Appeal to Central Government under SEBI Act: prescribes form, grounds, supporting documents and filing fee requirement.
Prescribed Form of Appeal to the Secretary, Department of Economic Affairs requires appellant identification, citation of the impugned SEBI order and relevant rules or regulations, a brief statement of facts, grounds of appeal, enclosure of the Board's order and supporting documents, a prayer stating relief sought, signature of the appellant or authorised representative, and confirmation of payment of the appeal filing fee with receipt particulars.

Excise Control Code allotment confirms new ECC and location code, instructs duty deposits via nominated banks.
Form notifies allotment or replacement of an Excise Control Code (ECC) Number, states the assigned Location Code for the premises, and directs deposit of Central Excise duties and related dues into authorised branches of the nominated banks; signed by the Deputy/Assistant Commissioner of Central Excise or Deputy/Assistant Director, DGICCE with official seal, date and place.

Warehoused goods removal form records import, warehousing, transport, receipt, and verification for transfer or export.
The prescribed form for removal of warehoused goods records import and warehousing details, the goods' description, packages, quantity, value, and the purpose of removal, including transfer to another warehouse or export. It requires bond officer permission and the owner's signature. Despatch and receipt entries must record transport, container and one-time-lock details, receipt timing, matching transport registration, and lock integrity, with authentication by the relevant warehouse keeper, bond officer and proper officer.

Authorised Importer applications require compliance undertakings, importer credentials, warehouse details, manufacturing goods information, and a designated nodal person.
Applications for Authorised Importer status seek the facility for on-arrival movement, storage and clearance at authorised importer premises, subject to an undertaking to comply with the applicable regulations and related circulars and public notices. The prescribed form requires importer and Authorised Economic Operator details, designated warehouse information, available facilities, proposed resultant goods with tariff heading and sector, and senior-management nodal-person contact details. It must be signed, dated and completed with the signatory's name, designation and place.

Annual Report requirements mandate disclosures on board functions, transactional outcomes, financials and organisational governance.
The form prescribes the Annual Report contents: a Chairperson's statement and year in review; detailed account of policies, programmes and activities for Service Providers and transactional domains (corporate and individual insolvency and bankruptcy); advocacy, awareness, research; review of the Board's quasi legislative/executive/quasi judicial functions; analysis of transactional outcomes and efficiencies; summary data for the Code's operation; impact assessment on credit markets and the economy; assessment of Board effectiveness and Governing Board performance; financial performance summary; statement of statutory non compliance; and organisational matters including HR, finance, audit and transparency.

Rupee and foreign currency drawing arrangements: prescribed application, documentation and certification requirements for correspondent banking links.
The prescribed application process requires AD Category I banks to submit a signed form to the Reserve Bank of India requesting permission to enter into Rupee/Foreign Currency Drawing Arrangements with an Exchange House, accompanied by specified documentary evidence (licences, AML compliance certificate, confidential opinions, audited financials, board resolution and the Exchange House's proposal). The form is divided into three parts: Part A on the applicant bank and existing arrangements; Part B on detailed particulars of the Exchange House including management, licences, financials and collateral; and Part C on the proposed arrangement's description, procedure, turnover projections, branch coverage and collateral terms, together with a managerial certification of adequacy of controls and veracity of information.

Coastal cargo vessel reporting requires detailed consignment particulars and master certification based on shipper declarations of correctness.
Coastal cargo vessel reporting requires vessel, port, package and cargo particulars, including shipper and consignee details, goods description, transport identifiers, discharge port and weight. The master of the vessel or authorised agent must certify that the information is true to the best of their knowledge and belief, conforms to the buyer or consignee contract, and has been collected from shippers with declarations certifying its correctness.

Bill of Entry for uncleared goods requires sale-price valuation, duty details, additional excise-equivalent duty, and port authentication.
Bill of Entry for uncleared goods is a sale-list form for recording package particulars, quantity or weight, description, marks and numbers, fair price, and the sale price used for duty calculation. It requires customs duty rates and amounts, additional duty equivalent to excise duty, total duty, any additional information, and authentication by a Port Trust official.

Monthly return requirements for exempted establishments cover employee strength, pension contributions, investments, pensioners, and fund rule compliance.
A monthly return is prescribed for exempted establishments, classes of establishments, or boards of trustees, requiring disclosure of establishment particulars, employee strength, board constitution, wages and pension contributions, pensioners, exit cases, investment position, mode of disbursement, and any amendments to pension fund rules. The form also records arrears, belated-transfer interest, investment pattern, annuity purchases, and cash or bank balances, together with confirmation of rule changes to align with the statutory pension scheme.

Warehouse goods removal documentation requires dispatch particulars, recipient verification of transport and lock integrity, and authenticated receipt records.
Warehouse goods removal documentation requires a prescribed form recording dispatch warehouse particulars, goods details, removal purpose, and transport information. Goods may be removed for deposit in another warehouse or for export through a specified customs station. The recipient must record receipt details, verify the transport registration against dispatch particulars, confirm one-time-lock integrity, and authenticate the form.

Customs offence compounding requires full disclosure, payment undertaking, and verified particulars; compounding remains unavailable as a matter of right.
Applications for compounding customs offences must identify the applicant, jurisdictional authority, alleged Customs Act violation, related import, export or adjudication records, and the status of seizure, show cause and adjudication proceedings. The applicant must disclose liabilities and payments of duty, export incentives, fine, penalty and interest, prior offences, and proceedings under other laws. The applicant undertakes to pay the compounding amount fixed by the compounding authority, acknowledges that compounding is not a right, and verifies the completeness and accuracy of all particulars and supporting records.

Passenger clearance of bonded gold or silver requires identity verification, duty assessment, payment certification, customs release, delivery and audit recording.
Clearance of gold or silver from a customs bonded warehouse by a passenger requires a Bill of Entry containing passenger, travel and goods particulars and an application for clearance under the Customs Act, 1962. Customs verifies passport particulars, assesses duty, and confirms eligibility under the relevant exemption notification. Duty payment is certified by the bank counter before goods are passed out of customs charge and delivered by the warehouse keeper. Audit records any short or excess duty recovery.

Online exemption returns require monthly employee, insurance, assurance-benefit and grievance reporting, with restricted editing of verified exemption data.
Exempted establishments must submit online returns containing establishment and exemption particulars, insurance-provider and policy details, and monthly information on employees, claims, assurance-benefit payments and grievances. Monthly employee entries include joiners, exits, closing strength, deaths in service and claim pendency; joiner and exit figures must correspond with the electronic contribution record. Part C is available only after completion of Parts A and B. Certain saved data remain non-editable, including verified tax identification details and exemption notification selections and particulars linked to the effective date of exemption.

