Just a moment...
By creating an account you can:
No Folders have been created
Are you sure you want to delete "My most important" ?
NOTE:
Note
Bookmark
Share
Don't have an account? Register Here
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether an adjudication order passed under Section 74 of the GST Act is vitiated where the tax periods referred to in the final order do not correspond with the tax periods mentioned in the show-cause notice.
2. Whether a writ under Articles 226 & 227 of the Constitution is maintainable to quash and remit a GST adjudication order where there is apparent non-application of mind or mechanical computation in the demand notice arising from mismatch of periods and figures.
3. Whether the appropriate remedy on finding such clerical or material discrepancies is to set aside the order and remit the matter to the assessing/adjudicating authority for fresh adjudication after affording opportunity of hearing, and whether the Court should express any opinion on the substantive merits when remitting.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Validity of adjudication where order periods do not match show-cause notice periods
Legal framework: Adjudication under Section 74 of the Central/State GST Acts must proceed upon the show-cause notice specifying the tax periods under consideration; principles of fair adjudication require that the demand be based on the matters and periods put to notice and that the order reflect reasoned consideration of those matters.
Precedent Treatment: No prior decisions were cited or relied upon by the Court in the judgment; therefore no precedent was followed, distinguished or overruled in the present reasoning.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court examined the record and found an inconsistency between the periods mentioned in the show-cause notice and the figures and calculations in the final order. The summary portion of the adjudication referred to April 2020-March 2021, while the numerical calculations and appended table reflected figures pertaining to earlier years (2018-19 and 2019-20). Such mismatch indicates that the demand as quantified in the order does not correspond to the periods that were the subject of the show-cause notice. The anomaly suggested non-application of mind or mechanical computation rather than a reasoned adjudication on the matters actually put in issue.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - An adjudication order under the GST Act is vitiated when the demand quantified in the order does not correspond to the tax periods specified in the show-cause notice, because that reflects a failure to adjudicate on the notice as issued.
Conclusions: The Court held that the discrepancy between notice periods and the figures in the order rendered the adjudication infirm and justified interference.
Issue 2 - Maintainability of writ remedy for quashing and remittal where there is apparent non-application of mind
Legal framework: Articles 226 & 227 confer jurisdiction to supervise and correct administrative orders which are illegal, perverse, or suffer from non-application of mind; administrative action must be reasoned and in conformity with principles of natural justice, including fair notice and opportunity to be heard.
Precedent Treatment: No specific authorities were invoked; Court's approach is based on supervisory constitutional jurisdiction to correct patent procedural or substantive defects demonstrated on the record.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court found on the record - and the Department's counsel conceded - that the calculations in the adjudication did not match the periods mentioned in the notice, establishing a prima facie defect of a clerical/material mismatch and lack of proper adjudicative application. Given the concession and documentary inconsistency, the Court considered it appropriate to exercise writ jurisdiction to set aside the order and remit the matter for fresh adjudication rather than to attempt to resolve the factual or substantive disputes within the writ proceeding.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Where an adjudication order displays manifest inconsistency with the issuing show-cause notice and indicates non-application of mind, supervisory jurisdiction under Articles 226/227 permits setting aside and remitting the matter for fresh adjudication after affording opportunity to the party.
Conclusions: The Court held the writ petition maintainable and ordered the impugned order set aside and remitted for fresh adjudication consistent with the show-cause notice.
Issue 3 - Appropriate remedial course and scope of judicial commentary on merits when remitting
Legal framework: Remittal is an accepted remedy where administrative orders are vitiated by procedural defects, with courts generally avoiding expression of views on the substantive merits so as not to pre-empt the adjudicating authority's fresh exercise of jurisdiction; affected parties must be afforded opportunity to raise objections as available under law.
Precedent Treatment: The judgment does not cite precedent but follows established supervisory practice of remittal without deciding merits.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court, having set aside the order, directed the assessing authority to proceed afresh on the show-cause notice and to afford the petitioner a hearing. The Court explicitly refrained from expressing any opinion on the merits of the underlying tax demand and clarified that the authority is free to pass a reasoned order uninfluenced by the Court's observations. A time-bound direction of two months was given to complete the process, and liberty was preserved to the petitioner to raise all available objections.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - On finding procedural infirmity manifest on record, the appropriate remedy is remittal to the adjudicating authority to re-adjudicate after opportunity of hearing, with the court abstaining from opining on merits; time-limits may be imposed to ensure expeditious disposition.
Conclusions: The Court ordered remittal for fresh adjudication in accordance with the show-cause notice, directed compliance with principles of natural justice, restrained itself from expressing any opinion on substantive merits, and imposed a two-month timeline for completion of the exercise.
Cross-references
The findings on Issues 1 and 2 are interlinked: the material mismatch of tax periods (Issue 1) constituted non-application of mind warranting exercise of writ jurisdiction and remittal (Issue 2). The remedy described in Issue 3 follows from the Court's conclusions on Issues 1 and 2.
Challenge to adjudication order - figures of tax, interest and penalty mentioned therein does not commensurate with the reasoned order passed and enclosed thereto - non-application of mind - violation of principles of natural justice - HELD THAT:- This Court is satisfied that the periods stated in the show cause notice and the order impugned does not match. Therefore, indulgence in the matter is warranted. This Court, hence, sets aside the order dated 23rd July, 2025 and remit the matter to the State Tax Officer, Ganjam Circle-I, Ganjam, Berhampur to proceed further with the show-cause notice dated 16th May, 2025 issued under Section 74 of the GST Act and pass adjudication order afresh after affording the petitioner opportunity of hearing. It is clarified that this Court has not expressed any opinion on the merits of the adjudication. The petitioner is at liberty to raise objections as is available to it under law and participate in the proceeding. The authority concerned is free to pass reasoned order thereon without being influenced by any of the observation made. The entire exercise shall be completed within a period of two months from date.
The writ petition is disposed of.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether a taxpayer is entitled to interest under Section 56 of the CGST Act where the proper officer failed to issue a deficiency memo within the 15-day period prescribed by Rule 90 of the CGST Rules, thereby delaying processing of a refund application.
2. The rate and computation of interest payable on delayed refunds under Section 56 of the CGST Act: application of the main provision (up to 6% p.a.) vis-à-vis the proviso (up to 9% p.a.) where refund claims attain finality in appellate proceedings or where a subsequent refund application is filed pursuant to such finality.
3. The effect of the applicant's own delay in responding to a deficiency memo on entitlement to interest for the period of such delay.
4. The appropriate remedial directions a Court may give where refund applications remain pending in breach of statutory timelines, including directions for personal appearance and final disposal within a fixed period.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Entitlement to interest where deficiency memo not issued within 15 days (Rule 90): Legal framework
Legal framework: Section 54(1)-(7) (refund application, decision within 60 days if application complete) and Section 56 (interest on delayed refunds) of the CGST Act read with Rule 90 of the CGST Rules (time-limits and issuance of deficiency memos) govern refund procedure and interest for delay.
Precedent Treatment: The Court relied on its prior decision analysing the scheme of refund and timelines (referred decision) and applied those principles to the facts. The earlier judgement was followed to the extent it mapped statutory timelines onto interest entitlement and the consequences of deficiencies being raised outside Rule 90 timelines.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court held that where the deficiency memo required by Rule 90 is not issued within the 15-day statutory period, the delay caused thereby cannot be set up by the Department to deny interest. The statutory scheme contemplates that the proper officer must process a refund application within prescribed timelines once an application is complete; failure to adhere to Rule 90 disrupts that scheme and accrues liability for interest for the period attributable to the Department's failure.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - failure to issue a deficiency memo within the Rule 90 period disentitles the Department from relying on that late deficiency to defeat interest for the period of delay attributable to the Department. Obiter - observations on the broader business consequences of delayed refunds and administrative expediency.
Conclusions: The taxpayer was entitled to interest for the period during which the Department failed to issue the deficiency memo within the stipulated period; the Department could not deny interest for that period. The Court awarded relief by directing expeditious decision-making (see remedial directions, Issue 4).
Issue 2 - Rate and computation of interest under Section 56 (6% v. 9%): Legal framework
Legal framework: Section 56 provides interest on refunds not made within sixty days from receipt of a complete application at a rate not exceeding 6% p.a.; the proviso elevates that rate to not exceeding 9% p.a. where the refund claim arises from an order of an adjudicating or appellate authority or court which has attained finality, and the application filed consequent to such order is not processed within sixty days.
Precedent Treatment: The Court expressly followed and applied the reasoning in the earlier decision which analysed the dual-rate scheme, explaining that the main provision and the proviso operate for different periods and contingencies: 6% applies from the first application's expiry of sixty days; 9% applies for delay after filing an application consequent to final appellate orders.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court reiterated that the proviso does not supplant the main provision for the initial period; instead it supplements by providing a higher rate for the period post-filing of an application that follows appellate finality. Thus, interest must be computed in tranches corresponding to operative events (first application, subsequent application after appellate finality), with 6% applicable initially and 9% applicable where and when the proviso's conditions are met.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - clear prescription on temporal application of the two rates: 6% for delayed processing after an initial complete application; 9% for delayed processing of an application filed consequent to an appellate/ adjudicatory order attaining finality. Obiter - explanatory flow-chart style observations illustrating computation across multiple applications.
