Issues: (i) whether renting of the commercial premises by a church constituted taxable renting of immovable property for the period up to 30.06.2012 or fell within the exclusion for renting by or to a religious body; and (ii) whether the renting of shops situated within the church premises was exempt under Notification No. 25/2012-ST dated 20.06.2012 for the period from 01.07.2012 to February 2015, and whether extended period and penalties were sustainable.

Issue (i): whether renting of the commercial premises by a church constituted taxable renting of immovable property for the period up to 30.06.2012 or fell within the exclusion for renting by or to a religious body.

Analysis: The definition of renting of immovable property under Section 65(90a) of the Finance Act, 1994 expressly excluded renting by a religious body or to a religious body. The appellant was a church and charitable trust, and the premises were held and used as part of the religious institution. On the facts and the nature of the appellant's organisation, the renting activity for the period prior to 01.07.2012 fell within the statutory exclusion. The tax demand for that period could not be sustained.

Conclusion: The demand for the period up to 30.06.2012 was set aside in favour of the assessee.

Issue (ii): whether the renting of shops situated within the church premises was exempt under Notification No. 25/2012-ST dated 20.06.2012 for the period from 01.07.2012 to February 2015, and whether extended period and penalties were sustainable.

Analysis: The exemption for renting of precincts of a religious place meant for general public did not cover commercial shops let out to private tenants for business purposes. However, the record showed confusion regarding the levy during the relevant period, and the appellant had complied with registration after being approached by the Department. For that reason, invocation of the extended period and imposition of penalties were not justified. Tax and interest were confined to the normal period from 01.07.2012 onwards, with the matter remitted for recomputation.

Conclusion: The exemption claim for the post-01.07.2012 period was rejected, but penalties and extended limitation were set aside, and the liability was restricted to tax and interest for the normal period only.

Final Conclusion: The appellant succeeded for the pre-01.07.2012 period and on penalties, while liability was upheld for the post-01.07.2012 period subject to recomputation of tax and interest by the adjudicating authority.

Ratio Decidendi: Renting by or to a religious body is excluded from taxable renting of immovable property for the pre-01.07.2012 regime, but commercial letting of shop premises within a religious precinct to private tenants for business use is not covered by the exemption for precincts meant for general public under Notification No. 25/2012-ST.

Issues: (i) Whether the facilities provided by the builder to occupants in the club house and residential complex were taxable as Membership of Club or Association Services; (ii) whether electricity charges and backup power facility charges were taxable as Management, Maintenance or Repair Services; (iii) whether interest on fixed deposits, maintenance deposits, and allied common facility receipts were taxable as consideration for Management, Maintenance or Repair Services; and (iv) whether invocation of the extended period of limitation was justified.

Issue (i): Whether the facilities provided by the builder to occupants in the club house and residential complex were taxable as Membership of Club or Association Services.

Analysis: The facilities consisted of club house amenities such as a hall, swimming pool, indoor sports facilities, and a small restaurant forming part of the residential complex and were provided to purchasers/occupants as part of the sale arrangement. Such facilities were not rendered by a club or association to its members in the statutory sense, but were amenities attached to the project.

Conclusion: The demand under Membership of Club or Association Services was not sustainable and was set aside in favour of the assessee.

Issue (ii): Whether electricity charges and backup power facility charges were taxable as Management, Maintenance or Repair Services.

Analysis: The electricity charges collected from occupants were based on meter readings and remitted to the electricity supplier, and no service element was shown in such collection. As regards backup power through generator sets, there was no evidence that any excess amount was collected as consideration for repair or maintenance of the generator sets. In the absence of such nexus, the collection could not be treated as taxable maintenance service.

Conclusion: The demand relating to electricity charges and backup power facility charges was not sustainable and was set aside in favour of the assessee.

Issue (iii): Whether interest on fixed deposits, maintenance deposits, and allied common facility receipts were taxable as consideration for Management, Maintenance or Repair Services.

Analysis: The agreements with flat owners required interest-free deposits and also contemplated recovery of maintenance and common facility expenses, including upkeep of the club house and other common amenities. The subsequent resolution did not cancel the contractual arrangement but revised the maintenance charges and provided for adjustment of deposits against the outstanding liability. The interest earned on the deposits and the deposits appropriated towards maintenance formed part of the consideration for the upkeep and management of the complex. The claim that a portion of the deposits was not received was unsupported by evidence.