Quarterly concessional-duty returns track imported goods, intended use, manufacture, exports, domestic clearances, and closing inventory.
Quarterly returns for concessional-duty imports recorded Bills of Entry, imported goods, opening balances, goods received by value and quantity, and the specified procurement purpose. They also required reporting of manufactured goods, intended use, exports with ARE-1 or ARE-2 details, quantities consumed, re-exported or cleared into the domestic market, and closing balances. Separate entries applied to each variety or class of imported goods used and goods manufactured.

Warehoused goods movement requires prescribed dispatch, transport, lock-verification and receipt records for transfers or export from licensed warehouses.
Movement of warehoused goods from a section 58A licensed warehouse is recorded in a prescribed form. The dispatch section captures import, warehousing, goods, removal-purpose and transport details, including any one-time lock, and is authenticated by the dispatching licensee or warehouse keeper and bond officer. The receipt section records receipt time, verifies matching transport registration and lock integrity, and is signed by the recipient licensee, warehouse keeper or proper officer at the customs station of export.

Packing machine capacity declaration required; duty liability attaches and additions or removals need supervisory control.
The form requires a declaration by pan masala and gutkha manufacturers listing single track and multiple track packing machines, their installation and intended operation, machine identification and maximum packing speeds relative to notified retail sale prices, factory locations and ground plans showing machine allocation. It mandates undertakings to pay additional excise duty if particulars are incorrect, to ensure additions or removals of machines occur under Central Excise Officer supervision, and to comply with the Pan Masala Packing Machines (Capacity Determination And Collection Of Duty) Rules, 2008.

Declaration requirement for tobacco packing machines establishes manufacturer particulars and undertakings to ensure capacity determination and duty compliance.
Form-1 mandates that manufacturers supply identifying and premises details, inventory and operational intentions for single-track and multiple-track packing machines (available, installed, and to be operated), machine identification and maximum packing speeds for production of pouches with and without lime tube across retail denominations, goods descriptions and retail price denominations, and a factory ground plan allocating machines by denomination. It requires a signed declaration undertaking truthfulness, payment of additional excise duty if particulars are incorrect, supervised addition/removal of machines by Central Excise Officer, and agreement to comply with the Rules.

Duty compliance for pan masala and gutkha: manufacturers must file monthly payment intimations with machine capacity and duty apportionment.
Manufacturers of pan masala and gutkha must submit a monthly Form 2 intimation showing retail sale price categories, the number of packing machines and their maximum packing speeds for each RSP, and full duty payment particulars (date, bank/branch, challan) together with a break up of duty apportioned among component levies according to prescribed duty ratios; the form must be signed by the manufacturer or authorised agent and include place and date.

Duty payment intimation: monthly declaration must show cash payments and CENVAT credit allocation across duty components.
Manufacturer must submit a monthly declaration identifying premises and ECC, state Retail Sale Price(s) and number of packing machines, and confirm payment of duty. Payment particulars must detail cash payments and utilisation of CENVAT credit in a prescribed table showing opening balance, credit availed, credit utilised with dates and closing balance for each duty component. A prescribed breakup allocates cash payments across central excise duty, additional excise duty, national calamity contingent duty, education cess and secondary and higher education cess. Bank challans must be enclosed and the form signed by the manufacturer or authorised agent.

Authorised courier registration requires applicant, personnel, customs-law competence, operational history, and disclosure of penalties or prosecutions.
Authorised courier registration requires disclosure of the applicant's identity, PAN, address, existing registration status, cargo-clearance history, and any suspension or cancellation of registration. Partners, directors, authorised employees and proposed clerks engaged in courier work must be identified, with their qualifications and knowledge of Customs law and procedure. The applicant must disclose relevant penalties, convictions or prosecutions involving itself or proposed employees and affirm compliance with the Courier Imports and Exports (Clearance) Regulations, 1998.

Firm registration requires prescribed partnership particulars and sworn affirmation; false statements attract statutory penalty upon application submission.
Form A requires submission of prescribed partnership particulars: firm name; nature of business; principal and other business locations with exact addresses; full residential addresses of all partners; dates partners joined; firm duration or 'AT WILL' statement; and particulars of minors admitted to benefits with guardian details and dates. The application must include the prescribed fee, be signed by all partners or authorised agents on solemn affirmation before an empowered officer, and be certified by an attesting witness. False or incomplete statements are punishable under the Act.

Refund of service tax for exported goods requires shipping bill wise claims, supporting invoices, and no CENVAT credit.
Form A-1 prescribes the application and documentary requirements to claim a refund of service tax paid on specified services used in export of goods: exporter identification and registration, shipping bill wise details of exported goods, particulars of specified services and service providers with invoices and service tax registration, bank details for refund, computation of service tax claimed (figures and as percentage of FOB), and a declaration including that no CENVAT credit has been taken and that records will be maintained and produced for inspection.

Change of firm details: prescribed notification and solemn affirmation required for name, business nature, or principal place updates.
Form B prescribes notification of changes to a partnership's registered particulars-firm name, nature of business, or principal place of business-requiring specification of new particulars and effective date; it must be signed by all partners or their specially authorised agents on solemn affirmation before an officer empowered to administer oaths, include a declaration that no other changes have occurred, and be certified by a witness, with inapplicable items struck out.

Change of partner name or address: file Form D with solemn affirmation and authorised officer certification to update registration.
Filing Form D records a partner's change of name or permanent address by specifying former and new particulars with the dates of change; the notice must be signed on solemn affirmation by a partner or authorised agent, certified by a witness, and affirmed before an officer empowered to administer oaths, with a declaration that no other previously notified particulars have changed.

Notice of Change of Firm Constitution requires solemn affirmation and partner signatures to notify changes or dissolution.
Form E notifies changes in partnership composition or dissolution by recording partners joining, retiring, or the firm's dissolution with pertinent particulars and dates. It requires signing by every partner or an agent specially authorised, executed on solemn affirmation before a Magistrate or other officer empowered to administer oaths, and includes certification where the signatory is not conversant with English. Non-applicable items must be struck out and dates given according to the English calendar; a sole remaining partner renders the firm dissolved.

Election by minor to become partner requires a formal notice, solemn affirmation, and witness certification upon majority.
Procedure for a person admitted as a minor to partnership benefits to notify election on attaining majority: identify firm and person, state date of majority and express election to become or not to become a partner effective from a specified date, declare no other changes except as notified, and sign the notice on solemn affirmation before a magistrate or authorised officer with witness certification of signature and affirmation.

Oath for National Company Law Appellate Tribunal members requiring faithful, conscientious discharge of duties without fear, favour, affection or ill-will.
Form I prescribes that a Chairperson or member shall affirm or swear that they will "faithfully and conscientiously discharge" their duties to the best of their ability, knowledge and judgment, and do so "without fear or favour, affection or ill-will." The form requires signature, name, designation and entry of date and place as the attestation for assumption of office.