Conclusions: Interest entitlement and computation must follow the statutory bifurcation; where a second application is necessitated by appellate finality and remains unprocessed beyond sixty days, the higher rate applies for that period, while the lower rate applies for earlier periods as applicable.
Issue 3 - Effect of taxpayer's delay in responding to deficiency memo on interest entitlement: Legal framework
Legal framework: Rule 90 procedures for issuing deficiency memos and Section 56 interest; equitable consideration of delays attributable to either party when allocating periods for interest calculation.
Precedent Treatment: The Court applied the principle (as in the prior consideration) that interest should not be awarded for periods where delay is attributable to the taxpayer in remedying validly raised deficiencies, subject to the temporal validity of the deficiency itself (i.e., whether it was issued in time under Rule 90).
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court balanced the Department's failure (late issuance of deficiency memo) and the taxpayer's subsequent response time. It found that although the deficiency memo was not issued within the Rule 90 window (so initial delay was departmental), the petitioner took 74 days to respond to the deficiency - a period for which interest would not appropriately run in the petitioner's favour. The entitlement to interest is therefore apportioned to exclude periods of taxpayer-caused delay.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - entitlement to interest is reduced by periods where the applicant unreasonably delayed in curing deficiencies; the Department's lapse does not automatically yield interest for periods caused by taxpayer inaction. Obiter - the specific finding of 74 days' applicant delay is fact-specific.
Conclusions: Interest must be calculated net of the period when the taxpayer delayed responding to the deficiency memo; the Department remains liable for interest for the period caused by its late issuance of the deficiency memo.
Issue 4 - Remedial directions for delayed refunds and final disposal: Legal framework
Legal framework: The Court's supervisory jurisdiction under Articles 226/227 to enforce statutory timelines and to direct administrative action consistent with statutory obligations (refund adjudication under Sections 54-56 and Rule 90).
Precedent Treatment: The Court exercised the same supervisory power previously used to ensure compliance with statutory refund timelines and interest computation, following principles of expeditious decision-making where statutory timelines were breached.
Interpretation and reasoning: Recognizing the adverse commercial consequences of delayed refunds and the Department's statutory duty to process refund claims expeditiously, the Court directed the taxpayer to appear before the Department on a specified date and ordered that any outstanding deficiencies already pointed out be cleared and refund orders passed within one month in accordance with law. The Court left all rights and remedies open, indicating the directions were procedural and without prejudice.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - where statutory timelines are not complied with, the Court may direct prompt administrative action (including personal appearance and fixed-time disposal) while preserving parties' statutory rights. Obiter - observations on cascading adverse business effects of refund delays.
Conclusions: The Court issued procedural directions for attendance and clearance of deficiencies and required final disposal of refund applications within one month; rights and remedies of parties were preserved. The remedy targeted prompt adjudication consistent with statutory provisions and prior jurisprudence on interest entitlement.
Seeking expeditious disposal of the refund applications filed by the Petitioner with interest - refund of excess amount of Integrated Goods and Services Tax (IGST) - no deficiency memo was issued in terms of the timelines fixed within the 15 days - HELD THAT:- As per the statutorily prescribed procedure, the refund applications have to be dealt with in a particular manner within the prescribed timelines as per law. The scheme of the Act and Rules has been analysed by this Court in MS G S Industries v. Commissioner of Central Tax and GST Delhi West [2025 (5) TMI 2072 - DELHI HIGH COURT] has held that 'this Court is of the view that the Petitioner cannot be denied the benefit of interest for delay caused due to the deficiency memo not having been issued within the stipulated period, i.e., between 4th/9th July, 2019 and 29th November, 2019. At the same time, the Petitioner also took about 74 days to respond to the deficiency memo i.e., between 29th November, 2019 and 11th February, 2020.'
In addition, if there is delay by the Department in processing and granting refunds, it has a cascading adverse effect on the business of the tax payers as well. Under these circumstances, this Court is of the opinion that the Respondent ought to take a decision expeditiously on the refund applications.
Petition disposed off.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether an authority may lawfully issue a fresh or renewed provisional attachment order under Section 83(1) of the CGST/KGST Act after an earlier provisional attachment issued under that provision has ceased to have effect by efflux of one year under Section 83(2).
2. Whether a provisional attachment order issued after the statutory one-year period has expired is without jurisdiction, illegal and arbitrary, and whether such order must be quashed and the attached bank account restored to operability.
3. The proper interplay between Section 83(2) (statutory one-year lapse) and Rule 159(2) (requirement of written instructions to lift encumbrance), including whether any procedural misalignment can justify continued freezing of property after statutory lapse.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Power to re-issue or renew provisional attachment after lapse of one year
Legal framework: Section 83(1) confers power to provisionally attach property, including bank accounts, where the Commissioner forms an opinion that such attachment is necessary to protect government revenue; Section 83(2) provides that every such provisional attachment shall cease to have effect after one year from the date of the order. Rule 159 prescribes the manner of provisional attachment and removal, including Form GST DRC-22 and requirement of written instructions for removal (Rule 159(2)).
Precedent treatment: The Court relied on, followed and applied the reasoning of the Apex Court decision addressing whether a second/renewal provisional attachment may be issued after expiry of one year. The Apex Court held that issuance of a fresh provisional attachment after lapse cannot be justified where the statute contains no provision for renewal and that such practice would nullify Section 83(2). The Court also endorsed earlier observations on the draconian nature of Section 83(1) (Radha Krishan Industries and related authorities) emphasizing strict observance of statutory preconditions.
Interpretation and reasoning: A literal reading of Section 83(2) leads to the clear conclusion that a provisional attachment order ceases to have effect after one year. Granting the revenue the power to re-issue or renew an attachment after lapse would render subsection (2) otiose and enable circumvention of the statutory safeguard. Principles invoked include ut res magis valeat quam pereat (interpretation to give force to the statute), the rule that a statutory authority can only exercise powers conferred by statute or lawful executive instruction, and administrative law precedents allowing executive action to supplement but not supplant statutory provisions. The Court further noted the legislative choices in other taxing statutes (where extension/renewal is expressly provided) as supporting the inference that absence of renewal power in Section 83 indicates it was not intended.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - It is a legal principle of binding effect in this judgment that Section 83(2) precludes issuance of a fresh provisional attachment order upon expiry of the one-year period; such issuance is ultra vires and void. Obiter - observations concerning broader executive power doctrines and Constitutional jurisprudence were cited for context and reinforcement but do not alter the core ratio.
Conclusion: The authority lacks power to issue a second/renewed provisional attachment order after the initial order has ceased by efflux of one year under Section 83(2); any such order is invalid and liable to be quashed.
Issue 2 - Jurisdictional validity of attachment issued after expiry and relief of de-freezing bank account
Legal framework: Section 83(1)-(2) (power and one-year lapse) and Rule 159 procedure for attachment and release (Forms DRC-22/23 and requirement for written instructions to remove encumbrance).
Precedent treatment: The Court applied the Apex Court's conclusive holding that attachments issued after the statutory one-year period are impermissible and must be de-frozen; it also noted supporting High Court decisions and administrative recognition of the problem (GST Council proposals to amend Rule 159 and form text). The Court referenced authorities holding the provisional attachment power to be draconian and requiring strict compliance with statutory preconditions.
Interpretation and reasoning: An order passed after the statutory lapse is illegal, arbitrary and without jurisdiction because it attempts to reimpose a draconian pre-emptive measure beyond the life granted by statute. The Court rejected any suggestion that absence of an express prohibition amounts to implied permission. The Court acknowledged the practical misalignment-banks and agencies continue to maintain freezes absent written instructions-but held that procedural lapses in Rule 159 cannot justify continued freezing once Section 83(2) has operated to terminate the attachment.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - An impugned provisional attachment passed after expiry of the one-year statutory period is subject-matter jurisdictionally void and must be quashed; the attached bank account must be rendered operable. Obiter - comments about practical difficulties and the GST Council's proposed remedial amendments are explanatory and policy-oriented, not determinative of the core legal holding.
Conclusion: The attachment order issued after expiry of the one-year period is quashed; the revenue may pursue other lawful proceedings (but not fresh attachment under Section 83), and the bank account must be freed for operation in consequence of the quashment.
Issue 3 - Interaction between Section 83(2) and Rule 159(2); administrative/institutional misalignment
Legal framework: Section 83(2) effects statutory lapse after one year; Rule 159(2) requires written instructions from the Commissioner to remove encumbrance placed on property by attachment.
Precedent treatment: The Court noted recognition by courts and the GST Council of misalignment between the Act and the Rules; the Law Committee/GST Council proposed amendments to Rule 159(2) and Form DRC-22 to expressly reflect that the attachment ceases on expiry of one year or earlier upon issuance of FORM DRC-23.
Interpretation and reasoning: The existence of Rule 159(2) cannot be read to negate the statutory cessation mandated by Section 83(2). Administrative procedures that result in continued de-facto freezes post-lapse cannot confer lawful authority to the revenue. Where statutory law and subordinate rules are misaligned, the statute prevails; until rules are amended to conform, executive action must adhere strictly to statutory limits. The Court observed that the GST Council's proposed amendments demonstrate legislative/administrative acknowledgment that the one-year lapse must be respected in practice.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Procedural requirements in rules (e.g., requirement of written instructions) do not authorize continued enforcement of an attachment beyond the statutory one-year period; such enforcement is unlawful. Obiter - references to pending proposals and policy considerations are informative but not essential to the holding.
