Issues: Whether the Revenue proved that the seized non-notified betel nuts were smuggled so as to justify confiscation and penalties.

Analysis: Betel nuts are not notified goods under Section 123 of the Customs Act, 1962; consequently, the burden lay on the Revenue to establish their foreign origin and illicit importation. The accompanying invoices identified consignors in Mizoram and consignees in West Bengal, and the interception was not at the Indo-Myanmar border. The ARDF report merely stated that the goods "seem" to be from the North-East, including Myanmar, and did not conclusively establish Myanmar origin. Statements alone, without independent cogent evidence of illegal importation, were insufficient to discharge the Revenue's burden.

Conclusion: The seized betel nuts were not proved to be smuggled; the confiscation and penalties were unsustainable.

Issues: Whether service-tax proceedings and the confirmed demand against a practising advocate, founded solely on Form 26AS without examining the nature of receipts or applying the notifications governing legal services, were lawful.

Analysis: The statutory framework under the Finance Act, 1994 and Notification Nos. 25/2012-Service Tax and 30/2012-Service Tax dated 20.06.2012 governed legal services rendered by an individual advocate. Reliance on Form 26AS alone, without considering that framework or verifying the nature of services corresponding to the receipts, was jurisdictionally defective.

Conclusion: The proceedings and confirmed service-tax demand were without jurisdiction and were liable to be quashed.

Issues: (i) Whether penalty could be imposed on a director under Rule 26(2) where the company was not issued a show-cause notice and the director was not its authorised signatory; (ii) Whether the evidence established that the director issued or abetted invoices without supply of goods so as to attract Rule 26(2).

Issue (i): Whether penalty could be imposed on a director under Rule 26(2) where the company was not issued a show-cause notice and the director was not its authorised signatory.

Analysis: The alleged irregular credit-passing transaction was attributed to the company, but no show-cause notice for penalty was issued to it. The appellant was not its authorised signatory. The alleged corporate transaction alone could not establish personal vicarious liability of the director for the penal consequence.

Conclusion: The proceedings for imposition of penalty upon the director without notice to the company were legally unsustainable. In favour of the assessee.

Issue (ii): Whether the evidence established that the director issued or abetted invoices without supply of goods so as to attract Rule 26(2).

Analysis: Rule 26(2) requires proof that the person issued, or abetted the issue of, invoices without delivery of the underlying goods. No finding established that the appellant issued such invoices or abetted their issue. Reversal of credit by purchasers did not amount to an admission by the appellant or the company. Statements of truck owners lacked evidentiary value because the mandatory procedure for their admission under Section 9D was not followed. Absence of adequate manufacturing infrastructure with the supplier, without proof of the appellant's connivance or abetment, was insufficient to establish the alleged offence.

Conclusion: The statutory ingredients for penalty under Rule 26(2) were not established, and the penalty was unsustainable. In favour of the assessee.

Final Conclusion: The individual penal liability lacked a sustainable legal and evidentiary foundation.

Ratio Decidendi: Penalty under Rule 26(2) requires proof that the person issued or abetted the issue of invoices without delivery of goods, and investigation statements cannot establish that liability unless admitted in accordance with the mandatory procedure under Section 9D.

Issues: (i) Whether CENVAT credit could be denied for non-production of copies of all invoices despite entries in the credit register and absence of any allegation that the goods were not received; (ii) Whether the show-cause notice issued after the Department had knowledge of the disputed credit was barred by limitation.

Issue (i): Whether CENVAT credit could be denied for non-production of copies of all invoices despite entries in the credit register and absence of any allegation that the goods were not received.

Analysis: The receipt of goods was recorded in the CENVAT duty register, which was attested by the Superintendent, and in the vendor ledger; some invoices were also produced. There was no allegation that the goods had not reached the factory, were diverted, or were clandestinely removed. The documentary deficiency was therefore merely technical and did not displace the evidence of receipt and accounting of the inputs.

Conclusion: CENVAT credit cannot be denied solely because copies of all invoices were not produced when receipt and accounting of the goods remain undisputed.

Issue (ii): Whether the show-cause notice issued after the Department had knowledge of the disputed credit was barred by limitation.

Analysis: The audit memo of 31 July 2015 evidenced departmental knowledge of the disputed credit, whereas the show-cause notice was issued on 6 September 2017. The material did not establish suppression or misstatement warranting invocation of the extended limitation period.