Oath of secrecy for National Company Law Appellate Tribunal members bars disclosure except for duty-related purposes.
Form prescribes an oath of secrecy for Chairperson and Members of the National Company Law Appellate Tribunal: they must not directly or indirectly communicate or reveal any matter brought under their consideration or becoming known to them in that capacity, except as required for the due discharge of their official duties; the form records signature, name, designation, date and place.

National Company Law Appellate Tribunal appointment: appointee affirms absence of prejudicial financial or other interests.
An appointee to serve as Chairperson or Member of the National Company Law Appellate Tribunal must solemnly affirm that they do not possess, and will not in future acquire, any financial or other interest likely to prejudicially affect their functioning in that office, by signing the prescribed Form III which records name, designation, date and place.

Notice of change of business address under partnership law requires specified location particulars and sworn partner affirmation.
Notice under section 61 requires a partnership to notify discontinuance and commencement of business places by filing Form C, stating exact locations and effective dates; discontinued places must not include the principal place of business. The notice must be signed and solemnly affirmed by a partner or authorised agent, specifying paragraphs true from personal knowledge and those on information and belief, and must be affirmed before and certified by an officer empowered to administer oaths.

Advance ruling on service tax application: prescribed procedural requirements and specified questions govern classification, valuation and liability determinations.
The prescribed Form AAR (ST I) requires applicants to provide detailed identification and status, documentary proof of joint venture or foreign holding where relevant, the nature and present status of the service, registration and tax identifiers, and to specify the question(s) for advance ruling falling within defined categories such as classification, valuation, applicability of notifications, admissibility of credit and liability. Applicants must submit a statement of relevant facts, a statement of their legal interpretation, attach supporting documents, verify the application, and pay the prescribed fee.

Bank certificate of credited transactions for a corporate debtor enables insolvency code statutory verification of account credits.
Form 5A is a bank/financial institution certificate under the insolvency code framework that, on request, records and certifies dates and amounts of credits posted in the prescribed three year period to a specified account on behalf of a named corporate debtor, and must be signed and dated by the issuing authority with branch and account identification.

Foreign asset disclosure requires category-wise valuation, payment computation, supporting evidence, and verified reporting of omitted overseas assets and income.
Form 1 requires disclosure of specified foreign assets and income, with declarant details, asset or income classification, acquisition year, residential status, supporting evidence and annexure-based asset particulars. Fair market value must be aggregated by category, with the prescribed amount payable calculated at 60 per cent for undisclosed foreign assets and income and a prescribed fee for specified omitted foreign assets. Indexed acquisition cost is deemed fair market value where no valuation is carried out. Verification requires certification of correctness, completeness and compliance with the specified exclusion provision.

Corporate insolvency resolution application: regulator must submit Form One with prescribed particulars, proposed administrator, and annexures.
An appropriate regulator must submit Form One under Rule 5 to initiate a corporate insolvency resolution process, providing the regulator's and authorised representatives' particulars, the financial service provider's identification, incorporation and capital details, registered office, the proposed Administrator's name and contact, and particulars of default. The application must include annexures: all referenced documents, the proposed Administrator's written consent to act as interim resolution professional, and proof of payment of the application fee, together with required authorisations for submission and service.

Declaration under Section 94 enables settlement of contested service tax arrears through the Dispute Resolution Scheme, 2008.
Form 1 prescribes the declaration under section 94 of the Finance Act, 2008 for the Dispute Resolution Scheme, 2008, requiring declarant details, STC and premises codes, and an itemised table of contested matters including show cause/demand notices, orders in original or on appeal, tax arrears (service tax, education cesses, interest, penalty), the amount proposed for settlement, and particulars of any writs or appeals. The declarant must verify correctness and non disqualification under section 93 and submit the form to the Central Excise Officer designated under section 92(b), with specified instructions on documentary evidence and completion.

Direct Tax Dispute Resolution Scheme form requires declarant details, computing amounts payable and proof of withdrawal or pendency of proceedings.
The declaration form under the Direct Tax Dispute Resolution Scheme requires declarant identity, PAN and assessment details, itemised particulars of appeals or penalty orders as of 29-2-2016, and computation of amounts payable under section 202 including outstanding tax, interest and an added 25% of minimum penalty where applicable; it also records pendency or withdrawal of judicial or alternative dispute resolution proceedings and includes a verification clause certifying correctness and non-disqualification.

Customs baggage declaration required disclosure of dutiable and restricted imports, Red Channel reporting, and compliance with duty-free allowances.
Customs baggage declaration required arriving passengers to disclose travel details, dutiable goods and specified imported items, including prohibited articles, excess gold, currency, plant or animal products, satellite phones, flat-panel televisions and drones. Passengers answering affirmatively were required to report through the Red Channel. The form described prohibited imports, duty-free baggage allowances based on passenger category and travel origin, and duty on goods exceeding the applicable allowance. Customs officers could question passengers and examine their personal property. The form was subsequently superseded.

Income Declaration Scheme requires declared undisclosed income, tax at 30% plus surcharge and penalty, and asset verification.
Form 1 prescribes the declaration procedure under Section 183 for the Income Declaration Scheme, 2016, requiring declarant particulars, assessment years, and a detailed annexure statement of undisclosed income by asset category with required valuation reports. It sets computation of tax and charges (tax at 30%, surcharge 25% of tax, penalty 25% of tax), records of payments, and balance payable. The verification requires sworn accuracy, exclusions for certain offences, disclosure of searches/notices, and a benami transfer condition to preserve immunity.

Administrator appointment consent in insolvency proceedings, requiring disclosure of concurrent appointments, disciplinary status, and conflicts of interest.
Form 2 requires the Administrator to agree to appointment if the application is admitted; disclose concurrent roles as interim resolution professional, resolution professional or liquidator; certify no disciplinary proceedings are pending with the Board or relevant regulator; and either state absence of any conflict of interest or specify existing interests that constitute a conflict.

Foreign asset disclosure payment orders require timely payment, permit limited delayed payment with interest, and void unpaid declarations.
Form 2 records the amount payable on a Form 1 declaration under the Foreign Assets of Small Taxpayers Disclosure Scheme. It requires details and fair market values of declared foreign assets or income, aggregation of values, applicable fee, and the total sum payable. Payment must be made within two months from the end of the month of certificate receipt. Delayed payment is permitted for a further limited period with interest at one per cent per month or part thereof. Non-payment within that extended period voids the declaration.

Full and final settlement certificate confirms payment and grants immunity from penalty under the statutory scheme, subject to conditions.
Certificate under the Dispute Resolution Scheme, 2008 certifies receipt of payment by a declarant as full and final settlement of determined tax arrears and grants penalty immunity, subject to the Scheme's provisions. The certificate requires withdrawal and proof of withdrawal of any writ, appeal or reference where applicable and is issued and signed by the designated authority for communication to the declarant and relevant tax officers and appellate bodies.