Conclusion: The demands relating to interest on fixed deposits, maintenance deposits, and allied common facility receipts were taxable and were upheld against the assessee.

Issue (iv): Whether invocation of the extended period of limitation was justified.

Analysis: The assessee did not establish payment or disclosure of service tax on the management and maintenance receipts during the relevant period. The record supported the finding that the taxable value and related receipts were not disclosed to the department, warranting the allegation of suppression.

Conclusion: Invocation of the extended period of limitation was justified and was upheld against the assessee.

Final Conclusion: The appeal succeeded only in respect of the club house facilities and electricity-related collections, while the demands relating to interest on deposits, maintenance deposits, and limitation were sustained.

Ratio Decidendi: Amenities attached to a housing complex are not taxable as club or association services merely because they are available to occupants, but interest-free deposits and amounts appropriated toward maintenance constitute taxable consideration for management, maintenance or repair services when they are contractually linked to upkeep of the complex and suppression is established.

Issues: Whether the petitioner was entitled to a direction for release of the balance GST refund together with applicable interest notwithstanding administrative delay in revalidation and processing of the sanctioned refund orders.

Analysis: The refund had already been sanctioned, but only a part of the amount remained disbursed. The pending amount was held up only on account of procedural steps such as revalidation of earlier sanction orders. The Court treated such procedural obstacles as insufficient to justify withholding a legally due refund, particularly where the sanctioned amount was already ascertainable and payable under the GST framework.

Conclusion: The petitioner was held entitled to a direction for refund of the outstanding amount together with applicable interest.

Final Conclusion: The writ petition succeeded in substance, and the authorities were directed to complete the refund process within the time fixed by the Court.

Ratio Decidendi: A sanctioned GST refund cannot be withheld merely because of internal procedural or administrative delays, and once the entitlement is established, the amount due must be released with applicable statutory interest.

Issues: (i) Whether penalty under section 270A(9) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 was sustainable where the charge in the notice and assessment order referred to under-reporting of income in consequence of misreporting; (ii) Whether an application for immunity under section 270AA of the Income-tax Act, 1961 could be rejected as not maintainable where penalty proceedings had been initiated under section 270A(9); (iii) Whether penalty was exigible on the disallowance made under section 43B of the Income-tax Act, 1961 in respect of labour cess, in the facts of the case.

Issue (i): Whether penalty under section 270A(9) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 was sustainable where the charge in the notice and assessment order referred to under-reporting of income in consequence of misreporting.

Analysis: The assessment order and the show-cause notice together disclosed a clear satisfaction that the assessee was proceeded against for under-reporting of income in consequence of misreporting. The omission to specify the exact clause of section 270A(9) did not vitiate the proceedings because the charge itself was clear and the assessee had responded to the notice. The facts were distinguishable from cases where the assessment order contained no finding indicating attraction of any clause under section 270A(9).

Conclusion: The penalty proceedings were not invalid for want of clear satisfaction, and the objection based on vagueness of notice failed.

Issue (ii): Whether an application for immunity under section 270AA of the Income-tax Act, 1961 could be rejected as not maintainable where penalty proceedings had been initiated under section 270A(9).

Analysis: Immunity under section 270AA is available only where the case is not one of penalty initiated under the misreporting limb of section 270A(9). Once the proceedings were specifically initiated under section 270A(9), the application for immunity did not survive. In such a situation, the question of passing a separate order on the application under section 270AA(4) did not arise.

Conclusion: The application for immunity was not maintainable and the grievance based on non-disposal under section 270AA failed.

Issue (iii): Whether penalty was exigible on the disallowance made under section 43B of the Income-tax Act, 1961 in respect of labour cess, in the facts of the case.

Analysis: The assessee had disclosed the liability in the tax audit report and the omission was found to be an inadvertent mistake while computing income. The addition merely reduced the returned loss and did not create an additional tax burden for the year, making the adjustment tax-neutral. On these facts, the explanation was bona fide and all material facts had been disclosed, bringing the case within the exclusion from under-reported income contemplated by section 270A(6).

Conclusion: Penalty under section 270A(9) was not leviable on the disallowance and had to be deleted.