Conclusion: The statutory one-year lapse in Section 83(2) governs; Rule 159(2) cannot be used to perpetuate an attachment after lapse, and administrative mechanisms must be aligned to ensure statutory termination is implemented in practice.
Ancillary observations and operative consequence
The Court emphasized the limited scope of its decision: quashing the post-lapse provisional attachment and restoring operability of the attached account, while leaving open the department's right to continue investigation and pursue other statutory remedies (other than attachment under Section 83). The Court did not adjudicate other contentions such as delegation or assumption of jurisdiction where unnecessary to the determination, and confined relief to the illegality of re-issuing provisional attachments after statutory lapse.
Provisional attachment of property of the petitioner u/s 83 of the KGST/CGST Act, 2017 - direction to allow the Petitioner to operate his current account which is provisionally attached - HELD THAT:- A perusal of the material on record will indicate that on 21.01.2024, respondent No. 1 passed a provisional attachment order against the petitioner under Section 83 of the KGST/CGST Act, 2017. The said provisional attachment order came to an end by expiry of period of one year at midnight on 20.02.2025. Subsequent to expiry of the first provisional attachment order dated 21.02.2024, which came to end at midnight on 20.02.2025, respondent No. 1 proceeded to pass the impugned second provisional attachment order, the next day i.e., 21.02.2025, after expiry of the period of one year, which is illegal and not permissible in law as held by the Hon'ble Apex Court in the case of Kesari Nandan Mobile Vs. Office of Assistant Commissioner of State Tax (2), Enforcement Division-5 [2025 (8) TMI 992 - SUPREME COURT].
The first provisional attachment order dated 21.02.2024 having coming to an end and expired upon completion of one year at the midnight of 20.02.2025, the impugned provisional attachment order dated 21.02.2025 passed on the next day after expiry of the maximum statutory period of one year is illegal, arbitrary and without jurisdiction or authority of law in the light of the judgment of the Apex Court in the case of Kesari Nandan Mobile's case [2025 (8) TMI 992 - SUPREME COURT] and the same deserves to be quashed.
The impugned provisional attachment order deserves to be quashed - Petition disposed off.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether initiation of proceedings under Section 129(3) of the GST law and seizure/detention of goods is justified where goods purportedly sent for job work were not accompanied, at the time of interception, by a delivery challan as required under Rule 45 read with Rule 55 of the GST Rules and no e-way bill was produced.
2. Whether generation/production of an e-way bill and tax invoice after interception but before the seizure order can cure the defect of non-accompaniment by the requisite documents at the time of interception and thereby render the seizure/detention unlawful.
3. The proper legal effect and mandatory nature of Rule 45 and Rule 55 of the GST Rules in respect of movement of inputs/capital goods for job work and the consequences of non-compliance.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1: Validity of seizure/detention under Section 129(3) where goods for job work lacked delivery challan and e-way bill at time of interception
Legal framework: Section 129(3) (detention/seizure provisions) is applied where goods are being transported without requisite documents. Rules 45 and 55 of the GST Rules regulate sending inputs/capital goods to a job worker and transportation of goods without issue of invoice (delivery challan requirements), respectively. Rule 45(1) mandates that inputs, semi-finished goods or capital goods sent to a job worker shall be sent under cover of a challan issued by the principal; Rule 45(2) requires the challan to contain details specified in Rule 55. Rule 55 prescribes the format, particulars and triplicate nature of delivery challan for transportation for job work.
Precedent treatment: The Court relied on and followed earlier decisions of the same Court which held that absence of a delivery challan and/or e-way bill at the time of interception means that the goods were not accompanied by specified documents and therefore seizure/detention proceedings are justified.
Interpretation and reasoning: On a plain reading of Rules 45 and 55, issuance of a delivery challan in prescribed form is a mandatory pre-condition for sending goods for job work without an invoice. The Rules also contemplate that such transport must be accompanied by the prescribed documents; in their absence the goods cannot be said to be accompanied by specified documents. Therefore, detention and initiation of proceedings under Section 129(3) are legally sustainable where, at the time of interception, the statutory documents (delivery challan and e-way bill) are not produced.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - The mandatory nature of Rule 45 read with Rule 55 makes a delivery challan (and where applicable an e-way bill) essential at the time of movement for job work; absence thereof authorizes action under Section 129(3).
Conclusions: Proceedings and seizure/detention initiated against goods not accompanied by the requisite delivery challan and e-way bill at interception are not illegal or arbitrary; they are justified under the statutory scheme.
Issue 2: Effect of generation/production of e-way bill/tax invoice after interception but before seizure
Legal framework: The statutory regime distinguishes between documents required to accompany goods during transport and documents generated subsequently. Rules 45 and 55 require that the delivery challan accompany goods at the time of movement; e-way bill requirements are procedural prerequisites tied to inter-state movement and compliance at the time of transit.
Precedent treatment: The Court followed precedent which treated absence of the required documents at the time of interception as determinative; subsequent generation/production of documents does not cure the non-accompaniment at the time of interception for purposes of initial legality of detention/seizure proceedings.
Interpretation and reasoning: The material fact is whether specified documents accompanied the goods at the time of interception. Although the petitioner produced an e-way bill and tax invoice prior to the issuance of the seizure order, no documentary evidence of a delivery challan for job work was produced contemporaneously with movement. The Court found that production of documents after interception does not negate the statutory requirement that the documents accompany the goods during transit; therefore, belated production does not render prior proceedings illegal.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Post-hoc generation/production of e-way bill or invoice, where requisite documents did not accompany the goods at interception, does not invalidate the initiation of proceedings or seizure under Section 129(3).
Conclusions: The belated production of an e-way bill and tax invoice before the seizure order does not cure the absence of the delivery challan at the time of interception; consequently, the seizure proceedings remain lawful.
Issue 3: Mandatory nature and consequences of non-compliance with Rule 45 and Rule 55 for goods sent for job work
Legal framework: Rule 45 prescribes conditions and restrictions for inputs/capital goods sent to a job worker and mandates a challan issued by the principal containing details as per Rule 55. Rule 55 prescribes delivery challan format, triplicate copies, particulars and declaration obligations where transportation is for job work or other non-supply reasons.
Precedent treatment: The Court applied prior decisions interpreting these Rules as mandatory in nature for shipments to job workers and held that absence of compliance permits enforcement action by revenue authorities.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court quoted the relevant provisions and emphasized that Rule 55 clearly mandates issuance of a delivery challan in the prescribed format for goods sent for job work. On a bare reading, the requirement to issue and carry the challan is not hortatory but mandatory; failure to comply is a breach of statutory procedure and justifies revenue action including detention and seizure under the statutory provisions.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - The statutory regime makes the delivery challan (as per Rule 55) mandatory for goods sent for job work (per Rule 45); non-compliance attracts consequences under the GST law including detention/seizure.
Conclusions: Compliance with Rule 45 read with Rule 55 is obligatory; absence of a properly issued and accompanying delivery challan (and where applicable e-way bill) in respect of goods sent for job work authorizes seizure/detention and related proceedings. Non-compliance cannot be excused by post-interception documentation.
Cross-reference
For Issues 1-3: The Court expressly relied upon and followed the reasoning in prior decisions of this Court which held similarly that absence of delivery challan and e-way bill at the time of interception validates the initiation of proceedings and seizure under Section 129(3); the present matter is squarely covered by those precedents and thus no interference with the impugned order was warranted.
Final Conclusion
The impugned order of detention/seizure and consequent proceedings under the GST statutory scheme are sustained because the goods sent for job work were not accompanied at the time of interception by the mandatory delivery challan as required by Rule 45 read with Rule 55, nor by an e-way bill; belated production of documents did not cure the non-accompaniment. The writ petition challenging those orders was dismissed for lack of merit.
Initiation of proceedings under Section 129(3) of CGST Act - Detention of goods - no intent to avoid the payment of tax as the delivery challan and e-way bill was produced prior to seizure order - HELD THAT:- It is not in dispute that goods were moved from West Bengal to UP and at the time of interception, no proper/ requisite documents were produced in respect of the goods sent for job work but no documentary evidence was adduced, however, before the seizure order, the e-way bill was produced.
The issue involved in the present case is squarely covered with the decision of this Court in the case of Nippon Tubes Limited [2025 (9) TMI 1148 - ALLAHABAD HIGH COURT] where it was held that 'Once there was neither any delivery challan as required under Rule 45 read with Rule 55 of the GST Rules nor any e-way bill was accompanying with in respect of the goods sent for job worker, the proceedings initiated against the petitioner by the respondent authorities, cannot be said to be illegal or arbitrary in manner.'
Thus, no interference is called for by this Court in the impugned orders - petition dismissed.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether maintenance charges for flow meters installed at the end-user premises to record recycled water constitute a composite supply with the supply of recycled water under Section 2(30) of the CGST Act.
2. If treated as a composite supply, whether the principal supply's nil rate (exemption for recycled water) applies to the ancillary maintenance charges.