Waiver of rights under the Direct Tax Dispute Resolution Scheme bars pursuit of domestic or international tax remedies.
The undertaking under the Direct Tax Dispute Resolution Scheme, 2016 is a voluntary and irrevocable declaration whereby the taxpayer or an authorised representative waives all rights in respect of specified tax, direct or indirect, to seek or pursue any remedy or claim under domestic law, equity, statute or international agreements. The form requires signature, place, designation, address and PAN and must be furnished with the declaration in Form 1 to the Designated Authority.

Payment Schedule for Income Declaration Scheme requires staged instalments; non-payment voids the declaration, with tax surcharge and penalty components.
Form 2 records the designated authority's determination of the amount payable for declared undisclosed income, itemising components (tax, surcharge, penalty) and reasons for differences, and directs staged payment by prescribed instalments with defined deadlines; non-payment as directed causes the declaration to be void and deemed never made.

Payment intimation for foreign asset disclosures records instalments, delayed-payment interest, challan details, and declarant certification requirements.
Form 3 under rule 7 enables a declarant to intimate payments made under the Foreign Assets of Small Taxpayers Disclosure Scheme, 2026 pursuant to a Form 2 order. It records the amount payable, initial due date, payments made, outstanding amount, delayed-payment interest and challan particulars. Additional interest at one per cent per month applies to outstanding amounts beyond the initial two-month period, subject to a maximum of two additional months. Payments may be made in instalments, and the declarant must certify the correctness and completeness of the information.

Tax settlement under Direct Tax Dispute Resolution Scheme requires payment within thirty days or the declaration is void.
Form 3 certifies that, after receipt of a declaration under section 202, the designated authority has determined the amounts payable by the declarant towards full and final settlement of tax arrears or specified tax under the Direct Tax Dispute Resolution Scheme, and directs payment of the sum within thirty days; non-payment within that period renders the declaration void.

Payment intimation under Income Declaration Scheme requires Form Three with bank codes, challan serials and TDS/TCS credit details.
Intimation under the Income Declaration Scheme requires submission of Form 3 listing payments with bank BSR codes, deposit dates, challan serial numbers and amounts, attachment of proof of payment, and a separate schedule for claiming TDS/TCS credit supported by TDS/TCS certificates. The form also requires a verified declaration by the declarant or authorized signatory affirming inclusion of TDS/TCS-related income in the declared income and that such credit was not earlier claimed.

Direct Tax Dispute Resolution Scheme payment intimation to Designated Authority requiring bank challan details and proof of payment.
The form requires a declarant to notify the Designated Authority of payments under section 204(2) of the Finance Act, 2016 pursuant to the Direct Tax Dispute Resolution Scheme, 2016, referencing the certificate issued in Form 3 and identifying the declarant by name, address, PAN and assessment year. It mandates detailed bank payment particulars (BSR code, deposit date, challan serial number and amount) and attachment of proof of payment, and records filing particulars including certificate reference, place, signature, date, designation and address.

Foreign asset disclosure certification validates declarations after full payment and grants conditional immunity from further tax, penalties and prosecution.
Form 4 records declarant details, the amount determined as payable, applicable interest and the total payment made. On payment of the determined amount and delayed-payment interest, the competent income-tax authority certifies payment towards full and final settlement and certifies the validity of the Form 1 declaration. Subject to applicable conditions, immunity applies against further tax, penalty and prosecution concerning undisclosed foreign income and assets. Form 1, Form 2 and Form 3 must be annexed together when Form 4 is issued.

Income Declaration Scheme certificate records accepted undisclosed income, payable tax liabilities, and benami property transfer obligation.
Form 4 certifies acceptance of a declaration under the Income Declaration Scheme, 2016, recording declarant identity, PAN, receipt details, assessment year, undisclosed income accepted, asset descriptions, and liabilities (tax, surcharge, penalty and total). It records tax payment particulars and conditions issuance of the certificate on full payment. The form requires the declarant to furnish proof of transfer of benami property to the real owner by the prescribed deadline or forfeit immunity under the Benami Transactions (Prohibition) Act, 1988.

Direct Tax Dispute Resolution Scheme: payment certified and immunity granted for disputed tax upon full settlement.
Certification that the declarant has paid the sum determined by the designated authority under the Direct Tax Dispute Resolution Scheme, 2016 toward full and final settlement of specified tax arrear; the certificate records assessment year, appeal reference, disputed income and disputed tax and, subject to the Scheme's provisions, grants immunity from prosecution or penalty under the Income-tax Act/Wealth-tax Act in respect of the specified disputed tax/disputed income.

Full and final settlement under the Direct Tax Dispute Resolution Scheme grants immunity after payment and withdrawal of proceedings.
Order certifying that, following a declaration under the Scheme, the designated authority determined the specified tax and payable sum, the declarant paid that sum, withdrew any judicial or alternative dispute proceedings with proof, and furnished the prescribed undertaking; the order then certifies payment and grants immunity, subject to the Scheme, from prosecution or penalty in respect of the disputed tax/disputed income and lists assessment year, appeal reference, disputed income and disputed tax particulars.

Initiation of personal guarantor insolvency: Form A requirements and documentary evidence to commence resolution proceedings.
Application by a personal guarantor to initiate insolvency resolution is made on Form A, requiring detailed personal particulars, asset listings with identification of excluded assets, creditor wise debt particulars including security and retention of title details, and a statement that claimed debts exclude specified categories. The form demands documentary proof of debts, a recent statement of affairs covering assets, liabilities, guarantees and financials, and, where applicable, a resolution professional's registration, disclosures and consent to act. The guarantor must declare and verify the truthfulness of the application and attach prescribed supporting documents.

Insolvency professional agency registration requires detailed corporate, governance, financial and compliance disclosures for approval.
Application for grant or renewal of registration as an insolvency professional agency requires an authorised submission with declarations of truthfulness and undertaking to comply with the Code and Board requirements; enclosure of constitutional documents; and detailed annexed disclosures on corporate identity, conformity of bye-laws, shareholding and financial strength, control and fit-and-proper status of significant persons, board and employee particulars, infrastructure for agency functions, and, for renewals, compliance, reporting and grievance particulars.

Claim form under inspection and investigation regulations omitted, after earlier requiring identity, loss details, computation and verification.
Form A prescribed under Regulation 14(3) for a claim under an order under section 220(4) of the Code was omitted with effect from 02-06-2026. The earlier form required the claimant's name and address, identity particulars, bank remittance details, an explanation of loss suffered on account of the contravention, computation of loss, and verification of truth and completeness, with notarisation for claims above the stated threshold.