Final Conclusion: The penalty order was set aside and the assessee succeeded on the substantive challenge to the levy.

Ratio Decidendi: Where the assessee has made full disclosure of the relevant facts, the omission is a bona fide inadvertent error, and the adjustment is tax-neutral, the case falls outside penal consequences for under-reporting in consequence of misreporting under section 270A of the Income-tax Act, 1961.

Issues: Whether the services of imparting English, foreign language and computer training to students for employment-oriented purposes fall within the exemption available to a vocational training institute and are therefore not taxable as commercial training or coaching service.

Analysis: The relevant notifications defined a vocational training institute as one providing training that imparts skills enabling the trainee to seek employment or undertake self-employment directly after such training. The Board circular and the cited precedents recognised foreign language and computer training as vocational where the training is designed to improve employability. The nature of the coaching, and not the status of the language taught, was held to be determinative. The later amendment and circular could not be applied retrospectively to deny the exemption for the relevant period.

Conclusion: The courses conducted by the appellants were held to fall within the category of vocational training institute and were exempt from service tax.

Final Conclusion: The service tax demands were unsustainable, and the appellants succeeded on the principal exemption issue.

Ratio Decidendi: Training that directly imparts employability-oriented skills, including foreign language and computer coaching, qualifies as vocational training where the governing exemption notification so defines the term, and subsequent clarificatory changes cannot be used retrospectively to withdraw that benefit for the relevant period.

Issues: (i) Whether the services of remediation of waste dump sites and disposal of waste fractions fall under SAC 9994 and attract GST at 18%; (ii) Whether such services, when rendered as pure services to a Governmental Authority in relation to a municipal function, are exempt under Sl. No. 3 of Notification No. 12/2017-CT (Rate) dated 28.06.2017.

Issue (i): Whether the services of remediation of waste dump sites and disposal of waste fractions fall under SAC 9994 and attract GST at 18%.

Analysis: The work involved excavation, screening, segregation, bio-mining, and scientific disposal of legacy waste. The activity was held to comprise site remediation as well as waste treatment and disposal. On classification, the service was placed broadly under Heading 9994, with the remediation component falling within Group 99944 and the waste processing component falling within Group 99943. The service was therefore treated as falling within the classification for sewage, waste collection, treatment, disposal, and environmental protection services.

Conclusion: The service falls under SAC 9994 and is chargeable to GST at 18%.

Issue (ii): Whether such services, when rendered as pure services to a Governmental Authority in relation to a municipal function, are exempt under Sl. No. 3 of Notification No. 12/2017-CT (Rate) dated 28.06.2017.

Analysis: The service involved no supply of goods and was therefore treated as pure services. The recipient was found to be a Governmental Authority because it was established by a State Legislature enactment. The underlying activity related to solid waste management, which is a function entrusted to a municipality under Article 243W of the Constitution. The statutory conditions for the exemption entry were therefore satisfied.

Conclusion: The services are exempt under Sl. No. 3 of Notification No. 12/2017-CT (Rate) dated 28.06.2017.

Final Conclusion: The ruling determines both the classification and taxability of the services, while declining to answer the third question as outside the advance ruling scope.

Ratio Decidendi: Waste remediation and bio-mining services are classifiable under Heading 9994, and pure services rendered to a Governmental Authority in relation to a municipal function qualify for exemption under the relevant notification.

Issues: (i) Whether tax paid on leasing, renting or hiring of motor vehicles used to provide transport facility to women employees working in shifts is eligible as input tax credit; (ii) Whether the entire credit on such transport facility is available for all shifts or only for transport of women employees between 8.00 p.m. and 6.00 a.m.; (iii) Whether the credit is available from the date of introduction of the proviso to section 17(5)(b) of the GST law.

Issue (i): Whether tax paid on leasing, renting or hiring of motor vehicles used to provide transport facility to women employees working in shifts is eligible as input tax credit.

Analysis: Input tax credit on leasing, renting or hiring of motor vehicles falls within the blocked credit provision in section 17(5)(b), but the proviso permits credit where an employer is legally obliged to provide the facility under any law for the time being in force. The Government of Tamil Nadu notification made transport arrangements mandatory for women employees working in shifts, and the CBIC circular clarified that the proviso applies to the whole of clause (b). Since the facility was provided to comply with the statutory obligation, the credit is not barred, subject to satisfaction of the general conditions for availment.