3. If not a composite supply, the proper classification (SAC/HSN) and applicable GST rate for the maintenance charges.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS - Issue 1: Whether maintenance charges for flow meters constitute a composite supply with recycled water
Legal framework: Composite supply is defined in Section 2(30) of the CGST Act; a composite supply requires two or more taxable supplies that are "naturally bundled" and supplied in conjunction with each other in the ordinary course of business, one of which is a principal supply. Section 2(90) defines "principal supply." Section 8(a) provides that tax on a composite supply is determined by treating the supply as that of the principal supply. Guidance on "naturally bundled" from prior CBIC circulars and service taxation guidance (Finance Act, 1994 era) is relevant for indicators of bundling (consumer perception, common market practice, single price/packaging, elements not available separately, integral nature).
Precedent treatment: The Authority relied on the explanatory guidance in CBIC materials (Taxation of Services: An Education Guide) to identify indicators of natural bundling. An earlier Advance Ruling by the Authority recognising recycled water as nil-rated was noted and applied to the principal supply only; the prior ruling on nil rate for recycled water is treated as operative for that component.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court examined contractual terms (explicit separate charge of 0.75% for maintenance, separate supply prices for product/clear water, separate clauses for metering and calibration) and factual matrix (only flow meters installed at end-user premises, no other automation/instrumentation at premises, maintenance charged separately monthly and subject to revision). Applying the "naturally bundled" indicators, the Court found: (a) the maintenance charges are separately priced and contractually segregated; (b) the maintenance service is capable of being provided independently by third parties; (c) the maintenance is not integral such that removing it would fundamentally change the nature of the supply of water; and (d) there is no single packaged price or ordinary market practice indicating that maintenance is supplied only as part of water supply.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - where contractually and factually the maintenance of meters is separately charged, is capable of independent supply, and is not naturally bundled in the ordinary course of business, it does not qualify as a composite supply with recycled water. Observations on indicators from CBIC guidance are interpretative aids (supporting ratio) rather than novel legal propositions.
Conclusion: The maintenance of flow meters does not form part of a composite supply with the supply of recycled water under Section 2(30). (Cross-reference: Issues 2 and 3.)
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS - Issue 2: If composite, whether the principal supply's nil rate applies to maintenance charges
Legal framework: Section 8(a) mandates treating a composite supply as a supply of the principal supply for tax liability; therefore, if maintenance were a component of a composite supply whose principal supply is nil-rated, the ancillary component would inherit that rate.
Precedent treatment: The Authority acknowledged its prior ruling that recycled water qualifies for nil rate under the relevant notification; that ruling remains applicable to the supply of recycled water itself.
Interpretation and reasoning: Because the Court concluded (Issue 1) that maintenance charges are not part of a composite supply, the question of applying the principal supply's nil rate to the maintenance component does not arise. The Court explicitly treated the query as contingent on the composite supply determination and determined that, on facts and contract, no composite supply exists.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - where a component is not part of a composite supply, it cannot inherit the principal supply's tax character; the Court's treatment that the question of nil rate application "does not arise" is dispositive for the present facts.
Conclusion: Not applicable - the principal supply's nil rate cannot be applied to the maintenance charges because maintenance is not part of a composite supply.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS - Issue 3: Classification and taxability of maintenance charges if not composite
Legal framework: Independent services are to be classified under the appropriate SAC/HSN and taxed as per notifications; maintenance, repair and installation (except construction) services are commonly classified under Heading/SAC 9987 and attract the standard rates specified in the rate notifications.
Precedent treatment: The Authority treated installation and subsequent maintenance as distinct supplies in line with prior rulings and the legislative scheme separating supply characterization from tax rate applicability; the earlier advance ruling on recycled water being nil was preserved for that supply alone.
Interpretation and reasoning: Given the contractual separation (explicit clause for maintenance charges), independent nature of the service (third parties can perform calibration/maintenance), separate periodic billing, and absence of other instrumentation at the delivery point, the maintenance of flow meters is a standalone supply of service. The Authority classified it under SAC 9987 - "Maintenance, repair and installation (except construction) services" - and applied the applicable standard rate under the rate notification (18% total: 9% CGST + 9% SGST for the State jurisdiction). The factual finding that only flow meters (and UPS backup from GVSCCL) are present, with no broader automation integral to the water supply, reinforced independent classification.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - maintenance of meters in these circumstances is an independent taxable service classifiable under SAC 9987 and taxable at 18%. Observations about capability of third-party provision and indicators of separability support the ratio.
Conclusion: Maintenance charges are an independent supply of services classifiable under SAC 9987 and taxable at 18% (9% CGST + 9% SGST). The earlier ruling that recycled water is nil-rated remains applicable to the recycled water supply only; ancillary maintenance charges do not share that nil status.
ADDITIONAL REASONING NOTES AND CROSS-REFERENCES
- Contractual allocation of consideration and explicit separate charging are determinative indicia; where maintenance is separately priced and invoiced, it weighs against composite supply characterization (see Issue 1 and Issue 3).
- The "naturally bundled" test is fact-sensitive; indicators such as market practice, consumer expectation, single pricing, and integrality were applied to the factual record and found absent for bundling here (cross-reference Issue 1).
- Preservation of prior advance ruling on nil rate for recycled water: That ruling governs only the supply of recycled water and does not extend to separately charged maintenance services (cross-reference Issues 2 and 3).
CONCLUSIVE RULINGS (ratio):
- Maintenance charges for flow meters installed at the end-user premises do not constitute a composite supply with the supply of recycled water.
- The question of applying the principal supply's nil rate to maintenance charges does not arise.
- Maintenance services are classifiable under SAC 9987 and taxable at 18% (9% CGST + 9% SGST) as per the relevant rate notification.
Classification of suuply - composite supply or not - maintenance charges of flow meters installed at the end user premises to record the recycled water falls - rate applicable to principal supply - HELD THAT:- It is evident that the maintenance charges levied for flow meters do not form an integral part of the principal supply, and hence, cannot be regarded as a composite supply within the meaning assigned under Section 2(30) of the CGST Act. A composite supply requires that two or more taxable supplies be naturally bundled and supplied in conjunction with each other in the ordinary course of business, one of which must be a principal supply.
In the present instance, the maintenance of flow meters constitutes a distinct, standalone supply that is not naturally bundled with the supply of recycled water. It is not incidental or ancillary to the supply of water and is capable of being rendered independently by any third-party service provider. As such, it does not satisfy the essential conditions required to qualify as a composite supply.
The maintenance of flow meters is to be treated as a standalone supply of service, falling under Heading 9987 – Maintenance, repair and installation (except construction) services, taxable at 18% (9% CGST + 9% SGST) under Notification No. 11/2017-Central Tax (Rate) dated 28.06.2017 as amended. The earlier ruling of the Authority confirming nil rate for recycled water under Sl. No. 99 of Notification No. 02/2017-CT(R) continues to hold good and is not disputed. However, the ancillary maintenance charges cannot take the character of the principal supply, as they are independent, contractual, and separately priced.\
The maintenance of flow meters installed at HPCL’s premises does not form part of a composite supply with recycled water. The said activity is independent supply of service, classifiable under SAC 9987, and liable to GST at 18%.
Issues: Whether export of processed frozen shrimps packed in individual printed or plain pouches or boxes and placed in master cartons of up to 25 kilograms is liable to GST as pre-packaged and labelled goods.
Analysis: The ruling turned on whether the inner retail packs of shrimp had a pre-determined quantity and were required to bear declarations under the Legal Metrology Act, 2009 and the rules made thereunder. It was held that the inner packs, ranging from 250 grams to 2.5 kilograms, satisfied the characteristics of pre-packaged and labelled commodities, and the fact that the outer carton was printed or plain did not alter the taxability of the inner packs. The ruling also noted that export supplies are treated as inter-State supplies and that the notification bringing pre-packaged and labelled commodities into GST coverage did not create any exemption for export supplies.
Conclusion: The export of processed frozen shrimps packed in such inner pouches or boxes attracts GST, and the answer is in favour of Revenue.
Ratio Decidendi: Where goods are packed in inner units of pre-determined quantity and are required to bear declarations under the Legal Metrology regime, they constitute pre-packaged and labelled commodities chargeable to GST regardless of whether the supply is domestic or for export.
Levy of GST - export of processed frozen shrimps (HSN 0306), which are packaged in individual printed pouches or boxes and subsequently placed inside a print master carton (of up to 25 Kilogram each) that includes the design, label, and other specification provided by the buyer - export of processed frozen shrimps (HSN 0306), packaged in individual plain pouches or boxes and subsequently placed inside a plain master carton (of up to 25 Kilogram each) - HELD THAT:- As per the provisions of the Legal Metrology Act, 2009 (1 of 2010) and the rules made there under, as the inner packing is printed and is having pre-determined quantity it immediately attains the characteristics of pre-packaged and labelled’ category, meant for retail sale, irrespective of the fact whether the outer packaging is printed or not. Under these circumstances, the inner packaging which ranges from 250 grams to 2.5 kilograms becomes liable to GST, as the same fall within the ambit of ‘pre-packaged and labelled’ category which is mandated to bear the declarations.