Conclusion: The show-cause notice was time-barred, and the demand could not be sustained.

Final Conclusion: The demand of disputed credit, together with consequential interest and penalty, is unsustainable.

Ratio Decidendi: A delayed demand for CENVAT credit cannot be sustained through the extended limitation period where the Department already had knowledge of the credit and suppression or misstatement is not established.

Issues: Whether CENVAT credit is admissible on countervailing duty paid at the concessional rate under Notification No. 12/2012-Customs dated 17.03.2012 on imported coal.

Analysis: Rule 3(1)(vii) of the CENVAT Credit Rules, 2004 independently permits credit of additional customs duty. The restriction associated with Rule 3(1)(i) is confined to goods availing the specified Central Excise exemption and does not extend to countervailing duty paid under the Customs notification on imported coal. The restriction applicable to domestically manufactured coal cannot be read into the Customs notification governing imports.

Conclusion: CENVAT credit of the countervailing duty paid on imported coal under Notification No. 12/2012-Customs dated 17.03.2012 is admissible, and its disallowance is unsustainable.

Issues: (i) Whether 99% VAT remission retained under the Assam industrial incentive scheme formed part of transaction value under Section 4(3)(d) of the Central Excise Act, 1944. (ii) Whether the extended limitation period and equal penalty were invocable.

Issue (i): Whether 99% VAT remission retained under the Assam industrial incentive scheme formed part of transaction value under Section 4(3)(d) of the Central Excise Act, 1944.

Analysis: The incentive was conditional upon capital investment and commencement of commercial production, was available for a defined entitlement period and subject to a ceiling linked to fixed capital investment. VAT liability was first determined for each return period, after which 99% was remitted under the statutory incentive, with 1% deposited. The retained amount was a State industrial subsidy and not an additional amount paid by buyers in connection with the sale of goods.

Conclusion: The 99% VAT remission was not includible in transaction value; the central excise duty and consequential interest demand were unsustainable.

Issue (ii): Whether the extended limitation period and equal penalty were invocable.

Analysis: The VAT retention was known to the Department during audit, particulars were sought and supplied before issuance of the show-cause notice, and no suppression of facts with intent to evade duty was established. The applicable departmental circular also recognised that the extended period was unavailable for this valuation controversy.

Conclusion: The extended limitation period was not invocable, and the equal penalty was unsustainable.

Final Conclusion: Investment-linked VAT remission under the applicable State incentive scheme is treated as a subsidy rather than sale consideration, and neither duty liability nor the related limitation-based penalty could be sustained.

Ratio Decidendi: A State-granted, investment-linked VAT remission is not additional consideration from the buyer and cannot be included in excise transaction value.

Issues: (i) Whether amounts paid during investigation before adjudication constituted excise duty or deposits and were liable to be treated as pre-deposit; (ii) Whether interest was payable on the refunded amount, and if so, under which provision, from what date and at what rate.

Issue (i): Whether amounts paid during investigation before adjudication constituted excise duty or deposits and were liable to be treated as pre-deposit.

Analysis: Excise duty becomes payable only against an assessment or an adjudication modifying the assessment under Section 11A of the Central Excise Act, 1944, and upon becoming due. Amounts paid during investigation, before any assessed or adjudicated liability, are deposits notwithstanding their credit under an excise-duty accounting head. The Central Excise Act, 1944 does not authorise compulsory collection of amounts in anticipation of a liability that may arise from investigation. As the sums were accepted towards the appeal and no excess over the mandatory pre-deposit was released, the entire amount was required to be regarded as pre-deposit under Section 35F of the Central Excise Act, 1944.

Conclusion: The amounts were deposits and, in the facts, must be treated as pre-deposit under Section 35F of the Central Excise Act, 1944, in favour of the assessee.

Issue (ii): Whether interest was payable on the refunded amount, and if so, under which provision, from what date and at what rate.

Analysis: Interest is recoverable or payable only as statutorily prescribed, not on equitable considerations or at a non-statutory rate. Section 11BB of the Central Excise Act, 1944 applies to delayed refunds of duty after an application, whereas the amount here was not duty and the form of the refund request did not alter its character. Refund of the amount treated as pre-deposit is governed by Section 35FF of the Central Excise Act, 1944.

