, and any set-off or security disclosed.

Withdrawal of recognition: exchange must show cause why its recognition under applicable securities rules should not be withdrawn.
Form C is a procedural notice requiring a recognised exchange to show cause by a specified date at the office of the designated officer why the recognition granted under the enabling notification and certificate should not be withdrawn; the notice refers to reasons set out in an annexure and bears the regulator's seal and issuance in the regulator's name.

Recognition as insolvency professional entity requires prescribed eligibility, documentation, and an undertaking to comply with the Code.
Application for recognition as an insolvency professional entity under regulation 12 requires submission of FORM C by an authorised representative, disclosing entity identity, constitution, registration and tax identifiers, and full particulars of directors or partners. Eligibility proof must include net worth certified by a Chartered Accountant, corresponding financial statements, details of shareholding or capital contributions, and declarations about prior derecognition or disciplinary proceedings. The authorised signatory must affirm eligibility, accuracy of information, and undertake compliance with the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code and related regulations; specified attachments include constitutional documents, registration certificates, net worth certificate, financials, and proof of fee payment.

Bankruptcy commencement notice: creditors must submit claims to the bankruptcy trustee within the prescribed timeframe.
A public notice (Form C) informs creditors of the commencement of a bankruptcy process against a personal guarantor and calls on them to submit claims with proof to the appointed bankruptcy trustee by the notice's last date. Claims may be filed electronically, by hand, registered post, speed post or courier. The notice mandates disclosure of the trustee's contact and registration details and the bankrupt's last known address, and warns that false or misleading claims with proof will attract penalties or imprisonment under the insolvency law.

SEZ co-developer approval: permission to provide infrastructure subject to statutory compliance and reporting requirements.
Approval is granted to an entity as Co-developer to provide infrastructure facilities in a Special Economic Zone subject to the Special Economic Zones Act, 2005 and related rules; it requires execution of a Bond cum Legal Undertaking, obtaining statutory approvals, environmental and local law compliance, funding as per guidelines, maintenance of manpower and standards, fixation of user charges with the Development Commissioner, limitation of duty free procurement to Board approved activities after SEZ notification, prohibition on personal use of duty free goods, time limited validity co terminus with the Developer's approval, and periodic returns on import, procurement and utilisation.

Interstate sales declaration: Form C certifies goods' end-use and dealer registration to support concessional tax treatment.
Form C provides documentary proof for concessional interstate sales by recording issuing-state and office details, purchaser's registration certificate and validity, transaction particulars (bill/cash memo/challan), and requiring the purchaser's authorised signature and issuing authority seal. It requires an explicit end-use certification (resale; manufacture/processing for sale; mining; power generation/distribution; packing for sale/resale) and a declaration that the purchaser is not registered in the delivery state, thereby linking registration, end-use and transaction particulars to support concessional tax treatment.

Insolvency resolution for personal guarantor requires Form C with detailed debtor, debt, and documentary evidence for admissibility.
Form C prescribes the creditor's application to initiate an insolvency resolution process against a personal guarantor, requiring detailed particulars of the applicant and guarantor, a full inventory of assets and liabilities, comprehensive particulars of the debt and default, declarations as to excluded debts, a secured creditor's election on forfeiture of enforcement rights affecting voting share, insolvency professional disclosures and acceptance, payment of fee, and specified documentary attachments to establish debt and default.

Proxy authorisation for creditor voting in personal guarantor insolvency meetings, with prescribed identity and meeting details.
Proxy Form C authorised a creditor to appoint a proxy to attend and vote at a meeting of creditors, and any adjournment, in the insolvency resolution process for personal guarantors to corporate debtors. The form required details of the guarantor, creditor, proxy, identification particulars, voting share, meeting details, and the matters set out in the notice.

Extension of approval validity for SEZs requires Form C1 detailing implementation steps, justification, and commissioner recommendation.
Form C1 is the prescribed application to extend formal approval validity for a Special Economic Zone under rule 6(2)(a). It requires developer identity, Letter of Approval details, SEZ type and sector, grant and expiry dates, whether notification and demarcation have occurred, a list of implementation steps undertaken, proposed completion timeframe, reasons for extension, an applicant declaration certifying truthfulness and acceptance of cancellation risk, applicant contact details, and the Development Commissioner's recommendation.

Extension of SEZ approval validity requires application with developer declaration and Development Commissioner recommendation before expiry.
Form C2 requires a developer seeking extension of an SEZ in principle approval under rule 6(2)(b) to provide identification, Letter of Approval details, SEZ type and sector, expiry and requested extension dates, whether the application was filed before expiry, whether it is a first or second extension, total and acquired land area, estimated time to acquire remaining land, and reasons for extension. The applicant must declare correctness of statements and accept potential cancellation if statements are false; the form requires Development Commissioner recommendation and applicant contact and signature details.