Conclusion: The credit is admissible in principle and is in favour of the assessee, subject to section 16 conditions.

Issue (ii): Whether the entire credit on such transport facility is available for all shifts or only for transport of women employees between 8.00 p.m. and 6.00 a.m.

Analysis: The statutory obligation was confined to providing transport arrangements for women employees working in shifts and ensuring their safety during work between 8.00 p.m. and 6.00 a.m. The ruling limited eligibility to the portion of transportation attributable to that legally mandated arrangement and did not extend it to transport provided for all employees or to facilities beyond the mandatory scope.

Conclusion: The credit is available only to the extent of transport provided for women employees arriving at or leaving the workplace between 8.00 p.m. and 6.00 a.m., and not for the entire transport facility.

Issue (iii): Whether the credit is available from the date of introduction of the proviso to section 17(5)(b) of the GST law.

Analysis: Although the proviso to section 17(5)(b) came into force from 01.02.2019, the legal obligation under the relevant Tamil Nadu notification was treated as arising from 28.05.2019. The credit was therefore held available only from that date, and even then it remained subject to the time-limit and other conditions under section 16.

Conclusion: The credit is available from 28.05.2019 onwards, not from 01.02.2019.

Final Conclusion: The ruling recognises eligibility of input tax credit for statutorily mandated transport for women employees, but confines it to the compulsory night-shift transport and limits its commencement to the date from which the underlying statutory obligation was operational.

Ratio Decidendi: When a supply otherwise falling within blocked credit is made obligatory by law for an employer, the proviso to section 17(5)(b) permits input tax credit, but only to the extent of the statutory obligation and subject to the general conditions and time limits governing availment of credit.

Issues: (i) Whether the notice dated 03.04.2022 issued under section 148 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 for A.Y. 2015-16 was barred by limitation under the first proviso to section 149(1) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 and consequently whether the assessment framed under section 147 r.w.s. 144 r.w.s. 144B of the Income-tax Act, 1961 dated 21.02.2024 is liable to be quashed.

Analysis: The issued notice under section 148 was dated 03.04.2022 and the un-amended time limit under clause (b) of sub-section (1) of section 149 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 permitted issuance of a notice for A.Y.2015-16 only up to 31.03.2022. The first proviso to section 149(1) (as enacted by Finance Act, 2021) prohibits issuance of a notice under section 148 for assessment years beginning on or before 01.04.2021 if such a notice could not have been issued at that time because it was beyond the time limit specified under clause (b) of sub-section (1) of section 149 as it stood immediately before the commencement of the Finance Act, 2021. The provisions in the amended section 149 that exclude periods (fifth and sixth provisos) qualify the amended substantive section and cannot be read into the pre-amendment limitation governed by the first proviso; thus exclusion under the fifth and sixth provisos cannot validate a notice that is already barred by the first proviso. Reliance on relevant authoritative decisions applying the first proviso to section 149(1) supports the conclusion that notices issued after the expiry of the pre-amendment six-year period are invalid where the first proviso applies.

Conclusion: The notice dated 03.04.2022 issued under section 148 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 for A.Y. 2015-16 was barred by limitation under the first proviso to section 149(1) of the Income-tax Act, 1961; consequently the assessment order dated 21.02.2024 passed under section 147 r.w.s. 144 r.w.s. 144B of the Income-tax Act, 1961 is quashed and the appeal is allowed in favour of the assessee.

Issues: Whether notices issued under Section 142(1) and the Assessment Order framed under Section 143(3) read with Section 144B, together with consequential demand and penalty notices, are valid where they are issued in the name of an amalgamating/transferor company that had ceased to exist on the date of issuance despite intimation of amalgamation to the tax authorities.