Conclusion: Interest is payable to the assessee under Section 35FF of the Central Excise Act, 1944 at the applicable statutory rate from the date of deposit until the date of refund; the claim for interest at 12% per annum is rejected.

Final Conclusion: The refunded investigative deposits carry statutory interest applicable to pre-deposits for the period commencing from their payment.

Ratio Decidendi: An amount paid during investigation before assessment or adjudication is a deposit rather than duty; where it is treated as pre-deposit in appeal, interest on its refund is governed by the statutory pre-deposit provision from the date of deposit.

Issues: (i) Whether CENVAT credit on services received at centrally registered service stations and marketing or branch offices was admissible and could be utilised for payment of excise duty without an input service distributor registration; (ii) Whether ISD credit distributed wholly to Tiruvottiyur was recoverable; (iii) Whether credit of services exclusively used by the Oragadam and Manjambakkam units was recoverable from Tiruvottiyur; (iv) Whether the extended period of limitation was invocable for the first show cause notice; and (v) Whether interest and penalties were sustainable.

Issue (i): Whether CENVAT credit on services received at centrally registered service stations and marketing or branch offices was admissible and could be utilised for payment of excise duty without an input service distributor registration.

Analysis: Under the first limb of Rule 2(l) of the CENVAT Credit Rules, 2004, services used by a provider for rendering taxable output services qualify as input services. The services received at the service stations were used for taxable repair and maintenance services rendered from premises covered by the centralised registration. Receipt of input services in the factory is not a condition for credit under the provider-of-output-service limb. Rule 4(2) of the Service Tax Rules, 1994 treats the centrally registered person, and not each declared premise, as the provider of taxable output services.

Analysis: Rule 3(4) permits CENVAT credit validly earned by a person acting as a provider of output service to be used for payment of excise duty, without a one-to-one correlation or separate credit pools. An input service distributor mechanism applies where credit is distributed from one office to another; it does not require a centrally registered provider to distribute credit to itself. The marketing and branch office services were independently eligible as services used up to the place of removal and for advertisement or sales promotion, since the offices were premises of the manufacturer from which goods were sold. A denial founded on Rule 7 where that ground was not alleged in the notices could not sustain the demand.

Conclusion: The issue is decided in favour of the assessee: the service-station and marketing or branch-office credits were admissible, and their utilisation for payment of excise duty was permissible.

Issue (ii): Whether ISD credit distributed wholly to Tiruvottiyur was recoverable.

Analysis: Rule 7(d) could apply only upon proof that the underlying services were used in more than one unit. The notices assumed common use without establishing that foundational fact. For the relevant period before 01.04.2016, Rule 7 enabled, rather than compelled, distribution of credit among units. Where the eligibility and quantum of the ISD credit and the distribution at the ISD end were not disputed, recovery from the recipient unit was unwarranted.

Conclusion: The issue is decided in favour of the assessee: the ISD credit distributed to Tiruvottiyur was not recoverable on merits.

Issue (iii): Whether credit of services exclusively used by the Oragadam and Manjambakkam units was recoverable from Tiruvottiyur.

Analysis: The assessee accepted that this credit had been taken in error and did not contest its substantive eligibility. However, the recovery notice for this amount invoked only the extended period, whose statutory requirements were not met.

Conclusion: The issue is decided in favour of the assessee on limitation: the credit pertaining to the other units was not recoverable.

Issue (iv): Whether the extended period of limitation was invocable for the first show cause notice.

Analysis: Section 11A(4) of the Central Excise Act, 1944 requires fraud, wilful misstatement, suppression of facts, or contravention with intent to evade duty. Detection during audit, absence of invoice-wise particulars in returns that did not require them, and voluntary reversal with written intimation did not establish wilful suppression or intent to evade. The relevant records and ISD documentation were available to the Department, and transfer of credit among units of the same assessee was revenue neutral. The interpretative dispute concerning Rule 7 also negatived any inference of deliberate evasion.

Conclusion: The issue is decided in favour of the assessee: the extended period was not invocable, rendering the first notice time-barred to the extent it depended on that period.

Issue (v): Whether interest and penalties were sustainable.