The supply of shrimps in pouches or boxes of upto 25kg, which are duly pre-packaged and labelled as per Legal Metrology Act 2009 is a taxable supply which is neither exempted nor nil rated supply . As per the Notification no 06/2022 (CT Rate), dated 13th July 2022, GST has been made applicable on supply of such “pre-packaged and labelled” commodities attracting provisions of Legal Metrology Act, 2009. Therefore, where the quantity involved is 25Kgs or less in respect of specified commodities including shrimps (HSN 0306, as per S.No.4 of schedule 1 of N/N. 01/2017-central tax (rate) dated 28th June 2017) which are pre-packed, they would mandatorily get covered within the ambit of Legal Metrology Act, 2009, and the rules made there under. Accordingly, it is opined that GST would be applicable on the supply of “pre-packaged and labelled” shrimps, capacity upto 25 kgs, and it will be liable for GST @ 5%, irrespective of the fact whether it is for domestic supply or for export outside the country.
The export of processed frozen shrimps (HSN 0306), which are packaged in individual printed pouches or boxes and subsequently placed inside a print master carton (of up to 25 Kilogram each) that includes the design, label, and other specification provided by the buyer, attracts GST - the export of processed frozen shrimps (HSN 0306), packaged in individual plain pouches or boxes and subsequently placed inside a plain master carton (of up to 25 Kilogram each), attracts GST.
Issues: Whether export of processed frozen shrimps packed in printed or plain pouches or boxes and placed in master cartons of up to 25 kilograms each attracts GST as pre-packaged and labelled goods.
Analysis: The ruling turned on the explanation to the GST rate notification substituting the expression "pre-packaged and labelled" with the meaning of "pre-packaged commodity" under section 2(l) of the Legal Metrology Act, 2009, and on whether the packages were required to bear declarations under that law. The inner pouches or boxes contained a pre-determined quantity, were printed and labelled, and therefore answered the description of pre-packaged and labelled commodities. The fact that the goods were exported and placed in outer cartons did not exclude them from GST where the inner packs themselves satisfied the statutory test. The ruling also relied on the CBIC clarification that larger packs containing retail packs remain liable, and held that the notification made no carve-out for export supplies.
Conclusion: The export of processed frozen shrimps in the described packaging attracts GST, and the answer is affirmative against the assessee.
Final Conclusion: GST applies to the exported shrimp packs because the inner packages are pre-packaged and labelled commodities within the legal-metrology based GST entry, irrespective of export destination or the presence of an outer master carton.
Ratio Decidendi: Where a goods package contains a pre-determined quantity and is required to bear declarations under the Legal Metrology Act, 2009, it is a pre-packaged and labelled commodity for GST purposes, and export does not by itself remove the levy when the notification contains no export exception.
Levy of GST - export of processed frozen shrimps (HSN 0306), which are packaged in individual printed pouches or boxes and subsequently placed inside a print master carton (of up to 25 Kilogram each) that includes the design, label, and other specification provided by the buyer - export of processed frozen shrimps (HSN 0306), packaged in individual plain pouches or boxes and subsequently placed inside a plain master carton (of up to 25 Kilogram each) - HELD THAT:- As per the provisions of the Legal Metrology Act, 2009 (1 of 2010) and the rules made there under, as the inner packing is printed and is having pre-determined quantity it immediately attains the characteristics of pre-packaged and labelled’ category, meant for retail sale, irrespective of the fact whether the outer packaging is printed or not. Under these circumstances, the inner packaging which ranges from 250 grams to 2.5 kilograms becomes liable to GST, as the same fall within the ambit of ‘pre-packaged and labelled’ category which is mandated to bear the declarations.
The supply of shrimps in pouches or boxes of upto 25kg, which are duly pre-packaged and labelled as per Legal Metrology Act 2009 is a taxable supply which is neither exempted nor nil rated supply . As per the Notification no 06/2022 (CT Rate), dated 13th July 2022, GST has been made applicable on supply of such “pre-packaged and labelled” commodities attracting provisions of Legal Metrology Act, 2009. Therefore, where the quantity involved is 25Kgs or less in respect of specified commodities including shrimps (HSN 0306, as per S.No.4 of schedule 1 of N/N. 01/2017-central tax (rate) dated 28th June 2017) which are pre-packed, they would mandatorily get covered within the ambit of Legal Metrology Act, 2009, and the rules made there under. Accordingly, it is opined that GST would be applicable on the supply of “pre-packaged and labelled” shrimps, capacity upto 25 kgs, and it will be liable for GST @ 5%, irrespective of the fact whether it is for domestic supply or for export outside the country.
The export of processed frozen shrimps (HSN 0306), which are packaged in individual printed pouches or boxes and subsequently placed inside a print master carton (of up to 25 Kilogram each) that includes the design, label, and other specification provided by the buyer, attracts GST - the export of processed frozen shrimps (HSN 0306), packaged in individual plain pouches or boxes and subsequently placed inside a plain master carton (of up to 25 Kilogram each), attracts GST.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether an advance ruling under the Advance Ruling provisions can be sought in respect of procedural/documentary requirements (documents to be carried during movement of materials and machinery, and cross-border transit formalities) for execution of services at customer construction sites.
2. Whether questions on documentary compliance for movement of goods/machinery amount to matters "in relation to the supply of goods or services" as enumerated in the statutory categories of matters on which an advance ruling may be sought.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Maintainability of advance ruling on procedural/documentary requirements for movement of materials and machinery
Legal framework: The statutory scheme confines "advance ruling" to decisions on matters specified in the provision defining permissible questions, namely classification, applicability of notifications, determination of time and value of supply, admissibility of input tax credit, liability to pay tax, requirement of registration, and whether a particular act amounts to a supply. The definition of "applicant" and the procedure for filing are likewise prescribed. Relevant provisions setting out time of supply and invoicing procedures are available for context but do not expand the scope of matters that may be ruled upon.
Precedent treatment: The Authority referred to its consistent earlier approach that queries relating to documents required during transport of goods are procedural/administrative and fall outside the statutory list of matters on which advance rulings may be given. Those administrative inquiries have been treated as matters for executive instructions, departmental circulars, or field authorities rather than for the AAR.
Interpretation and reasoning: On a conjoint reading of the definition of "advance ruling" and the enumerated categories, the statutory remit is restricted to substantive tax questions about supply, classification, taxability, valuation, input tax credit, registration, and related matters. The applicant's questions - whether delivery challans and e-way bills suffice, what additional documentary proof should accompany movement of materials or machinery, and how to avoid detentions during interstate movement - are procedural and documentary compliance queries. They do not require determination of classification, tax liability, time/value of supply, input tax credit entitlement, or registration status. The Authority therefore interprets the statutory scheme as excluding routine operational/documentary compliance queries from advance ruling jurisdiction. The availability of general provisions on invoicing and time of supply (referred to by the applicant) does not convert a procedural question into a substantive, determinative question within the statutory seven categories.
Ratio vs. Obiter: The holding that procedural/documentary requirements for movement of goods/machinery are not matters on which an advance ruling can be sought is ratio decidendi. The observation that such issues are amenable to executive instructions, circulars, or departmental clarifications is obiter guidance consistent with prior practice but not necessary to the statutory interpretation.
Conclusion: The application seeking an advance ruling on documents to be attached during movement of materials and machinery and on cross-border transit procedures is not maintainable under the statutory list of permissible questions for advance ruling and must be rejected as non-admissible.
Issue 2 - Whether documentary/transit queries constitute "in relation to the supply of goods or services" within Section 97(2)
Legal framework: The statutory list defines the scope of permissible advance-ruling questions by enumerating seven categories that are essentially substantive tax questions tied to supply - classification, notifications (rates/exemptions), time/value of supply, input tax credit, liability to pay tax, registration requirement, and whether an act constitutes a supply.
Precedent treatment: The Authority, following earlier rulings, treats the statutory language as exhaustive for the purposes of advance ruling jurisdiction and has declined to expand "in relation to the supply" to encompass operational/documentary compliance demands unrelated to determination of tax liability or legal characterization of transactions.
Interpretation and reasoning: The phrase "in relation to the supply of goods or services" must be read in context with the specific categories listed. A purposive reading supports a narrow scope: the advance ruling mechanism is designed to resolve legal disputes about tax consequences and legal classification, not to provide field-level procedural checklists for transit. Documentary requirements imposed or enforced by field authorities during transit are enforcement/administrative matters distinct from statutory tax questions. Thus, transit document queries do not fall within any of the seven enumerated heads and are therefore outside the AAR's jurisdiction.
Ratio vs. Obiter: The determination that such documentary queries do not fall within "in relation to the supply" for advance-ruling purposes is ratio. Any ancillary remarks regarding competence of departmental instructions or cross-border officer practices are obiter and advisory only.
Conclusion: Documentary and transit compliance questions do not amount to matters contemplated by the statutory categories in Section 97(2) and therefore cannot be the subject of an advance ruling.
Disposition
Because the applicant's questions relate solely to procedural/documentary requirements for movement of materials and machinery (including cross-border transit issues) and not to any of the statutory categories permitting advance rulings, the application is non-maintainable and is rejected under the advance-ruling provisions.
Scope of Advance Ruling - requirement to attach documents while sending material to sites apart from DC and way bill - type of documents to be attached while transporting machinery for doing service - challenges for material movement and machinery movement - seeking direction to execute such works without hindrance from GST cross border officers - HELD THAT:- On conjoint reading of the sections 95(a) and (c), & 97 of the CGST Act, 2017, depicts that advance ruling means a decision by the AAR to an applicant on matters or on questions specified under 97(2) ibid in relation to the supply of goods or services or both being undertaken or proposed to be undertaken by the applicant; that an applicant, means any person registered or desirous of obtaining registration under this Act; that such an applicant, may make an application in the prescribed form with appropriate fee, stating the question on which the said ruling is sought. The questions on which the ruling is sought is however, restricted to the 7[seven] issues listed in section 97(2), ibid.