Analysis: The authorities instituted and concluded faceless assessment proceedings, served notices under Section 142(1), issued a show cause notice, passed an assessment order under Section 143(3) read with Section 144B, and issued consequential demand and penalty notices in the name of the transferor/amalgamating company which, pursuant to an NCLT-approved scheme of amalgamation and subsequent filing of Form INC-28, had ceased to exist. The petitioner's communications notifying the amalgamation were placed on record and the petitioner repeatedly objected to continuation of proceedings in the name of the non-existent entity. Relevant legal principles examined include the effect of an approved scheme of amalgamation on the legal existence of the transferor company and the validity of jurisdictional notices framed in the name of an entity that has ceased to exist. Binding and persuasive authorities on the point establish that where an amalgamating entity ceases to exist and the assessing authority is informed of that fact, proceedings and jurisdictional notices issued only in the name of the non-existent entity constitute a jurisdictional defect rendering those proceedings void. Distinguishing authorities where no intimation was given or where proceedings were conducted in the names of both entities, the factual matrix here involves timely intimation and repeated objections by the resultant company, supporting the view that continuation and completion of proceedings in the name of the non-existent transferor company was legally impermissible.

Conclusion: The notices under Section 142(1), the show cause notice, the Assessment Order dated 21.03.2024 under Section 143(3) read with Section 144B, the demand notice under Section 156, and the penalty notice under Section 274 read with Section 270A, all being issued and framed in the name of the amalgamating/transferor company which had ceased to exist, are void and are quashed and set aside; decision is in favour of the assessee.

Issues: Whether the District Registrar had power under Section 68(2) of the Registration Act, 1908 to cancel registered sale deeds by nullifying them on the basis of alleged fraud.

Analysis: Section 68(2) confers supervisory authority on the Registrar to issue orders concerning the acts or omissions of subordinate Sub-Registrars and rectification of errors regarding the book or office in which a document has been registered. It does not confer an express power to cancel or nullify a registered document. The power to cancel registration is a substantive power and cannot be assumed in the absence of clear statutory authorisation. Disputes involving title, civil rights, consideration, or alleged fraud in the execution of documents are matters for the civil court, especially when a civil suit and counter claim are already pending. Administrative registration authorities cannot adjudicate civil rights through summary proceedings, and any interference beyond an error-correcting function would amount to jurisdictional overreach.

Conclusion: The District Registrar was not empowered to cancel the sale deeds under Section 68(2) of the Registration Act, 1908, and the order nullifying the documents was unsustainable; the issue is decided in favour of the appellants.

Ratio Decidendi: In the absence of express statutory authority, a Registrar exercising supervisory powers under the Registration Act cannot cancel a registered document or adjudicate disputed civil rights, which must be left to the competent civil court.

Issues: Whether Rule 86A of the Central Goods and Service Tax Rules, 2017 can be invoked to block or prevent utilization of input tax credit in the electronic credit ledger of the petitioner where the allegation in the show-cause notice pertains to wrongful availment of input tax credit by the recipient of supply (M/s. Million Lights) and not wrongful availment by the petitioner.

Analysis: Rule 86A permits restriction of debit of electronic credit ledger where the credit has been fraudulently availed or is ineligible by the person who availed the credit, including situations where invoices are issued by a non-existent registered person, goods or services were not received, tax charged has not been paid to the Government, the registered person availing credit is non-existent at the registered place of business, or the registered person is not in possession of prescribed documents; the restriction may be removed when those conditions no longer exist and ceases after one year. The show-cause notice alleges that the petitioner issued invoices without underlying supply and that the recipient wrongfully availed credit; the allegations do not assert that the petitioner itself fraudulently availed or is ineligible for input tax credit or that the petitioner is non-existent or not conducting business at the registered place. Applying the plain text and scope of Rule 86A to the facts pleaded in the notice, the statutory power to block debit of the electronic credit ledger cannot be exercised against a person whose own entitlement to credit is not in issue, merely because a recipient is alleged to have wrongfully availed credit based on invoices issued by the person.

Conclusion: The power under Rule 86A cannot be invoked against the petitioner on the basis that the recipient allegedly wrongfully availed input tax credit; the show-cause notice is without jurisdiction and is set aside, and the petitioner's electronic credit ledger shall be unblocked forthwith.

Issues: (i) Whether the Commissioner of Income-tax (Exemptions) was justified in rejecting the assessee's application for registration under Section 12AB of the Income-tax Act, 1961 on the ground that the trust's activities were not genuine due to non-commencement and related omissions; (ii) Whether the Commissioner was justified in rejecting the assessee's application for approval under Section 80G of the Income-tax Act, 1961 for the same reasons.