Analysis: No interest could arise on credit validly availed, and interest on the remaining disputed credits could not survive once the recovery notice was barred by limitation. The foundation for penalty based on fraud, suppression, or wilful misstatement failed. The penalty imposed under Rule 15(1) also exceeded the statutory ceiling applicable through Section 11AC(1)(a) of the Central Excise Act, 1944.

Conclusion: The issue is decided in favour of the assessee: all interest demands and penalties were unsustainable.

Final Conclusion: Credit validly earned by the centrally registered provider of taxable output services could be maintained in a common CENVAT pool and used for excise-duty payment. The reversals already availed as credit by the other units cannot be taken afresh at Tiruvottiyur or refunded, as that would result in double availment of the same credit.

Ratio Decidendi: A centrally registered person providing taxable output services through its declared premises may avail input-service credit in its own account and cross-utilise it for excise duty; an input service distributor registration is unnecessary where no inter-office distribution of credit occurs.

Issues: (i) Whether subsequent financial developments warranted declining to adjudicate the legality of the AT-1 Bonds write-down; (ii) Whether the Administrator had authority under the Reconstruction Scheme, in the absence of a specific clause, to write down the AT-1 Bonds; and (iii) Whether the write-down conformed to the Master Circular and the Information Memoranda governing the AT-1 Bonds.

Issue (i): Whether subsequent financial developments warranted declining to adjudicate the legality of the AT-1 Bonds write-down.

Analysis: The legality of an administrative action must be assessed on the facts and law prevailing when that action was taken. Subsequent changes in the bank's financial position, including developments following reconstruction, could not alter the validity of the write-down made on 14 March 2020.

Conclusion: Subsequent developments did not make a merits determination unwarranted; the issue was answered against the appellants.

Issue (ii): Whether the Administrator had authority under the Reconstruction Scheme, in the absence of a specific clause, to write down the AT-1 Bonds.

Analysis: The draft reconstruction scheme expressly contemplated permanent write-down of the AT-1 Bonds, but the final Reconstruction Scheme omitted that provision after objections and proposals concerning the bonds had been considered. The omission reflected a conscious decision not to alter the bonds through the Scheme. The general savings provision preserving existing instruments did not confer a distinct and specific power to write down the bonds after the Scheme had taken effect.

Conclusion: The Administrator lacked authority under the Reconstruction Scheme to write down the AT-1 Bonds; the write-down was ultra vires and the issue was answered in favour of the respondents.

Issue (iii): Whether the write-down conformed to the Master Circular and the Information Memoranda governing the AT-1 Bonds.

Analysis: The loss-absorbency framework distinguished a pre-specified trigger, at which the bank could exercise the contractual options available to it, from the point of non-viability, at which the banking regulator was to determine and effect the required write-down or conversion. Where reconstruction under the Banking Regulation Act was invoked, the applicable framework required conversion or permanent write-down before the reconstruction took effect. The expression "before reconstitution" could not be extended to permit action at any time during the subsequent implementation of the Scheme. An Administrator exercising powers of the superseded board could not assume the regulator's separate statutory and regulatory function.

Conclusion: The Administrator's post-reconstruction write-down was contrary to the prescribed regulatory framework and was invalid; the issue was answered in favour of the respondents.

Final Conclusion: The permanent write-down of the AT-1 Bonds remains invalid, and the obligation to pay annual coupons continues in accordance with the applicable Information Memoranda.

Ratio Decidendi: Where a banking reconstruction triggers the point of non-viability, any write-down or conversion of AT-1 instruments must occur before the reconstruction scheme takes effect and through the authority and procedure prescribed by the governing regulatory framework; an Administrator cannot exercise the banking regulator's distinct power by relying on general board-management powers.

Issues: (i) Whether the tax demand of Rs.4,58,289/- could be sustained after its payment before the order-in-original; (ii) Whether interest under Section 50(1) is payable until credit of tax to the Government's account or until subsequent debit from the Electronic Cash Ledger on return filing; (iii) Whether the interest liability for FY 2017-18 and the balance payable required alteration or a further credit; (iv) Whether the penalty of Rs.45,829/- was sustainable.

Issue (i): Whether the tax demand of Rs.4,58,289/- could be sustained after its payment before the order-in-original.