Refund of CENVAT Credit: procedure for claiming and crediting unutilised input credit under partial reverse charge.
Refund of CENVAT credit under Rule 5B provides that service providers who render services subject to partial reverse charge must itemise output services, values, tax liabilities and compute the refundable amount as the lesser of the receiver's service tax liability and unutilised CENVAT credit on inputs or input services; applicants must debit their CENVAT account, supply bank details, attach ST-3 returns, make prescribed declarations, and submit the form for scrutiny, sanction and accounting by Central Excise authorities.

Fast Track Insolvency commencement: creditors must submit proofs to the interim resolution professional within the prescribed period.
The public announcement under Regulation 6 requires disclosure of the corporate debtor's identifying particulars, the fast track commencement date, estimated closure date, and the interim resolution professional's contact and registration details. Creditors are called to submit proofs of claim to the interim resolution professional within the prescribed period from appointment; financial creditors must submit electronically while other creditors may use prescribed modes. The announcement warns that false or misleading proofs of claim will attract penalties and provides for the interim resolution professional's signature.

Bankruptcy petition by guarantor requires comprehensive disclosure and nomination of an insolvency professional to initiate the prescribed bankruptcy process.
Form A is the prescribed application by a personal guarantor to initiate the bankruptcy process and requires full identification, asset inventories with excluded assets identified, creditor-wise particulars of secured and unsecured debts including dates and amounts in default, and affirmation regarding excluded categories of debt. The application permits nomination of an insolvency professional who must declare eligibility and submit disclosures. Mandatory attachments include prior insolvency records, guarantee contracts, tax returns, bankers' books, statement of affairs and supporting financial and title documents.

Stakeholder consultation reporting form in liquidation process covers meeting details, agenda items, and liquidation-related disclosures before omission.
Form A was a proforma for reporting consultations with stakeholders in liquidation proceedings under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (Liquidation Process) Regulations, 2016. The earlier form required details of the liquidator, corporate debtor, liquidation case, stakeholder, consultation date, communications received, and a summary of consultation. A later substituted version expanded the reporting format to cover meeting details and agenda items such as remuneration of professionals, sale process, liquidator's fees, valuation, litigation status, preliminary report, avoidance and wrongful trading proceedings, liquidation cost, extension of payment time, continuation of business, early dissolution, and other agenda items, before being omitted.

Resolution professional consent form required eligibility, disclosure duties, and confirmation of no disciplinary proceedings before appointment.
Written consent by an insolvency professional to act as resolution professional required confirmation of registration, absence of disciplinary proceedings or disqualification, eligibility under the applicable regulations, and disclosure of current insolvency-related assignments. The proposed appointee was also required to declare compliance with the code of conduct and disclosure obligations. The form was later omitted.

Corporate insolvency public announcement sets claim filing deadlines, submission modes, and penalty exposure for false proofs of claim.
Public announcement under Regulation 6 for commencement of the corporate insolvency resolution process requires notice to creditors of the corporate debtor and sets out the relevant particulars to be published, including the identity of the debtor, insolvency commencement date, estimated closure date, and details of the interim resolution professional. Creditors are called upon to submit claims with proof within the prescribed period to the interim resolution professional, with financial creditors required to file electronically only and other creditors permitted to use person, post, or electronic modes.

Information utility registration form requires disclosures on ownership, governance, infrastructure, compliance, and fit and proper status.
Application for grant or renewal of certificate of registration as an information utility required details on the applicant's identity, constitutional documents, ownership and control, financial strength, directors and employees, infrastructure, business plan, exit management plan, and fit and proper status of key persons. The form also required declarations of truth, non-suppression of material facts, and acknowledgment that registration may be summarily cancelled if information is false or misleading. For renewal, compliance with the certificate conditions and the Code, rules, regulations, guidelines and directions had to be provided.

Registration as an insolvency professional requires enrolment, pre registration course completion, documentation and IPA verification.
Application for registration as an insolvency professional sets out a tripartite process: the applicant must supply identification, qualifications, insolvency examination and pre-registration course completion, work experience, disclosures of convictions/disciplinary or insolvency history and specified attachments; the professional member must confirm enrolment, course completion and fee payment; and the insolvency professional agency must verify eligibility, disciplinary and criminal records, DIN/DPIN and regulatory databases and recommend registration to the Board.

Bankruptcy trustee consent form requires eligibility declarations, disclosures, and written acceptance from an insolvency professional.
Written consent is required from an insolvency professional proposed to be appointed as bankruptcy trustee in the bankruptcy process for personal guarantors to corporate debtors. The form captures the professional's consent and declarations of registration, absence of disciplinary proceedings, no disqualification or disability to act as trustee, and eligibility under the applicable regulations and the Code. It also requires disclosure of processes in hand, including appointments as interim resolution professional, resolution professional, liquidator, bankruptcy trustee, authorised representative, and any other role stated by the professional.

Central Sales Tax registration requires detailed business, place-of-business and inter-state goods particulars for certificate issuance.
Application for a certificate of registration under Central Sales Tax on Form A requires identification of the dealer and manager, applicant's status, principal and other business premises and warehouses in the State, and places of business in other States. The form seeks existing registration/licence details, ownership and partner particulars with extent of interest, commencement and first inter state sale dates, accounting year and frequency, nature of business, classes of goods purchased in inter state trade and their uses, manufacturing or power generation particulars where applicable, and a signed declaration.

Voluntary liquidation notice requires Form A particulars, stakeholder claims deadlines, and electronic filing by financial creditors.
Voluntary liquidation requires a public announcement in Form A containing prescribed particulars of the corporate person, the liquidation commencement date, the liquidator's contact details, and the last date for submission of claims. Stakeholders are called upon to submit proof of claims to the liquidator within the specified time period. Financial creditors must submit claims electronically, while other stakeholders may use in person, post, or electronic modes. False or misleading proofs of claim attract penalties.

Professional membership certificate confirms enrollment in insolvency professional agency and period of validity issued under bye law authority.
The Certificate of Professional Membership issued under bye law 10 attests that a named individual is enrolled as a professional member of a specified insolvency professional agency and records the agency assigned membership number; it specifies the certificate's date of validity, contains an authorised signature block for the agency, and identifies place and date of issuance as the agency's formal attestation of enrollment and membership status.

Recognition of stock exchange under securities law requires formal application, enclosures, undertakings and detailed governance and trading disclosures.
Application for recognition or renewal of a stock exchange under section 3 of the Securities Contracts (Regulation) Act, 1956 requires submission of Form A with an undertaking to comply with section 4, payment receipt, four copies of rules, memorandum and articles and bye laws, and completion of the Annexure detailing corporate, membership, governing body, trading, clearing, market conduct, disciplinary, listing and fee recovery arrangements.