Issue (i): Rejection of application for registration under Section 12AB on ground of non-genuineness of activities.

Analysis: The statutory test requires satisfaction as to the objects of the trust and genuineness of its activities. The authorities and precedents recognise that "activities" include proposed activities and that mere non-commencement at the time of application is not ipso facto proof of non-genuineness. The assessee demonstrated charitable objects, acquisition of land for educational/medical institution, documentary disclosure of fixed assets in financials, steps taken for conversion of land, change of trustees and subsequent steps toward commencement, and receipt of donations after provisional registration. The Commissioner's concerns about omission in a form column and outstanding unsecured loans were addressed by contemporaneous financial statements and explanation of funding sources; those facts did not establish that activities were contrary to objects or that assets/loans were not genuine. Applicable precedent supports remand/allowance where proposed activities are charitable and subsequent steps corroborate genuineness.

Conclusion: The rejection of the Section 12AB application on the ground that activities were not genuine is not justified; registration must be granted and the impugned order quashed.

Issue (ii): Rejection of application for approval under Section 80G for same reasons as Section 12AB rejection.

Analysis: The grounds and evidence relevant to registration under Section 12AB are identical to those considered for grant of approval under Section 80G. Having held that the Section 12AB rejection was unjustified for the reasons above, the parallel rejection of the Section 80G application cannot be sustained.

Conclusion: The rejection of the Section 80G application is not justified; approval under Section 80G must be granted.

Final Conclusion: The orders rejecting the applications under Section 12AB and Section 80G are quashed and the Commissioner is directed to grant registration under Section 12AB (issue Form 10AD) and approval under Section 80G, subject to the Assessing Officer's power to examine entitlement to exemption on returns filed.

Ratio Decidendi: Mere non-commencement of proposed charitable activities at the time of application does not constitute a specified violation to deny registration where the trust's objects are charitable, proposed activities are in furtherance of those objects, and contemporaneous evidence shows genuineness of assets and funding; registration authorities must consider proposed activities and subsequent developments before denying registration.

Issues: (i) Whether the petitioner is liable to pay service tax where the value of services rendered falls within the exemption threshold of Rs. 10,00,000/- and whether the impugned adjudication and recovery can be sustained where proceedings were ex parte and demands were based on inputs from income tax returns.

Analysis: The petition challenges the Order-in-Original, the appellate order and consequential recovery on the ground that service tax liability would not arise if the value of services rendered is within the statutory exemption threshold. The Court applied the framework reflected in the earlier decision remanding W.P. No. 11154/2023, which directs consideration of (a) qualification under Section 65B(44) of the Finance Act, 1994, (b) applicability of the negative list, (c) applicability of Notification No. 25/2012-ST dated 28.06.2012 or other exemptions, (d) liability under Rule 2(1)(d) read with applicable notifications, and (e) limitation. The impugned appellate order did not undertake full adjudication because the petitioner did not appear below and the Order-in-Original had been upheld without addressing the grounds urged in appeal. The Court extended the approach in W.P. No. 11154/2023 and held that demands or adjudication based solely on inputs from income tax returns or without affording an opportunity to file replies or place evidence are not sustainable; the matters must be reconsidered from the stage of reply to the show-cause notice so that the petitioner can demonstrate whether the value of services falls within the exemption threshold and invoke applicable negative list or notifications.

Conclusion: The Order-in-Original at Annexure-A is set aside; the Order in Appeal at Annexure-B is set aside; the recovery at Annexure-C is set aside; the matter is remitted to the stage of reply to the show-cause notice for fresh consideration in accordance with the observations noted, and the petitioner is permitted to file a fresh reply and place evidence.

Final Conclusion: The petition is allowed by setting aside the impugned orders and recovery and remitting the matter for fresh adjudication from the stage of reply to the show-cause notice to determine liability in light of the exemption threshold, negative list and applicable notifications.

Ratio Decidendi: An order demanding service tax cannot be sustained if based solely on inputs from income tax returns without affording the assessee an opportunity to reply and place evidence; matters must be reconsidered from the stage of show-cause notice to determine applicability of the exemption threshold, negative list and relevant notifications.

Issues: Whether the impugned order dated 19.11.2025 rejecting the petitioner's refund claim ought to be quashed and the matter remanded to Respondent No.2 for de novo consideration.