Analysis: Section 73(1) authorises determination and recovery of tax that remains unpaid. The tax shortfall and interest thereon had been deposited through DRC-03 before the order-in-original was made, but the payment was not considered. Section 73(1) does not permit double recovery of an amount already received by the Government.

Conclusion: The tax demand of Rs.4,58,289/- was rightly set aside. This issue is in favour of the assessee.

Issue (ii): Whether interest under Section 50(1) is payable until credit of tax to the Government's account or until subsequent debit from the Electronic Cash Ledger on return filing.

Analysis: Section 50(1) imposes interest only for the period during which tax remains unpaid. Under Section 49, a payment made through Form GST PMT-06 is credited to the Government's account and reflected in the Electronic Cash Ledger upon realisation of the challan. The later debit from that ledger while filing the return is an accounting appropriation and does not prolong the period for which tax remains unpaid.

Conclusion: Interest under Section 50(1) runs only up to the date of credit of the tax amount to the Government's account, not up to the later Electronic Cash Ledger debit date. This issue is in favour of the assessee.

Issue (iii): Whether the interest liability for FY 2017-18 and the balance payable required alteration or a further credit.

Analysis: For September 2017, interest was correctly computed only up to the respective challan-payment dates, resulting in interest of Rs.5,22,204/-. For the remaining months, the record did not establish any earlier credit of cash to the Government's account than the return-filing dates. The due date for December 2017 was correctly taken as 22.01.2018 under Notification No. 02/2018-Central Tax dated 20.01.2018. The interest of Rs.4,58,289/- paid with the tax shortfall discharged interest attributable to that separate shortfall and could not also be adjusted against interest on delayed monthly tax payments.

Conclusion: The total interest liability of Rs.40,47,151/- and the balance of Rs.25,47,151/- after credit of Rs.15,00,000/- were confirmed; no further credit was allowable. This issue is partly in favour of the assessee and partly against the assessee.

Issue (iv): Whether the penalty of Rs.45,829/- was sustainable.

Analysis: Section 73(8) grants penalty immunity only where tax and applicable interest are paid within thirty days of the show-cause notice. Since payment was made after that period, the immunity was unavailable. Sections 73(9) and 122(2)(a) prescribe the applicable statutory penalty upon confirmation of the demand, without requiring proof of fraud, deliberate default, or contumacious conduct.

Conclusion: The penalty of Rs.45,829/- was sustainable. This issue is against the assessee.

Final Conclusion: The discharged tax shortfall cannot be recovered afresh; the recomputed interest liability and residual balance remain payable without further set-off, and the statutory penalty remains enforceable.

Ratio Decidendi: For purposes of Section 50(1), tax deposited through a PMT-06 challan ceases to remain unpaid when it is credited to the Government's account, and interest cannot be levied for the subsequent period merely because the Electronic Cash Ledger is debited later upon filing of the return.

Issues: Whether penalty for alleged facilitation of undervalued imports through use of another person's importer-exporter code was sustainable where the appellant's role was confined to introducing a freight forwarder and providing a contact for arranging an importer-exporter code.

Analysis: Penalty under the Customs Act, 1962 requires material establishing blameworthy conduct, knowledge of illegality, or participation in the alleged unlawful arrangement. Merely informing an importer about a freight forwarder or a person who could allegedly arrange an importer-exporter code does not itself contravene the Customs Act. The record contained no evidence that the appellant procured the importer-exporter code, participated in an illegal act, or knew of the alleged undervaluation or other illegal activity. The allegations therefore did not establish criminal conspiracy or culpable involvement.

Conclusion: The penalty under Section 112(a) and Section 114AA of the Customs Act, 1962 was not sustainable against the appellant.

Issues: (i) Whether the Supreme Court could interfere under Section 62 with concurrent findings of debt and default; (ii) Whether the assignee was entitled to maintain the Section 7 applications as a financial creditor; (iii) What evidentiary threshold governs proof of default for Section 7 admission and whether accounting disputes or profitability preclude admission; (iv) What legal weight an authenticated Information Utility record and other documentary material carry in establishing default.

Issue (i): Whether the Supreme Court could interfere under Section 62 with concurrent findings of debt and default.

Analysis: Section 62(1) of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 confines an appeal to questions of law. Concurrent factual findings of the specialised insolvency fora cannot be reopened through a reassessment of accounts or documentary evidence unless they are perverse, unsupported by evidence, ignore material evidence, or apply an erroneous legal standard.