Special Economic Zone application requirements: prescribed Form A disclosures, financing detail, land possession and compliance undertakings.
Form A prescribes required information for setting up a Special Economic Zone: applicant identity and corporate status; SEZ type and precise location; land ownership or lease details and contiguity; area allocation for processing and non processing uses and proposed infrastructure and operational standards; detailed investment and financing breakdown including equity and foreign direct investment; a project report with export and employment projections for five years; and a mandatory undertaking and affidavit to comply with the Special Economic Zones Act, 2005 and related rules.

CENVAT credit refund: procedure for exporters to claim refund under rule 5 with prescribed calculations and documentation.
Application for refund of CENVAT credit under Rule 5 requires quarterly particulars of exports, total CENVAT credit taken, reversals and net credit, total turnover, and separate computed refund amounts for goods and services using the prescribed formulae. The claimant must provide bank details, declare compliance with Rule 5 and related notifications, confirm no duplicate claims or drawback/rebate claims, attach specified enclosures (customs-certified shipping bills/ARE-1, bank realization certificates, auditor's certificate), and the amount claimed must not exceed the computed refund or available credit; administrative scrutiny and payment posting instructions are provided.

Authorisation for procurement of services enables SEZ units and developers to procure specified registered service providers under service tax rules.
Authorisation enables an SEZ unit or developer to procure specified services for authorised operations, requiring unit identification (name, address, PAN, import-export code, jurisdictional division, service/Central Excise registration) and a schedule of authorised specified services with corresponding service providers and their service tax registration; the document must be signed and stamped by the jurisdictional Deputy/Assistant Commissioner of Central Excise with contact details.

Exemption reporting for SEZ service procurement: quarterly return required listing service providers and exempt service values.
Quarterly return (Form A-3) for SEZ units/developers to report services procured without payment of service tax under the exemption notification, identifying the unit by name, address, PAN, IEC and registration numbers, and listing each exempted service with description, service provider details and registration, invoice number and date, value of service, and service tax plus cess amount claimed, to be signed and dated by an authorised person.

Refund of service tax: procedure to claim reimbursement for specified services used in SEZ, including required particulars and declarations.
Procedure to claim refund of service tax on specified services used for authorised operations in an SEZ: applicants must submit identification (including PAN, IEC, registration), bank account details, and invoice-level particulars in Table I (services exclusively used) or Table II (partially used), with certified documentary copies. The application must disclose previous year turnovers for authorised and DTA operations and include declarations confirming authorized use, payment to service provider, no prior refund or CENVAT credit, and maintenance of supporting accounts, signed by an authorised person.

Ab initio exemption for specified services requires SEZ units to declare exclusive use and maintain accounts, or repay with interest.
Ab initio exemption is claimed via Form A 1 by a SEZ Unit/Developer supplying identification and service registration details, declaring accuracy and maintenance of accounts, and affirming that specified services are used for authorised SEZ operations. The form requires listing specified services and providers, disclosure of any DTA business, and an undertaking to repay exempted amounts with applicable interest if services are not exclusively used for authorised operations. The declaration must be signed by an authorised person and verified by the Specified Officer.

Auditor certificate requirement: refund claims must include auditor certification of export and total turnover compliance under rule 5.
Refund claims must include an auditor certificate under rule 5 of the CENVAT Credit Rules, 2004; the Form A-1 (Annexure A I) requires the auditor to confirm qualification, that the books for the relevant quarter were audited, and that the export turnover and total turnover figures in Form A are correct as per the books and conform to rule 5, with auditor signature and date.

Central excise registration for textile producers requires applicant identification, product and raw material disclosure, and a signed declaration.
The form prescribes information required for central excise registration: legal business name and premises address, PAN if available, authorised person's name and contact, names and addresses of proprietors/partners/principal officers, description of major excisable goods and principal raw materials. It requires an applicant declaration of truth and authority to sign (with all partners signing for unregistered partnerships) and provides an acknowledgment section for issuance or mailing of the registration certificate with the central excise officer's signature and seal.

Central excise registration for hand rolled cheroot manufacturers requires business details, goods and inputs disclosure, declaration and acknowledgement.
Application form for central excise registration of manufacturers of hand rolled cheroots under sub-heading no. 2402.00 requires business status, business and responsible-person details (name, addresses, principal business address, PAN if available), description of excisable goods, and major raw materials/inputs. It mandates a signed declaration by the appropriate responsible person with legible stamp and provides an acknowledgement for issuance of the registration certificate including officer signature and seal.

Approval of co-developer: application requires developer and co-developer details, investment, infrastructure and formal recommendation for SEZ projects.
Application for approval of a co-developer in a Special Economic Zone requires developer and proposed co-developer identification, SEZ type and area, the specific infrastructure or authorised operations and area to be undertaken by the co-developer, proposed investment and net worth, level of developer equity in related entities, presence and enclosure of a developer-co-developer agreement, an applicant declaration accepting conditions and consequences for false statements, and the Development Commissioner's recommendation after examination.

Liberalised Remittance Scheme compliance required for outward remittances, with Form A2 declarations and authorised dealer certification.
Form A2 is the statutory application and declaration for drawal of foreign exchange under FEMA, requiring applicant identification, remittance mode (draft, direct bank transfer, traveller's cheques or currency), and selection of an appropriate purpose code. Remitters under the Liberalised Remittance Scheme must declare compliance with LRS limits and source of funds. The Authorised Dealer must certify eligibility, conformity with Reserve Bank instructions, record AD particulars, and stamp and sign the form for processing and reporting.

Written consent to act as liquidator governed appointment declarations, eligibility confirmations, and disclosure obligations for insolvency professionals.
Written consent to act as liquidator was prescribed in Form AA under regulation 31A of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (Liquidation Process) Regulations, 2016, as the consent document for an insolvency professional proposed by the stakeholders' consultation committee for appointment as liquidator in a corporate debtor's liquidation process. The form was later omitted. The declaration required confirmation of registration, absence of disciplinary proceedings, absence of disability to act as liquidator, eligibility under the Code and regulations, disclosure compliance, and disclosure of processes in hand.

Written consent for resolution professional appointment requires eligibility declarations, disclosure compliance, and processes-in-hand particulars.
Form AA prescribed written consent for an insolvency professional proposed as resolution professional under regulation 3(1A). The form required consent to the appointment, confirmation of registration, absence of disciplinary proceedings or disability, eligibility under the Code and regulations, compliance with disclosure obligations, and disclosure of processes already in hand. It was inserted by notification and later omitted with effect from 02-06-2026.

Registration as insolvency professional requires agency enrolment, statutory compliance and verified affirmations before the regulator.
The form prescribes a unified enrolment and registration process for an entity and its members as an insolvency professional, requiring an authorised application, disclosures on corporate links, insolvency or bankruptcy history, and confirmation that the entity and its partners/directors meet the fit and proper standard and comply with regulations 12 and 13. Applicants must provide attestations, fee payment proof and specified attachments; misrepresentation may lead to summary cancellation or derecognition. The insolvency professional agency must verify details, confirm eligibility and recommend registration to the Board.