Change of SEZ sector: structured application process requiring approval particulars, reasons, declaration, and commissioner recommendation.
Form C3 under rule 6A(I) prescribes the application process for Developers seeking to change the approved SEZ sector, requiring developer details, Letter of Approval data, current and proposed sectors, dates of grant and expiry, notification status, reasons for change, and a declaration accepting potential conditions and consequences for false statements. The form includes a recommendation block for the Development Commissioner and applicant authentication fields, creating a structured administrative record for sector-change requests.

Increase in SEZ area: application form requires contiguous possession, prescribed particulars, declaration and Development Commissioner recommendation.
Form C4 governs an Application for Increase in Area of a Special Economic Zone under rule 6A(II). It requires particulars including developer details, Letter of Approval, sector, present and additional area, contiguity, possession, total area, approval dates, notification status and reasons for the increase, and requires demonstration that the additional land meets rule 7 conditions. The applicant must declare the truthfulness of statements and accept conditions, and the Development Commissioner must examine and recommend the proposal.

Decrease in SEZ area: procedural application requires developer declaration, duty benefit disclosure, and Development Commissioner recommendation.
Application for reduction of Special Economic Zone area is made on Form C5, requiring developer identity and approval details, present and proposed area, contiguity of remaining land, approval and notification dates, duty benefits and tax exemptions attributable to the area proposed for deletion, reasons for decrease, a sworn declaration of correctness and compliance, and the Development Commissioner's examination and recommendation.

Denotification of Special Economic Zone requires developer application with declaration and proof of duty exemption settlement.
Application for denotification of a Special Economic Zone by Form C6 requires developer identification, approval and notification dates, area and sector details, reasons for withdrawal, and the quantum of duty benefits and tax exemptions availed on the area proposed for deletion. The applicant must declare the truth of statements and accept conditions the Government may impose. The Development Commissioner must recommend whether the Zone has no units or units have been debonded and confirm whether duty exemptions remain or an equivalent amount has been deposited to the Government account.

Approval of authorised operations in SEZs requires detailed activity schedules, justifications, applicant declaration, and official recommendation.
Form C7 sets out the application for approval of authorised operations in a Special Economic Zone, requiring developer details, Letter of Approval reference, SEZ type, area, investment and employment data, and separate schedules for processing and non-processing area activities specifying activity name, unit numbers, area per unit under applicable FSI/FAR norms, and total area or capacity, each accompanied by a justification; it includes an applicant declaration accepting governmental conditions and potential cancellation for false statements, contact and signature blocks, and a Development Commissioner recommendation section.

Financial creditors in a class claim form sets disclosure, declaration, and verification requirements for insolvency proceedings.
Submission of claim by financial creditors in a class under the insolvency resolution process for corporate persons is set out through a prescribed form requiring particulars of the creditor, the amount and basis of the claim, supporting documents, mutual dealings, security, bank account details, and the proposed authorised representative. It also requires a declaration and verification concerning indebtedness, documentary authenticity, set-off, related-party status, and authorised execution.

Currency declaration requirement: arriving passengers must declare and document foreign exchange and present the form for conversion or Customs verification.
The Currency Declaration Form (CDF) under Regulation 6 requires arriving passengers to declare foreign exchange in their possession unless the aggregate foreign exchange or the value of foreign currency notes falls below prescribed thresholds. The form must be produced to an authorised bank or money changer when converting or reconverting currency. Passengers who do not encash all declared foreign exchange must retain the form to present to Customs on departure for removal of unutilised balances. The form captures passenger identity, itemised currency and travellers' cheque values, a Customs officer's certification, and an endorsement area for encashment details by the bank or money changer.

Chewing tobacco packing machine certification: Chartered Engineer must verify and declare each machine's maximum packing capacity accurately.
A Chartered Engineer must physically inspect and certify each packing machine's technical details and declare the Maximum Rated Speed, calculated as capacity per cup or funnel multiplied by the number of cups or funnels, confirm machines cannot exceed the declared speed, disclose modifications affecting capacity, and attest that no facts affecting duty liability under the capacity determination rules have been concealed.

Declaration of machines used to manufacture notified goods requires machine identity, capacity, and Chartered Engineer certification.
Manufacturers must declare machines used to manufacture notified goods, providing factory and registration details, goods and retail denominations, and detailed technical particulars for each machine including make, model, purchase date, registration number, working status, gear box ratio, motor RPM, number of cups or funnels, packing capacity per cup/funnel and total rated packing speed, supported by Chartered Engineer certificates and machine technical specifications.