In the present case, the applicant's queries are limited to: the sufficiency of Delivery Challans and e-Way Bills for movement of goods/machinery, additional documents, if any, required by GST authorities, and difficulties faced during cross-border transportation - These questions do not involve determination of classification, rate of tax, liability, input tax credit, or supply. Rather, they are purely procedural in nature and relate to compliance aspects of goods in transit. Consequently, they are outside the purview of advance ruling.
As the questions raised by the applicant pertain to procedural/documentation requirements relating to movement of goods and machinery, which are not covered under any of the clauses of Section 97(2) of the CGST/APGST Act, 2017, the application is held to be not maintainable. Accordingly, the application is rejected as non-admissible under Section 97(2) of the said Acts.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether the value of supply under Section 15 of the GST Act, 2017 for supply of cement and iron to an unrelated person for which price is the sole consideration is the transaction value.
2. How the value of supply under Section 15 is to be determined where the supply of cement and iron is to a related person who is eligible to claim full input tax credit.
3. Whether a registered transporter who carries goods by road for predominantly unregistered persons (farmers/individuals), without issuing consignment notes and without assuming lien, is liable to pay GST on such transportation services and, if liable, at what rate.
4. Whether Notification No. 12/2017 (serial no. 18) or Notification No. 32/2017 (serial no. 21A) exempting services by a Goods Transport Agency (GTA) to unregistered persons applies to the registered transporter in the facts presented.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS - Issue 1: Transaction value for supplies to unrelated persons
Legal framework: Section 15(1) provides that the value of a supply shall be the transaction value - the price actually paid or payable - where supplier and recipient are not related and the price is the sole consideration.
Precedent treatment: No judicial precedents were invoked; determination proceeds from statutory text and its plain meaning.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court accepts the statutory conditions: (i) absence of relatedness as defined in the Act, and (ii) price being the sole consideration. Where both conditions are satisfied, the mutually agreed price is the value of supply.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - the holding that transaction value is the value of supply under Section 15(1) where supplier and recipient are unrelated and price is sole consideration.
Conclusion: Transaction value (price actually paid or payable) is the value of supply for sales of cement and iron to unrelated persons when price is the sole consideration.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS - Issue 2: Valuation for supplies to related persons eligible for full ITC
Legal framework: Section 15 read with Rule 28 of the CGST Rules governs valuation where supplier and recipient are related persons; Schedule I defines supplies between related/distinct persons. Rule 28 prescribes open market value, value of like kind and quality, cost plus, and alternative provisos including 90% rule and invoice value deemed to be open market value where recipient is eligible for full input tax credit.
Precedent treatment: No case law cited; statutory scheme applied as enacted.
Interpretation and reasoning: Supplies between related persons are treated as supply and valuation follows Rule 28. The first preference is open market value; if unavailable, value of like kind and quality; then cost plus methods. However, where the recipient is eligible for full input tax credit, the invoice value is expressly deemed to be the open market value (second proviso to Rule 28(1)). Therefore, when recipient can claim full ITC, the invoice value is accepted as value of supply.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - for transactions between related persons where the recipient is eligible for full input tax credit, the invoice value shall be deemed to be the open market value and thus be accepted as the value of supply under Section 15 read with Rule 28.
Conclusion: Invoice value is the value of supply for supplies of cement and iron to a related person who is eligible to claim full input tax credit (subject to Rule 28 requirements).
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS - Issue 3: Tax liability of registered transporter supplying road transport to unregistered persons
Legal framework: Exemption entries in Notifications governing GST rates - in particular, the definition and tax treatment of services by a Goods Transport Agency (GTA) and the specific exemption entry for services provided by a GTA to unregistered persons (serial no. 21A/Notification No. 32/2017). The statutory and rule definitions of GTA, and reference to prior Service Tax definition of consignment note under Rule 4B (Service Tax Rules) for identifying a consignment note.
Precedent treatment: No judicial authority relied upon; analysis based on notification text and definitional provisions.
Interpretation and reasoning: The exemption entry applies specifically to services provided by a GTA to an unregistered person. The defining characteristic of a GTA in the notification is provision of transport of goods by road and issuance of a consignment note by whatever name called. Although the word "consignment note" is not defined in GST, the Service Tax rule definition illustrates the typical contents and function (serially numbered document evidencing receipt for transport, detailing consignor/consignee, goods carriage registration, details of goods, origin/destination, and liable person). The applicant, though registered, did not issue any consignment note or assume lien; he issued only a bill and claimed consignor bears risk. However, being a registered person making transportation supplies, he is required to issue a document (invoice/consignment note) even for supplies to unregistered persons and may at times supply to registered persons later. Issuance of a consignment note and assumption of lien are indicators that the supplier is a GTA. Where a supplier satisfies GTA characteristics and provides services to unregistered persons, Serial No. 21A grants nil rate/exemption subject to its exclusions. The ruling finds that the exemption entry applies to services provided by a GTA to unregistered persons; on the facts the applicant will fall under GTA service because he is a registered supplier of transport services and must issue documentary acknowledgement for supplies; accordingly the services to unregistered persons attract the exemption under serial no. 21A.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - services provided by a GTA to unregistered persons are exempt under serial no. 21A; a registered transporter of goods by road who issues requisite documentary acknowledgment or otherwise falls within the GTA definition and supplies to unregistered persons is covered by the exemption. Observations on consignment note as sine qua non and on issuance obligations are applied to facts (binding ratio as to exemption application); ancillary observations on consignment note definition are interpretative guidance (obiter-ish).
Conclusion: The registered transporter is not liable to pay GST on road-transport services provided to unregistered persons under serial no. 21A of Notification No. 32/2017 (as inserted/amended), since the exemption applies to services by a GTA to unregistered persons; accordingly, no tax liability arises on the facts presented.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS - Issue 4: Applicability of Notifications (serial no. 18 of Notification No.12/2017 and serial no.21A of Notification No.32/2017) to the registered person for supplies to unregistered persons
Legal framework: Notification entries creating exemptions; definition of GTA in Notification No.12/2017 (serial no. 18) and the specific exemption for GTA services to unregistered persons in Notification No.32/2017 (serial no. 21A).
Precedent treatment: No case law cited; statutory and notification texts construed.
Interpretation and reasoning: Serial no. 18 exempts "services by way of transportation of goods" except services of GTA or courier agency; serial no. 21A specifically exempts services by a GTA to unregistered persons subject to enumerated exceptions. The notifications together show that the tax treatment depends on whether the supplier is a GTA. The ruling applies serial no. 21A to exempt GTA services to unregistered persons. Where a supplier is not a GTA (i.e., does not issue consignment notes and does not assume lien), the general exemption in serial no. 18 may apply (services by way of transportation of goods are exempt other than GTA/courier agency). On the facts, the Tribunal treats the registered person as falling within GTA classification for practical purposes and therefore applies serial no. 21A; the outcome is that services to unregistered persons are exempt in either analysis when the supplier is not a GTA (serial no.18) or when he is a GTA supplying to unregistered persons (serial no.21A).
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - notification-based exemptions apply as per the supplier's classification: if not a GTA, serial no. 18 exempts transport services; if a GTA, serial no. 21A exempts GTA services to unregistered persons; both lead to no tax liability on the facts. Observations about the consignment note being sine qua non for GTA classification are interpretative guidance.
Conclusion: Notification No.12/2017 (serial no. 18) and Notification No.32/2017 (serial no. 21A) apply such that the registered person, in the factual matrix presented, is not liable to pay GST on transportation services provided to unregistered persons; the ruling refers specifically to serial no.21A as the applicable exemption.
Valuation of of supply u/s 15 of GST Act, 2017 - supply of cement, iron or both to an unrelated person for which price is the sole consideration - supply of cement, iron or both to M/s. Sri Lakshmi Ganesh Steels, a related person who is eligible to claim input tax credit on the said supply - registered person is liable to pay tax on the services of transportation of goods by the road to an unregistered person or not - applicability of serial no. 18 of N/N. 12/2017-CENTRAL TAX (RATE) dated 28-06- 2017 or Serial no. 21A of N/N. 32/2017 – Central Tax (Rate) dated 13-10-2017 issued u/S 11 of CGST Act, 2017 to the registered person or not in case of services provided to unregistered persons.
What is the value of supply U/s 15 of GST Act, 2017 in case of a supply of cement, iron or both to an unrelated person for which price is the sole consideration? - HELD THAT:- As per Section 15(1) of the GST Act, 2017, the value of a supply of goods or services shall be the transaction value i.e., the price actually paid or payable provided the supplier and recipient are not related and the price is the sole consideration.
What is the value of supply U/s. 15 of GST Act, 2017 in case of a supply of cement, iron or both to M/s. Sri Lakshmi Ganesh Steels, a related person who is eligible to claim input tax credit on the said supply? - HELD THAT:- Supplies between the related persons with consideration shall constitute as ‘Supply’ like any other transaction. Whereas, the supply made between related persons for inadequate or no consideration is covered under Schedule I of the GST Act. Such transactions shall be treated as ‘Supply’ only if it happens in the course or furtherance of business. Para 2 of Schedule I covers any kind of supplies between related persons or distinct persons when made in the course or furtherance of business - in transactions between related or distinct persons, the invoice value will be accepted as the value of supply under Section 15 if full ITC is available to the recipient.