Conclusion: No basis existed to disturb the concurrent findings of financial debt and default.

Issue (ii): Whether the assignee was entitled to maintain the Section 7 applications as a financial creditor.

Analysis: Section 5(7) of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 includes a person to whom a financial debt has been legally assigned or transferred. The validity of the assignment had been finally determined, and the identity of issue, finality of that determination, and identity of parties or privies attracted issue estoppel. The Adjudicating Authority's Section 7 jurisdiction does not extend to a collateral re-examination of a concluded assignment dispute.

Conclusion: The assignee was a financial creditor competent to initiate proceedings under Section 7, and the assignment challenge was barred by issue estoppel.

Issue (iii): What evidentiary threshold governs proof of default for Section 7 admission and whether accounting disputes or profitability preclude admission.

Analysis: Sections 3(12), 4 and 7 of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 require proof that a financial debt, in whole or in part, became due and remained unpaid above the statutory threshold. Default is a historical event, whereas the outstanding quantum remains variable due to interest, charges, adjustments and repayments. The admission-stage enquiry is summary and is determined on a preponderance of probabilities from documentary material; it does not require a forensic reconciliation of accounts or a final calculation of every component of the claim. Detailed verification and quantification are addressed during the CIRP claims process under Section 18(b). Positive EBITDA or profitability does not establish debt-serviceability and is not a legal bar to admission once default is shown.

Conclusion: A documented default exceeding the statutory threshold was sufficient for admission; disputes on quantification, appropriation, and profitability did not negate or cure the default.

Issue (iv): What legal weight an authenticated Information Utility record and other documentary material carry in establishing default.

Analysis: Sections 7(3)(a) and 7(4) of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 establish a hierarchy of proof. An authenticated Record of Default issued by an Information Utility is independently sufficient at the first tier and carries a strong evidentiary presumption, rebuttable only by clear, cogent, credible and compelling material rather than bare denial or bookkeeping disagreement. At the second tier, loan agreements, statements of account, acknowledgements, settlement communications and the materials identified in Part V of Form 1 of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy (Application to Adjudicating Authority) Rules, 2016 may collectively establish default on the summary standard. A debtor's failure to dispute the Information Utility record during authentication may operate as an admission and estoppel.

Conclusion: The authenticated Information Utility records, read with the collective documentary record, sufficiently established default for Section 7 purposes.

Final Conclusion: The statutory requirements for commencing the corporate insolvency resolution process were satisfied, and the resolution process in respect of both corporate debtors may continue in accordance with the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016.

Ratio Decidendi: In a Section 7 proceeding under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016, admission depends on prima facie documentary proof of an unpaid due financial debt above the statutory threshold, not on final quantification of the claim or the corporate debtor's commercial solvency; an authenticated Information Utility Record of Default is sufficient unless displaced by compelling contrary material.

Issues: (i) Whether the construction demands relating to the landowners' and developer's shares were taxable and correctly classified and valued; (ii) Whether reverse-charge liability for GTA, security, legal and manpower services was established; and (iii) Whether extended limitation and consequential penalties could be sustained.

Issue (i): Whether the construction demands relating to the landowners' and developer's shares were taxable and correctly classified and valued.

Analysis: The legal character of a joint development arrangement depends on its contractual terms, the parties' rights and obligations, and the consideration flowing between them; its nomenclature is not determinative. Transfer of land or development rights in return for constructed flats is capable of being non-monetary consideration under Section 67 of the Finance Act, 1994, but taxability must first be established for the relevant period. The pre-01.07.2010 position requires examination under the applicable Board circulars and the relevant statutory exclusion; subsequent periods require independent application of the governing provisions.

Analysis: Valuation of a taxable landowners' share under Section 67 of the Finance Act, 1994 and Rule 3(a) of the Service Tax (Determination of Value) Rules, 2006 arises only after taxability is established. Comparable flats must be genuinely similar in material particulars and at the relevant time, and the record must be verified to avoid duplication of value already subjected to service tax. Whether the developer's construction was a service simpliciter or a composite works contract depends upon the actual agreements, transfer of property in goods, and contemporaneous records. The works-contract provisions and the correct taxable classification remain material after 01.07.2012; an incorrect statutory citation in a notice alone does not invalidate an otherwise sustainable demand.