Analysis: The Court examined the record and the manner in which Respondent No.2 decided the refund application, noting that the authority did not adequately consider the petitioner's contentions regarding the contractual arrangements, the applicability of Section 13(8) of the IGST Act, 2017 and relevant circulars and precedents. The Court referred to analogous decisions where similar issues required detailed appellate re-examination and observed that the impugned order reflects insufficient appreciation of the points raised, including issues touching upon intermediary characterization and the applicability of export of services principles; accordingly, a fresh adjudication by the authority after hearing the parties is necessary.

Conclusion: The impugned order dated 19.11.2025 is quashed and set aside and the proceedings are remanded to Respondent No.2 for de novo consideration and fresh decision in accordance with law within three months, with all contentions of the parties kept open.

Issues: Whether the Order in Originals rejecting TRAN 1 and TRAN 2 for the period July 2017 to March 2022 should be set aside and the matters remitted to the Adjudicating Authority for fresh consideration in view of documents and records subsequently produced by the petitioner.

Analysis: The adjudicating orders recorded non matching of quantity and value of inputs with TRAN credit availed and noted absence of detailed stock registers and supporting invoices. Subsequent to the impugned orders, the petitioner produced documents before the Authority (including materials referred to at Annexure E) and the Authority sought CA certified closing stock, purchase invoices and sales register for part of the relevant period. The petitioners were afforded an opportunity to satisfy the Authority by producing supporting records and the Authority has invited further certified copies to verify the claims. In these circumstances, the procedural fairness requirement and the need to consider additional material produced after the original orders warrant setting aside the impugned orders and remitting the matters for fresh adjudication so that the Authority may examine the newly produced evidence and decide on the validity of the TRAN credits.

Conclusion: The impugned Order in Originals rejecting TRAN 1 and TRAN 2 are set aside and both matters are remitted to the Adjudicating Authority for fresh consideration in accordance with law; all contentions are left open.

Issues: Whether the Order-in-Original (annexed adjudication) and consequent recovery notice, issued on the basis of information from income tax returns and without participation of the petitioner, are liable to be set aside and the matter remitted to the stage of filing reply to the show-cause notice.

Analysis: The impugned adjudication was examined in light of earlier directions and observations recorded in W.P. No.11154/2023 which required consideration of whether the services fall within Section 65B(44) of the Finance Act, 1994, whether they are on the negative list, whether exemptions such as Notification No.25/2012-ST dated 28.06.2012 apply, whether liability to remit service tax arises under Rule 2(1)(d) read with applicable notifications, and whether claims are barred by limitation. The petitioner asserted non-participation in the adjudication proceedings, bona fide lapse leading to inability to place evidence that the demand had been satisfied, and reliance was placed on the coordinate bench directions to relegate matters to the stage of reply to show-cause notice. Considering the assertion that the demand was already satisfied and the need for opportunity to file reply, the adjudication and recovery proceedings were reviewed and the matter was ordered to be returned to the stage of reply for fresh consideration by the officers, with specific directions that the observations in para-10 of W.P. No.11154/2023 be taken into account.

Conclusion: The Order-in-Original is set aside and the recovery notice is set aside; the matter is remitted to the stage of reply to the show-cause notice and the petitioner is permitted to file a fresh reply and appear before the designated authority.

Ratio Decidendi: Where an adjudication is rendered without participation and on the basis of automated inputs from tax returns, and the affected party asserts satisfaction of the demand and seeks opportunity to file reply, the appropriate remedy is to set aside the ex parte Order-in-Original and remit the matter to the stage of reply for fresh adjudication after considering statutory classifications, applicable notifications, and limitation.

Issues: Whether notices, show cause notices, assessment order and consequential demand and penalty notices issued and framed in the name of an amalgamating company which had ceased to exist on the relevant date are void and liable to be quashed.

Analysis: The issue was examined in light of settled propositions that on sanction of a scheme of amalgamation the amalgamating/transferor company ceases to exist and that proceedings conducted in the name of a non-existent entity where the fact of amalgamation was brought to the notice of the tax authorities constitute a jurisdictional error. Relevant statutory provisions under which notices and assessment were issued include Sections 142(1), 143(2), 143(3), 144B and Section 156, and penalty provisions under Sections 274 and 270A of the Income-tax Act, 1961. Prior judicial decisions holding that an amalgamating company loses corporate existence and that continuation of proceedings in its name after intimation of amalgamation is void were applied. Distinctions with authorities relied on by the Revenue were drawn on factual grounds where the resultant company did not inform authorities or participated in proceedings; here, the amalgamation had been duly intimated and objections were raised at the earliest opportunity.