Whether the registered person is liable to pay tax on the services of transportation of goods by the road to an unregistered person or not? If yes, at what rate of tax? - HELD THAT:- In the instant case, the applicant is registered under GST and presently supplying transportation services to unregistered services with out issuing any consignment note or invoice or any other document .Being a registered person the applicant is bound to issue a document by whatever name it is called even for the supplies made to unregistered persons. Further, there may be a situation where the applicant likely to supply the goods to a registered person later. In such a situation being a registered person the applicant has to issue a consignment note or invoice by whatever name called to the recipients either by opting for forward charge or reverse charge . Hence, the applicant will fall under the GTA service - From the description of service in the aforesaid entry, it is evident that the said exemption is exclusively in respect of Services provided by a goods transport agency to an unregistered person, including an unregistered casual taxable person, other than certain specified recipients. Hence, the applicant is not liable to pay tax as per sl no .21A of Not/N. 12/2017-CENTRAL TAX (RATE) dated 28-06- 2017 as amended by N/N. 32/2017 – Central Tax (Rate) dated 13-10-2017 for the supplies made to the unregistered persons.
Whether serial no. 18 of Notification No. 12/2017-CENTRAL TAX (RATE) dated 28-06- 2017 or Serial no. 21A of Notification no. 32/2017 – Central Tax (Rate) dated 13-10-2017 issued under section 11 of CGST Act, 2017 applicable to the registered person or not in case of services provided to unregistered persons? - HELD THAT:- The applicant is not liable to pay tax as per sl no .21A of N/N. 12/2017-CENTRAL TAX (RATE) dated 28-06- 2017 as amended by N/N. 32/2017 – Central Tax (Rate) dated 13-10-2017 for the supplies made to the unregistered persons.
Validity of reopening of assessment - jurisdiction of the JAO v/s FAO for issuance of notice u/s 148 - HC [2024 (8) TMI 1625 - BOMBAY HIGH COURT] held that order of the same date u/s 148A(d) are issued by the Jurisdictional Assessing Officer (“JAO”) and not under the mandatory faceless mechanism as per the provisions of Section 151A of the Act.
SC held [2025 (8) TMI 1700 - SC ORDER] there is a gross delay of 248 days in filing the Special Leave Petition which has not been satisfactorily explained by the petitioner. Even otherwise, we see no reason to interfere with the impugned order passed by the High Court.
HELD THAT:- Taking into consideration the averments made in the Interlocutory Application seeking restoration of the Special Leave Petition, the said application is allowed and the Special Leave Petition is restored to its original number on the file.
Addition in the hands of syndicate v/s assessee - appellant's share of profit derived by various syndicates maintaining that share of profit is taxable in the hands of syndicate or in the hands of the assessee - mens rea on the part of the assessee and taxing share of profits of such colourable devices (syndicates) in the hands of the assessee in all practicality is in the spirit of the 'Doctrine of lifting of corporate veil' in larger public interest - ITAT deleted addition - HC held [2024 (10) TMI 1288 - MADHYA PRADESH HIGH COURT] AO was not justified in making the addition in the hands of the assessee on account of his share in profits of syndicates and on account of his share of inadmissible expenses incurred by the syndicate
HELD THAT:- The income of the Association of Persons(Syndicates) cannot be clubbed with the assessees. We are of the opinion that the High Court has not erred in passing the impugned order.
The present petitions are, accordingly, dismissed.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether the notice issued under section 148 (deemed notice under section 148A(b)) for the assessment year in question was barred by limitation when measured against the period computed under sections 149 and applicable extension provisions.
2. Whether the Assessing Officer's reassessment action (including issuance of notice under section 148 after an order under section 148A(d)) survives the delimitation of time having regard to the period excluded as a result of the deemed stay arising from the original notice and the assessee's reply.
3. Whether departmental instructions that guide initiation of reassessment proceedings are ultra vires to the extent they conflict with sections 147-149 and 151 and settled principles laid down by the apex court (as relied upon by the petitioner).
4. Whether the legal provision permitting reopening of assessment on the basis of "information" (as per Explanation 1 to section 148) is arbitrary or violative of Article 14 of the Constitution or the substantive scheme of the Act (raised but not decided substantively by the Court in the present judgment).
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Limitation: validity of notice under section 148/148A(b)
Legal framework: Sections 147-149 (reopening and limitation), section 148A(b) (deemed show-cause notice), and the statutory extension mechanics governing the last date for issuance of a valid notice are the governing provisions. The period of limitation under section 149 (three or six years as applicable) and any extension attributable to ancillary enactments or transitional provisions are determinative of the outer temporal limit for issuance of a valid notice.
Precedent treatment: The Court treated the authoritative pronouncement of the apex court on computation of surviving time and the effect of deemed notices and excluded periods as binding guidance to compute whether a subsequently issued notice falls within the permissible period. Earlier decisions of this Court applying those principles were followed for determining the correct arithmetic and legal approach to "surviving period".
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court applied the method set out by the apex court for calculating the last permissible date for issuing a notice: determine the extended limitation period (as per section 149 read with applicable extension provisions), compute the time remaining from the date the original/deemed notice was issued till expiry of that period, exclude the duration of deemed stay (from original notice date till date of assessee's reply), and thereby arrive at the final last date available for issuance of a fresh notice. Applying that methodology to the facts, the notice issued under the new regime was found to have been issued after the computed last permissible date.
Ratio vs. Obiter: The finding that, on the facts and computation adopted, the impugned notice is time-barred is a ratio applicable to the present challenge to the notice. The general proposition that the apex court's method governs computation of surviving time is declared as the governing ratio for similar factual matrices.
Conclusions: The notice issued under section 148 (deemed under section 148A(b)) was, on the computation guided by the apex court's decision and this Court's approach, barred by limitation. The Court set aside the impugned notice on that basis and remanded for further administrative determination of surviving period where appropriate (see Issue 2).
Issue 2 - Duty of Assessing Officer to determine the surviving period and procedure on remand
Legal framework: The Assessing Officer's power to proceed with reassessment is circumscribed by the limitation regime and by the requirement to pass reasoned and speaking orders when deciding legal/temporal questions affecting validity of reassessment proceedings; principles of audi alteram partem require grant of hearing before a prejudicial determination.
Precedent treatment: This Court, following the apex court's method for calculation of surviving time, has consistently required concerned AOs to frame reasoned orders evaluating whether individual reassessment notices survive, rather than the High Court undertaking a fact-intensive global computation for each notice. Prior orders of this Court directing remand to AOs for detailed, speaking decisions were followed.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court reasoned that, given the technicality and fact-specific nature of the "surviving period" computation (including exclusion periods and the effect of replies), the appropriate course when doubt exists is to remit to the AO to evaluate the individual SCN/notice in light of the apex court's framework and relevant High Court directions. Such remand must include an opportunity of hearing and require the AO to pass a detailed, speaking order dealing with whether the impugned notice survives or must be recalled.
Ratio vs. Obiter: The direction to remit for a reasoned, speaking order by the AO (with a hearing) is binding in this matter (ratio as to appropriate remedy). The procedural prescription that such exercise be completed within an outer limit (eight weeks) constitutes a procedural directive tied to the disposal of the present petition.
Conclusions: The impugned notice was set aside; the matter remanded to the AO to decide afresh the issue of surviving period, taking into account the limitation-chart methodology endorsed by the apex court and the High Court's precedents, after granting the assessee an opportunity of hearing. The AO is directed to pass a detailed and speaking order within eight weeks.
Issue 3 - Validity of departmental instructions inconsistent with statutory provisions and higher court precedent
Legal framework: Administrative instructions must conform to statutory provisions (sections 147-149 and 151) and to binding judicial precedents. Instructions cannot operate so as to displace or curtail statutory safeguards or to be inconsistent with the law laid down by superior courts.
Precedent treatment: The Court acknowledged the petitioner's challenge to a departmental instruction as being inconsistent with statutory procedure and apex court pronouncements. While the present order does not undertake a full adjudication of the ultra vires plea, the Court indicated that instructions contrary to statutory provisions and settled precedent can be subject to invalidation.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court noted the petitioner's contention that the Instruction is contrary to sections 147-149 and 151 and to the law laid down by the apex court; however, rather than adjudicating the broader vires issue on the record before it, the Court preferred to address the concrete limitation issue and remit the matter to the AO for application of statutory and judicial principles to the individual notice. The implication is that any departmental instruction cannot be allowed to impede the statutory limitation analysis or the requirement of a reasoned finding by the AO.
Ratio vs. Obiter: The Court's observation that instructions inconsistent with statutory provisions may be ultra vires is obiter inasmuch as no final declaratory order striking down any instruction was passed in the present judgment; the operative remedy was remand on limitation grounds. The suggestion that instructions be read down where inconsistent is persuasive but not a decisive ratio in this order.