Conclusion: The construction demands were not sustainable on the existing record and can be determined only after examination of the agreements, period-wise taxability, correct classification, valuation, and possible duplication of taxable value.

Issue (ii): Whether reverse-charge liability for GTA, security, legal and manpower services was established.

Analysis: GTA liability requires proof that the transporter satisfied the statutory definition, including issuance of a consignment note or a document meeting that requirement. Ledger entries and freight expenditure alone cannot replace that jurisdictional fact. For security services, the identity and status of the provider, applicability of Notification No. 30/2012-ST dated 20.06.2012, and any prior discharge of tax on the same service require verification.

Analysis: Direct engagement, payment, supervision and control of workers by the recipient do not, without proof of supply by an independent provider, constitute manpower-supply service. Similarly, an entry described as legal fees does not by itself establish that the provider was an advocate or that the service was a legal service covered by reverse charge. Revenue retains the initial burden to establish these foundational facts, subject to the assessee disclosing material within its special knowledge.

Conclusion: Reverse-charge liability can arise only upon proof of the statutory prerequisites for each alleged service and after reconciliation of the relevant records and payments.

Issue (iii): Whether extended limitation and consequential penalties could be sustained.

Analysis: Invocation of the extended period under Section 73 of the Finance Act, 1994 requires a positive act of fraud, wilful misstatement, or deliberate suppression with intent to evade tax; mere non-payment, non-registration, or an omission does not suffice. For the first notice, collection of service tax from purchasers, coupled with non-deposit and non-disclosure in statutory returns, was treated as material to the allegation of suppression. Availability of information in private books or subsequent departmental access during investigation does not by itself negate suppression. An incomplete voluntary disclosure and unsupported financial hardship do not establish reasonable cause for retaining tax collected from purchasers.

Analysis: A subsequent notice is not barred merely because an earlier notice concerned the same assessee or service category. The decisive inquiry is whether the notices rest on the same material facts and transactions. For a subsequent invocation of the extended period, Revenue must independently establish the statutory ingredients from evidence relating to the distinct project and transactions. Penalties under Sections 77, 78 and 78A of the Finance Act, 1994 depend upon the liability and limitation findings ultimately reached.

Conclusion: Limitation for both notices and the consequential penalties require fresh determination by applying the stated statutory tests to the relevant evidence.

Final Conclusion: Service-tax liability remains dependent on a fresh, evidence-based determination of the contractual arrangements, taxable character of the construction and alleged reverse-charge services, valuation, limitation, and consequential interest and penalties.

Issues: (i) Whether the demand adjudication dated 14 January 2026 was valid when a filed DRC-06 reply was treated as absent; and (ii) Whether the Electronic Credit Ledger could be negatively blocked for alleged wrongful availment of input tax credit.

Issue (i): Whether the demand adjudication dated 14 January 2026 was valid when a filed DRC-06 reply was treated as absent.

Analysis: The record established that the reply dated 16 February 2025 had been uploaded in Form GST DRC-06, but the adjudication proceeded ex parte on the erroneous premise that no reply had been filed. Confirmation of demand without considering the uploaded response and without an effective hearing was inconsistent with fair adjudication and the requirement of a reasoned decision.

Conclusion: The demand order was quashed, and the matter requires fresh adjudication after consideration of the reply and an opportunity of personal hearing. This is in favour of the assessee.

Issue (ii): Whether the Electronic Credit Ledger could be negatively blocked for alleged wrongful availment of input tax credit.

Analysis: Negative blocking under Rule 86A(1) cannot operate as a recovery mechanism for allegedly fraudulent or ineligible input tax credit. The issues concerning non-filing of returns, cancellation of registration, and ledger operability require determination in accordance with the applicable statutory formalities.

Conclusion: Negative blocking of the Electronic Credit Ledger for alleged wrongful input tax credit was held impermissible. This is in favour of the assessee.

Final Conclusion: The demand requires fresh adjudication on the filed reply, while the registration and Electronic Credit Ledger consequences must be addressed within the stated legal limits.

Issues: Whether a faceless best-judgment assessment could be sustained where the assessee's reply, though filed after the stipulated deadline, had been viewed before the assessment was made but was not considered, and no video-conference hearing was afforded.