Central Excise duty payment reporting requires classified payment details, machine-abatement particulars, supporting orders and certified manufacturer declarations.
Central Excise duty payment reporting under Form CE PMT-01 requires a manufacturer to provide registration, jurisdiction, challan and classified payment details for duty, interest, penalty and other amounts. It also records abatement claims for registered machines inoperative during the previous month, supported by the relevant abatement order. The manufacturer or authorised signatory must certify the accuracy and completeness of the information.

Convertible note compliance: reporting of investor details, AD bank remittance and documentation governs issuance, conversion and transfers.
Regulation of issuance, conversion, repayment and transfer of convertible notes requires detailed investor identification, remittance and documentation. The form mandates issue date, inflow amount, investor details and entity type; remittance particulars identifying the AD bank, payment mode, date and amounts in foreign currency and rupees; and supporting attachments such as FIRC/debit statements and KYC. Repayment and conversion events must record dates and rupee amounts and confirm payee identity. Transfers between residents and non residents must record transfer type, buyer and seller identities and resident status, AD bank facilitation, payment mode and supporting documentation.

Record of Default: information utility certificate of debt default and authentication status under insolvency framework
Form D is the authorised Record of Default issued by an Information Utility under regulation 21(4) of the Information Utilities Regulations to a Financial or Operational Creditor, recording corporate debtor identification, Unique Debt Identifier, addresses, debt amounts, date of default, submission identifiers, and the authentication status (colour-coded and dated). The form must bear the Information Utility's digital signature, may include technical details and annexures, and may be modified by the Information Utility as permitted by the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code and related regulatory instruments.

Certificate of recognition for insolvency professional entities confirms recognition, validity period, and issuing authority's endorsement.
A framework for issuance of a Certificate of Recognition to entities qualifying as insolvency professional entities; the Board grants recognition to a named entity by a written certificate that identifies the recognised entity, records commencement of validity, and is executed by an authorised signatory with place and date of issuance.

Proof of claim by financial creditors in liquidation requires detailed disclosure of debt, security, set-off, and supporting documents.
Form D prescribed the proof of claim format for financial creditors in liquidation, requiring details of the creditor, claim amount, nature of debt, supporting documents, any court or tribunal order, manner of incurring the debt, mutual dealings for set-off, security held, whether any security interest was relinquished, assignment or transfer of debt, bank details for distribution, and an affidavit verifying the claim and disclosed set-off or satisfaction. The form was later omitted.

SEZ compliance undertaking: developers must secure customs benefits with detailed records and refunds if statutory conditions are breached.
The bond secures developer compliance with the Special Economic Zones Act and Rules by binding obligors jointly and severally to refund benefits of exemptions, drawback, cess and concessions if conditions are breached, to maintain detailed accounts of goods, to submit prescribed quarterly and half-yearly returns, to ensure safe transit and proof of arrival of dispatched goods within the stipulated period, and to obtain permission for changes in business name or location; failure may attract withdrawal of permissions and recovery of sums by the Specified Officer.

Proof of claim by workman or employee required detailed particulars, supporting documents, affidavit, and verification in voluntary liquidation.
Form D prescribed the format for a workman or employee to submit proof of claim in a voluntary liquidation process. It required identity and correspondence particulars, the total amount of claim, details of disputes or pending proceedings, the manner in which the claim arose, any mutual credits or set-off arrangements, bank account details, and supporting documents. The form also required an affidavit confirming the debt, the documents relied on, and any satisfaction or security received, together with verification and signature requirements. The form was later omitted.

Proof of claim by workman or employee requires prescribed particulars, supporting documents, declaration, and verified disclosure of set-off details.
Proof of claim by a workman or employee under the insolvency resolution process is to be submitted in the prescribed Form D, setting out the claimant's identity, contact details, amount of claim, supporting documents, details of dispute or pending proceedings, date and manner in which the claim arose, any mutual credit or mutual dealings capable of set-off, and bank account particulars for payment under a resolution plan. The form also requires a declaration and verification confirming the debt, reliance on listed documents, the genuineness of those documents, and disclosure of any satisfaction or security received, subject to set-off details where applicable.

Proof of claim by employee: submission requirements, supporting affidavit, set-off disclosure and bank details for insolvency resolution.
A workman or employee files a proof of claim (Form D) under Regulation 9 to the Interim Resolution Professional/Resolution Professional, providing identity, contact details, total claim amount including interest as at the fast track commencement date, particulars of claim origin, documentary evidence, disputes or proceedings, any mutual dealings subject to set-off, and bank account details for transfer under a resolution plan. The claim must be signed by the claimant or authorised representative and accompanied by an affidavit affirming indebtedness, listing relied documents, disclosing any prior satisfaction or security, and a verification sworn before an appropriate officer.