Authorised representative consent form under insolvency resolution rules, with disclosure duties and later omission from the framework.
Written consent format prescribed for an insolvency professional to act as authorised representative of financial creditors in a class during the corporate insolvency resolution process under Regulation 4A(3). The form required consent to appointment, declarations regarding registration, absence of disciplinary proceedings, absence of disability to act, an undertaking not to canvass creditors, and disclosure of processes in hand. It was inserted by notification and later omitted with effect from 02-06-2026.

Annual Activity Certificate requirement: auditor-certified accounts and compliance certification must be submitted to the designated AD bank and tax authority.
Annual Activity Certificate requires BO/LO/PO of foreign entities to submit an auditor signed certificate and audited financial statements confirming activities conformed to permissions granted by the Reserve Bank or designated AD Category I bank; project offices must also certify project status and attest that no inter project fund transfers occurred without prior Reserve Bank approval. The AAC and audited accounts must be filed with the designated AD Category I bank and a copy provided to the tax authority by the prescribed deadline, with allowance for alternate year ends within six months of the balance sheet date; multiple offices file a combined AAC via the nodal office.

Annual Performance Report requirement mandates yearly disclosure of overseas investment, repatriation and step down subsidiary details by investors.
The APR framework mandates annual submission of Form APR by persons resident in India with ODI, reporting capital structure, control status, shareholding changes, two-year financials, repatriations, retained earnings, and SDS details; requires declarations confirming compliance with OI Regulations and Rule-based structural requirements, submission of share certificates to the AD bank within six months, auditor/chartered accountant certification on financial statements (audited or unaudited as applicable), and AD bank certification of document bona fides, with specified exemptions, filing deadlines and documentation standards.

SEZ approval requires developer compliance with SEZ Act, statutory clearances, environmental safeguards and operational conditions.
Approval for a Special Economic Zone is subject to compliance with the Special Economic Zones Act, 2005 and related rules; execution of a Bond cum Legal Undertaking; statutory and local clearances; environmental and rehabilitation obligations; securing project funding; implementation within the prescribed period with periodic progress reports; maintenance of manpower and operational standards; Board approval for specific activities to access duty free import or domestic procurement; prohibition on personal use of duty free goods; bearing cost of government staff; and submission of maps and statutory returns for notification and regulatory oversight.

Liquidation public announcement format governs claim filing, disclosure requirements, and electronic submission by financial creditors.
Prescribed the format of Form B public announcement under the liquidation process regulations, requiring disclosure of the corporate debtor's particulars, liquidation commencement date, liquidator details, and last date for submission of claims. Stakeholders were called upon to submit proofs of claim within thirty days from the liquidation commencement date; financial creditors were to file only by electronic means, while other stakeholders could file in person, by post, or electronically. The form also stated that false or misleading proofs of claim would attract penalties.

Proof of claim by operational creditors in voluntary liquidation requires detailed claim particulars, supporting documents, and affidavit verification.
Proof of claim by operational creditors other than workmen and employees in voluntary liquidation was set out in Form B. The form required the creditor to provide identity and correspondence details, the amount and nature of the claim, dispute and proceeding details, how the debt was incurred, mutual credits or set-off matters, security or assignment particulars, bank account details, and supporting documents. The accompanying affidavit required affirmation of indebtedness, reliance on supporting documents, and disclosure of any satisfaction or security received.

Authorisation for assignment for registered insolvency professionals specifies issuance, membership and registration details, validity period and renewal by the agency
Authorisation for assignment under bye-law 12A requires the agency to issue Form B to an enrolled professional member who is registered with the IBBI, recording membership and registration numbers and bearing the agency's signature. The Form specifies a defined validity period and permits renewal; it operates as the agency's formal attestation that the named insolvency professional is authorised to accept assignments under the bye-laws.

Certificate of registration form for information utilities omitted, removing the prescribed template and renewal format.
The prescribed Form B certificate of registration under Regulation 5 of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (Information Utilities) Regulations, 2017 has been omitted. The form previously set out the template for granting or renewing a certificate of registration to act as an information utility, including the validity period and renewal provision.

Operational creditor proof of claim form requires debt details, supporting documents, set-off disclosure, and verification.
Proof of claim by operational creditors, other than workmen and employees, under the insolvency resolution process for corporate persons is to be submitted in Form B. The form requires identification of the operational creditor and corporate debtor, disclosure of the total claim with interest, supporting documents, any dispute or pending proceedings, the manner in which the debt was incurred, mutual dealings for set-off, and particulars of any security or retention of title arrangement. It also requires bank account details, a list of documents, and a declaration and verification of the claim.

Proxy appointment form for bankruptcy committee meetings allowed creditors to authorise voting representation on listed agenda matters.
Form B prescribed a proxy appointment format for the bankruptcy process for personal guarantors to corporate debtors. It allowed a creditor holding a specified voting share of the bankrupt's debt to appoint a proxy to attend and vote at the committee meeting and any adjournment on the matters in the meeting notice and agenda. The form required particulars of the creditor and proxy, including address, identification numbers, e-mail, signatures and date. The note states that the form was later omitted with effect from 02-06-2026.

Bankruptcy process for personal guarantors enables creditors to apply for adjudication and propose an insolvency professional.
Form B prescribes a creditor's application to initiate bankruptcy proceedings against a personal guarantor, requiring full particulars of applicant and guarantor, a detailed statement of the debt (including default, security and supporting documents), declaration on excluded debts, and whether a secured creditor will relinquish security. It mandates attaching prior insolvency process records, documentary proof of debt and default, and, if proposed, a declaration by the insolvency professional confirming registration, eligibility, disclosures and willingness to act as bankruptcy trustee.

Registration of insolvency professional agency: certificate granted or renewed with a specified validity period and renewal provision.
Granting or renewal of a certificate of registration to act as an insolvency professional agency under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016, recorded on Form B with certificate number, named registrant, an indicated validity period between inserted start and end dates, and a provision that the registration may be renewed; the form ends with signature, name, designation, place and date for issuance by the Board.

Registration certificate under central sales tax defines dealer classification, inter state taxable goods, and compliance obligations.
The Certificate of Registration documents a dealer's formal registration, principal place of business, classes of goods and categories of use that determine inter State taxability, and whether the dealer manufactures or generates listed goods or power. It records the dealer's accounting year, additional places of business and warehouse locations, states the certificate's validity period, and bears the issuing authority's signature, thereby establishing the dealer's taxable scope and reporting obligations under the Central Sales Tax framework.