Analysis: An assessment under Sections 144 and 144B of the Income-tax Act, 1961 must conform to the principles of natural justice. Although the assessee did not seek adjournment within the stipulated time and the Assessing Officer could not be faulted merely for proceeding after expiry of that time, the right to file a reply had not been formally closed. Only a short period had been given for responding to an extensive questionnaire, and the reply was available and viewed before completion of the assessment. As a quasi-judicial authority, the Assessing Officer was required to objectively consider material available on record and provide a reasonable opportunity of hearing.

Conclusion: The assessment could not be sustained; it must be redetermined after considering the reply and providing a video-conference hearing, without any opinion on the merits of the assessee's claims.

Issues: Whether the proposed substantial questions concerning deduction for product development expenditure arose from the ITAT order challenged in the present appeal.

Analysis: Under Section 260A of the Income-tax Act, 1961, the appeal challenged the ITAT order in one Revenue appeal. The proposed questions, however, concerned the deduction claimed in a separate assessee appeal, against which the Revenue had independently filed another appeal.

Conclusion: The proposed substantial questions did not arise from the impugned ITAT order and could not form the basis of the present appeal.

Issues: Whether refunds due for other assessment years could be adjusted in full against a disputed penalty demand while the first appeal and stay applications were pending.

Analysis: The applicable CBDT instructions governing stay and recovery of disputed demands before the first appellate authority permit recovery only to the prescribed extent, ordinarily 20% of the demand, with the balance remaining stayed pending appeal. Those instructions apply equally to demands arising from penalty orders; they contain no distinction between assessment and penalty appeals. Full adjustment of refunds without disposal of the pending stay applications was therefore contrary to the binding instructions.

Conclusion: Full adjustment was impermissible and the assessee was entitled to reversal and refund of the amount adjusted beyond 20% of the disputed penalty demand, with applicable interest; the corresponding balance demand remained stayed until disposal of the first appeal.

Issues: Whether revision in respect of an issue not forming part of reassessment proceedings was barred by limitation.

Analysis: The reassessment was initiated only for specified financial transactions and did not concern the debenture redemption reserve. The reserve issue had been addressed in the original assessment and did not become part of the reassessment. Section 147, including Explanation 3, permits assessment of another escaped-income issue that comes to notice during reassessment proceedings, but there was no material that this issue had so come to notice. For matters outside the subject of reassessment, the original assessment continues to operate and limitation for revision under Section 263(2) runs from the original assessment order rather than the reassessment order.

Conclusion: The revision concerning the debenture redemption reserve was barred by limitation; no substantial question of law arose on that issue.

Issues: Whether a person summoned under Section 108 of the Customs Act, 1962 may be permitted to tender a statement through video conferencing owing to bona fide medical inability to undertake long-distance travel.

Analysis: The statutory power to summon for a customs enquiry must be exercised reasonably, proportionately and without arbitrariness; it cannot be used to cause undue hardship. Secure video conferencing fulfils the object of examination under Section 108 while protecting the citizen's rights under Articles 14 and 21 of the Constitution of India. The applicant's recorded knee injuries, willingness to cooperate, and safeguards against coaching, tampering and identity concerns justified virtual examination. The safeguards included secure access, verification of identity, visible but non-audible presence of counsel, videography, and a reasoned prior notice if physical attendance is subsequently found imperative.

Conclusion: The applicant was entitled to tender the statement through secure video conferencing under Section 108, subject to the prescribed safeguards and continued cooperation with the investigation.

Issues: Whether revocation of the customs broker's licence and forfeiture of security were warranted for breach of licensing obligations arising from an employee's conduct.

Analysis: The established lapse consisted of failure to verify the exporter's authorisation and address. The factual findings recorded no active role of the customs broker in the attempted prohibited export, noted prompt termination of the employee and initiation of criminal action, and found no deliberate or mala fide conduct. Although the licensing obligations were breached and a monetary penalty remained justified, revocation and security forfeiture were found disproportionate. Authorities concerning repeated or continuing violations did not apply to an isolated violation on these facts. The proportionality finding disclosed no factual or legal error or perversity and raised no substantial question of law.

Conclusion: Revocation of the licence and forfeiture of security were not warranted; the monetary penalty was sufficient for the established breach.