Government purchase certificate: Form D documents purchases by government from unregistered sellers, listing order, challan and issuing officer.
Form 'D' prescribes a certificate format for Government purchases when the Government is not a registered dealer, comprising counterfoil, duplicate and original; it must identify the issuing Government entity and ministry, the seller, and record purchase order, challan and bill particulars, and be dated and signed with designation and seal by the authorised Government officer for submission to the prescribed authority.

Bankruptcy commencement notice calls creditors to submit claims to the bankruptcy trustee by the prescribed deadline; false claims penalised.
Notice requires creditors named in the application to submit a claim with proof of the debt to the appointed bankruptcy trustee by the deadline (the date falling seven days from the public announcement); provides trustee contact and registration details; permits electronic or postal submission; warns that false or misleading claims will attract penalties or imprisonment under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016.

Withdrawal of insolvency resolution for a personal guarantor permitted when creditors approve and costs are secured by guarantee.
Application to discontinue an insolvency resolution process for a personal guarantor requires identification of the admitted petition, specification of the statutory basis of the original filing, confirmation that the creditor body has approved the withdrawal, an affirmative statement that the applicant or authorised representative submits the request, and attachment of a bank guarantee to secure estimated costs incurred by the resolution professional.

Indirect foreign investment reporting: Form DI filing required for FOCC investments and downstream investment vehicles.
Report indirect foreign investment by an FOCC or by a downstream Investment Vehicle under FEMA using Form DI. File within thirty days of allotment of shares, CCDs, CCPS, warrants or partly paid shares. Disclose investor type, name and address, date of investment, amount in rupees, instrument type and number of shares on a fully diluted basis.

Dealer information filing requirement: registered DVAT dealers must submit online Form DP-1 detailing profile and transactions.
All dealers registered under the DVAT Act as on 31-03-2013 must submit online Form DP-1, a dealer profile requiring TIN and registration details, business nature and constitution, composition scheme election and tax rate, annual turnover categories and turnover history, PAN and proprietor particulars, other registrations, principal and branch addresses with area and contact details, bank account information, and lists of commodities, storage facilities, managers, interested persons and securities; the form concludes with counsel details and a verification/authorized-signatory declaration.

Depository receipts: Domestic custodians must file Form DRR with RBI detailing issuer, equity changes, and listing.
Form DRR requires the Domestic Custodian arranging issue/transfer of Depository Receipts to submit to the Reserve Bank of India detailed information including custodian and issuer identification, NIC activity code, sponsor status and manager details, FIPB approval and sectoral cap applicability, and full pre- and post-issue equity breakdown showing resident and non-resident holdings (with list of foreign holders above 10 percent), percentage non-resident equity, repatriation/utilisation of proceeds, number and ratio of DRs, funds-banking details abroad, listing/trading platform particulars, launch date, and certification by a chartered accountant and authorised signatory.

Proof of claim by workman or employee requires identity, debt details, supporting records, set-off disclosures, and affidavit verification.
The proof of claim format for a workman or employee under the liquidation process regulations prescribes the particulars to be furnished to the liquidator, including identity details, address, amount claimed, supporting documents, dispute particulars, how the claim arose, mutual dealings, and bank account information for transfer of liquidation proceeds. It also requires an affidavit affirming the debt, the documents relied on, the genuineness of those documents, and the absence of satisfaction or security except any stated set-off material, followed by verification by the deponent.

Annual professional fee disclosure: insolvency professionals must report fees and remit payable amounts to the Board.
Insolvency professionals must file Form E as an annual statement disclosing professional fees earned (whether received or not) by listing each debtor, the role performed (IRP, RP, liquidator, trustee or other), individual fees and a consolidated total; specify amounts payable to the Board under Regulation 7(2)(ca) and interest under Regulation 15 if applicable; confirm deposit of the calculated sum into the Board's account; and provide a signed affirmation that the information is true, correct and not materially suppressed, together with registration number, place and date.

Proof of claim for workmen and employees in voluntary liquidation requires debt details, supporting documents, and disclosure of set-off.
Proof of claim by an authorised representative of workmen or employees in voluntary liquidation is made in Form E. The form requires the representative to state that the corporate person remains indebted for wages, remuneration, and other employment-related dues, disclose any satisfaction, security, mutual credits, mutual debts, or other set-off, and attach particulars of disputes, pending proceedings, supporting documents, and a schedule of employees or workmen with evidence of debt, together with an affidavit and verification.

SEZ Developer reporting requires periodic disclosure of land, imports, consumption, stock reconciliation and infrastructure progress.
Form E requires an SEZ Developer/Co developer to report to the Development Commissioner: identification and approval details; authorized operations; land particulars including total and processing areas and development status; cumulative and current imports/procurements, consumption, and closing stock reconciliation; infrastructure developed in processing and non processing areas; and a narrative on overall project implementation, signed by the Developer/Co developer.