Proof of claim requirements for operational creditors under fast track insolvency ensure documented entitlement and disclosure for resolution processing.
Submission of a Proof of Claim by an operational creditor under Regulation 7 requires Form B addressed to the Interim Resolution Professional/Resolution Professional, supplying creditor identification and contact details, total claim amount including interest as at the fast track commencement date, documents substantiating the debt, particulars of how and when the debt arose, disclosures of mutual credits, set-offs, retention of title, pending disputes or proceedings, bank account details for payment, and an accompanying affidavit attesting to the indebtedness and genuineness of evidence.

Demand notice for guarantors: required particulars and proof obligations precede initiation of the insolvency resolution process.
Form B prescribes the form of demand notice creditors must send to personal guarantors before initiating insolvency resolution. It requires declaration of unpaid debt in default and detailed particulars of the debt, including secured and unsecured components, particulars of security, retention of title arrangements, court or information-utility records, and supporting documents. The notice gives the guarantor a limited cure period to prove repayment by specified evidence and demands unconditional payment within that period; failure to pay will result in initiation of the insolvency resolution process and the served notice must be attached to the creditor's application.

Creditor claim proof form requires detailed debt particulars, security disclosure, and secured creditor election on enforcement rights.
Claim with proof by a creditor under the insolvency resolution process for personal guarantors to corporate debtors requires submission of a prescribed claim form to the resolution professional with creditor identification, addresses, contact details, amount claimed including interest, supporting documents, dispute details, manner and date of incurrence of debt, set-off particulars, retention of title arrangements, transfer account details, and details of any security held. A secured creditor must indicate whether it agrees to forfeit the right to enforce security during the repayment plan period, as this affects the voting share. The creditor must sign a declaration and verification confirming the truth, validity, and completeness of the claim and supporting documents.

Certificate of registration authorises individuals to act as insolvency professionals under the applicable regulation, effective from specified commencement.
A Certificate of Registration is granted under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (Insolvency Professionals) Regulations, 2016 authorising the named person to act as an insolvency professional in accordance with those Regulations, identifying the registration number placeholder and specifying validity from a stated commencement date, issued and attested by an authorised signatory of the Board with place and date fields for administrative completion.

Recognition of stock exchanges under SCRA requires grant subject to conditions, timely renewal filing and gazette publication.
Granting recognition to a stock exchange is effected by a formal instrument following an application for recognition or renewal under the Securities Contracts (Regulation) framework; recognition may be granted for a specified period or permanently, subject to conditions stated in the instrument or later prescribed, and renewal applications must be submitted within a prescribed advance period with the recognition published in the central and State official gazettes.

Customs and excise bond obligations secure compliance with duty, export conditions, recordkeeping and payment on demand.
General Bond Form B 17 binds export oriented units and their sureties jointly and severally to secure observance of Customs and Central Excise laws and Foreign Trade Policy, to maintain prescribed accounts and evidence of use, to prevent pilferage, and to fulfill export obligations. It requires deposit/endorsement of cash or securities, permits provisional assessment with post assessment payment on demand, preserves continuous liability despite transfer of goods, and provides that the surety remains liable notwithstanding Government forbearance, with recovery from security or enforcement of bond rights.

In-principle approval for SEZ proposals requires formal application, statutory and environmental compliance, and proof of land rights.
Grant of in-principle approval for an SEZ is subject to submission of a formal Form A application with proof of land possession/leasehold rights, an updated project report and prescribed enclosures to the Director (SEZ). The developer must hold the identified area by ownership or long-term lease on the date of application, obtain all statutory and environmental approvals, provide for rehabilitation of displaced persons, comply with local planning and labour laws, follow external borrowing guidelines for project funding, secure board approval for proposed activities, and may seek a limited extension with justification.

Export bill certification: bank-issued certificate reporting realised and overdue export bills, including extensions obtained.
Certificate of Export form BCX reports export bills negotiated or sent for collection for a half-yearly period, listing exporter identity, destination countries, total export bills realised and bills outstanding beyond the due date or six months from shipment, with space for remarks. It must be signed and stamped by two authorised bank signatories and specify any outstanding bills for which extension of time has been obtained from the Reserve Bank.

Enrolment application for event venues requires specified identity, bank and verification details for VAT registration compliance.
Enrolment application for function venues requires applicant identity and contact details, venue type, PAN and name as on PAN, principal and additional addresses, TIN if applicable, bank account information (account number, IFSC, bank name and branch), authorised signatory details, date and an office enrolment number. The form includes a verification declaration requiring the authorised signatory to affirm the truth and completeness of the information and provide signature, full name and designation for VAT registration and administrative record-keeping.

VAT return requirement for hospitality events mandates reporting of event details, caterer TIN, food and liquor sales for compliance.
Form BE-2 requires banquet halls, farm houses, clubs, caterers and similar dealers to file fortnightly returns disclosing enrolment number and dealer contact details, a schedule of upcoming functions (venue, booking and function dates/times, booking party particulars), number of persons/plates by meal category, whether liquor will be served and corresponding licence coverage, caterer particulars including TIN, rate per person excluding VAT, and total value of food and liquor sold excluding VAT, with an authorised signatory verification declaring accuracy.

Foreign exchange remittance reporting requires banks to file BEF statements for sizable import payments lacking documentary proof.
Authorised dealers must submit a duplicate BEF statement to the Reserve Bank's Regional Office for import related remittances lacking documentary evidence despite reminders, including only remittances above the prescribed threshold. The BEF comprises Part I (defaulting importers) and Part II (subsequent receipt of documents for earlier reports); previously reported entries must not be repeated. Dealers may exclude cases supported by acceptable alternative documents or provisional into bond bills followed by exchange control bills for home consumption. Half yearly statements, including 'NIL' returns, must be filed within the prescribed period and certified by the authorised official.

Insolvency resolution for personal guarantor requires Form C with detailed debtor, debt, and documentary evidence for admissibility.
Form C prescribes the creditor's application to initiate an insolvency resolution process against a personal guarantor, requiring detailed particulars of the applicant and guarantor, a full inventory of assets and liabilities, comprehensive particulars of the debt and default, declarations as to excluded debts, a secured creditor's election on forfeiture of enforcement rights affecting voting share, insolvency professional disclosures and acceptance, payment of fee, and specified documentary attachments to establish debt and default.

Financial creditors' claim filing under insolvency rules requires detailed particulars, supporting documents, declarations, and updated claim disclosure.
Submission of claim and proof of claim by financial creditors is prescribed in Form C under the Insolvency Resolution Process for Corporate Persons Regulations. The form requires the creditor's particulars, claim amount, supporting documents, debt details, mutual dealings, security, and bank account information, together with a declaration and verification on the debt, documents relied on, satisfaction or security, and related-party status. The note also records later revisions to include claims against a principal borrower or guarantor and an undertaking to update the claim after partial or full satisfaction, before Form C was omitted with effect from 02-06-2026.