Conclusion: The notices under Section 142(1), the show cause notices, the assessment order dated 23.03.2024 under Section 143(3) read with Section 144B, the consequential notice under Section 156 and the penalty notice under Sections 274 read with 270A, all issued in the name of the amalgamating company which had ceased to exist, are void and are quashed and set aside. The writ petition is allowed.

Ratio Decidendi: Where an amalgamating company has ceased to exist pursuant to a sanctioned scheme of amalgamation and that fact has been duly intimated to the tax authorities, issuance of jurisdictional notices or framing of assessment in the name of the non-existent amalgamating entity is a jurisdictional error rendering such notices and orders void.

Issues: (i) Whether the petitioner was entitled to provisional release of the imported boat on furnishing specified cash security and a bond for the balance differential duty pending final determination of classification and applicability of Indo Sri Lanka Free Trade Agreement (ISFTA) benefits.

Analysis: The Court noted that the substantive question regarding classification and applicability of ISFTA benefits was pending consideration by the designated authority and that if proper classification entitled the petitioner to ISFTA benefits, exemption and refund could follow. In the interim, the Court examined whether adequate security had been furnished for the differential duty computed by the authorities. The petitioner had already deposited Rs. 8,04,303 and expressed willingness to deposit Rs. 75,00,000 in cash and to furnish a bond undertaking payment of any remaining liability. The Court treated such deposits and the proposed bond as sufficient security for the differential duty pending final adjudication, and recognised the recoverability of any additional liability in accordance with the relevant statutory scheme.

Conclusion: The petitioner is entitled to provisional release of the boat on deposit of Rs. 75,00,000 in cash (in addition to the Rs. 8,04,303 already deposited) and on furnishing a bond for the balance differential duty; all contentions on classification and ISFTA applicability are kept open for decision by the designated officer.

Issues: Whether the petitioner was entitled to a fresh opportunity of hearing and a fresh order on the show cause notice in view of the demand being pursued against him in relation to his deceased father.

Analysis: The petition arose from a tax recovery pursued after the death of the registered person. In the peculiar facts, the Court considered it appropriate that the petitioner be given another opportunity to place all contentions before the Deputy Commissioner. The Court also directed that, on a specific application, documents relating to the show cause notice be furnished, and thereafter a fresh order be passed in accordance with law within the stipulated time. The challenge to the statutory provisions was expressly left open.

Conclusion: The petitioner was granted a further hearing before the authority and the matter was sent back for fresh consideration, with all substantive contentions kept open.

Issues: Whether the delay of 113 days in acceptance/verification of Form No.10B for A.Y.2020-21 should be condoned under Section 119(2)(b) of the Income-tax Act, 1961, and whether the impugned order dated 11.02.2025 rejecting the condonation application should be quashed and set aside.

Analysis: The delay is a short period of 113 days and occurred in the context of COVID-19 disruptions including lockdowns and extensions of compliance dates. The audit report was filed by the auditor within time and the acceptance/verification lapse arose from inadvertence by an elderly managing trustee working from home. Preponement of the due date for filing Form No.10B for A.Y.2020-21 contributed to confusion, and time extensions granted during the pandemic are relevant background. Consideration of hardship is a relevant factor under Section 119(2)(b); refusal to condone would result in denial of exemption under Section 11 and a substantial demand. Previously decided judgments at the same court and comparable authorities support a justice-oriented, liberal exercise of discretion where delay is bona fide and genuine hardship would follow.

Conclusion: The impugned order dated 11.02.2025 is quashed and set aside; the delay of 113 days in filing/acceptance of Form No.10B for A.Y.2020-21 is condoned and the return shall be processed as filed within time. The decision is in favour of the assessee.

Ratio Decidendi: The discretionary power under Section 119(2)(b) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 to condone delay must be exercised to advance substantial justice where a bona fide short delay is shown and genuine hardship would result from refusal.