Conclusions: The Court did not finally adjudicate the ultra vires challenge to the departmental Instruction but directed that the AO's fresh exercise consider statutory provisions and controlling judicial pronouncements; accordingly, any conflict between instructions and the statute or binding precedent must be addressed in the remand proceedings through reasoned orders.
Issue 4 - Challenge to reopening on mere "information" as arbitrary / Article 14 (raised but not decided)
Legal framework: The contention invokes constitutional equal protection/Arbitrariness doctrine (Article 14) and the statutory standard for initiating reassessment on "information" as defined in Explanation 1 to section 148.
Precedent treatment: The issue was raised in pleadings but the Court did not undertake a substantive adjudication of the constitutional challenge in this order; the judgment confines itself to the limitation and remand directions in light of controlling apex court guidance.
Interpretation and reasoning: While the petitioner argued that initiation on "information" is arbitrary and violative of Article 14, the Court refrained from deciding that substantive constitutional question on the present record and factual matrix, leaving open examination in appropriate proceedings or on remand where relevant.
Ratio vs. Obiter: The non-adjudication of the Article 14 challenge is obiter in the sense that no determination was made; no ratio on the constitutionality of "information"-based reopening is set by this order.
Conclusions: The constitutional challenge to reopening on the basis of "information" remains undetermined by the present judgment; the remedy granted relates to limitation and remand for a reasoned order by the AO.
Remedy and operative conclusion
The Court set aside the impugned notice under section 148, remitted the matter to the Assessing Officer to decide the issue of surviving period afresh in light of the apex court's prescribed methodology and High Court precedents, directed that the AO grant an opportunity of hearing and pass a detailed, speaking order within eight weeks, and disposed of the petition accordingly. The Court did not finally decide the ultra vires or Article 14 contentions but indicated that departmental instructions cannot override statutory provisions and controlling judicial law in the course of the remand proceedings.
Validity of reopening of assessment - Time limit for notice - period of limitation to issue notice - validity of a notice issued u/s 148/148A - scope of Taxation and other laws (Relaxation and Amendment of certain provisions) Act, 2020 (TOLA) application - provisions of the new reassessment law introduced by the Finance Act, 2021 - surviving period - HELD THAT:- As decided in Mahendra Kumar Jhanwar [2025 (9) TMI 1204 - DELHI HIGH COURT] rather than this Court undertaking the gargantuan exercise of examining individual facts, it would appear to be expedient to frame directions requiring the AOs to frame an order with respect to the individual reassessment notices in light of the judgment of the Supreme Court in Rajeev Bansal [2024 (10) TMI 264 - SUPREME COURT (LB)] and of this Court in Ram Balram [2025 (2) TMI 55 - DELHI HIGH COURT], T.K.S Builders [2024 (10) TMI 1586 - DELHI HIGH COURT], Abhinav Jindal [2024 (9) TMI 1282 - DELHI HIGH COURT] and Naveen Kumar Gupta [2024 (11) TMI 1071 - DELHI HIGH COURT]
We accordingly dispose of this batch of writ petitions by directing the concerned AOs to evaluate the individual SCNs‘ under Section 148 of the Act bearing in mind our judgments in T.K.S. Builders, Abhinav Jindal and Naveen Kumar Gupta. These decisions have conclusively settled issues pertaining to the accordal of sanction under Section 151 as well as the authority of the jurisdictional AO to commence and undertake reassessment. Those decisions also lay at rest the challenge which the writ petitioners had raised that an AO is bound to adhere to the procedure prescribed by Section 153C in cases emanating from a search.
A similar exercise would have to be undertaken to examine the issue of surviving period in respect of each individual noticee under Section 148 and which would necessarily be guided by the judgments of Rajeev Bansal [2024 (10) TMI 264 - SUPREME COURT (LB)] and Ram Balram. The concerned AOs shall consequently pass a reasoned and speaking order dealing with the impact of the judgments referred to above upon the impugned reassessment notices.
For parity of reasons, we deem it appropriate to set aside the impugned notice under Section 148 of the Act and remand the matter back to the Assessing Officer (AO) to decide the issue of surviving period.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether the date of "initiation of search" for purposes of Section 153C(1) and Section 153C(3) of the Income Tax Act is to be construed as (a) the date on which the physical search at the searched person's premises was conducted or (b) the date on which books of account, documents or assets seized/requisitioned in that search are received by the Assessing Officer having jurisdiction over the "other person".
2. Whether Section 153C is inapplicable to proceedings initiated after 01.04.2021 where, as to the "other person", the date of initiation of search (as construed) falls on or after 01.04.2021 pursuant to Section 153C(3).
3. Whether the first proviso to Section 153C(1) is confined only to abatement of pending assessments under the second proviso to Section 153A(1), or whether it governs the date from which the six-year assessment window and other consequences under Section 153C are to be reckoned.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Legal framework
Legal framework: Sections 153A and 153C read together; Section 153A(1) prescribes assessment/reassessment for six assessment years immediately preceding the assessment year relevant to the previous year in which a search under s.132 or requisition under s.132A is conducted, with a second proviso providing abatement of pending assessments "on the date of initiation of the search". Section 153C(1) permits handing over seized books/documents/assets to the Assessing Officer of an "other person" and requires that officer to proceed "in accordance with the provisions of section 153A"; its first proviso instructs that "reference to the date of initiation of the search under section 132 ... in the second proviso to sub-section (1) of section 153A shall be construed as reference to the date of receiving the books of account or documents or assets seized or requisitioned by the Assessing Officer having jurisdiction over such other person." Section 153C(3) excludes application of Section 153C to searches initiated on or after 01.04.2021.
Issue 1 - Precedent Treatment
Followed: The judgment follows the Supreme Court's decision in CIT v. Jasjit Singh, which rejected the revenue's contention that the 153C proviso is confined only to abatement and held that the proviso also governs the date from which the six-year period is to be reckoned for the third/other person. Other citations referenced: CIT v. Vijaybhai N. Chandrani (on justiciability of s.153C notices writ challenge) and a High Court decision applying s.153A to s.153C (Pavithra Sugichandran), but the Court primarily relied on Jasjit Singh for interpreting the scope of the first proviso to s.153C(1).
Issue 1 - Interpretation and reasoning
The Court parsed the text of Section 153C and its first proviso and concluded that Parliament deliberately fixed different reference dates for the searched person and for the "other person": for the searched person the date of search at the searched premises; for the other person the date on which seized/requisitioned materials are received by the Assessing Officer having jurisdiction over that other person. The first proviso to Section 153C(1) therefore does not merely address abatement; it sets the relevant date for reckoning the six-year assessment period and other consequences for the other person. The Court reasoned that accepting the revenue's narrower construction (first proviso limited to abatement) would lead to disproportionate prejudice to third parties because seizure forwarding delays would effectively "relate back" to the date of seizure, compelling third parties to preserve records for an unduly extended period. The Court relied on Jasjit Singh's reasoning that the proviso was intended to prevent such prejudice and to provide a clear, practical cut-off date for the other person.
Issue 1 - Ratio vs. Obiter
Ratio: The holding that the first proviso to Section 153C(1) determines the date of initiation of search for an "other person" (i.e., the date of receipt of seized/requisitioned materials by that other person's Assessing Officer) for all purposes including reckoning the six-year window, not merely abatement, is ratio decidendi.
Issue 1 - Conclusion
The Court concluded that for the "other person" the date of initiation of search is the date on which the Assessing Officer having jurisdiction over that other person receives the seized/requisitioned books of account, documents or assets; that date governs the six-year assessment period and other consequences under Section 153C.
Issue 2 - Legal framework
Legal framework: Section 153C(3) disapplies Section 153C in relation to any search initiated under Section 132 or requisitioned under Section 132A on or after 01.04.2021.
Issue 2 - Precedent Treatment
Followed: The Court applied the statutory text and the interpretive principle endorsed in Jasjit Singh; it rejected the respondent's submission that the date of actual search (29.01.2019) alone governs applicability of Section 153C to the other person, holding instead that the relevant date for the other person is the date of receipt (25.11.2022).
Issue 2 - Interpretation and reasoning
Applying its conclusion on Issue 1, the Court held that where the Assessing Officer of the other person received seized materials on or after 01.04.2021, the exclusion in Section 153C(3) applies and Section 153C is inapplicable to that other person. The Court found that in the case at hand the seized materials were handed over to the Assessing Officer of the "other person" on 25.11.2022 (after 01.04.2021); therefore Section 153C did not apply to permit issuance of notices dated 07.02.2023 under Section 153C.
Issue 2 - Ratio vs. Obiter
Ratio: The determination that Section 153C(3) renders Section 153C inapplicable where the initiation date for the other person (date of receipt of seized material by that other's AO) falls on or after 01.04.2021, resulting in invalidity of subsequent Section 153C notices, is ratio decidendi for the facts.
Issue 2 - Conclusion
The Court concluded that Section 153C did not apply to the proceedings initiated against the other person because the date of receipt by the Assessing Officer (25.11.2022) post-dated 01.04.2021; accordingly the impugned Section 153C notices issued on 07.02.2023 were without authority and were quashed.
Issue 3 - Legal framework
Legal framework: Interaction between the first proviso to Section 153C(1) and the second proviso to Section 153A(1) (abatement), and whether the first proviso's operation is limited to abatement or extends to computation of the six-year period and other procedural consequences.
Issue 3 - Precedent Treatment
Followed: The Court relied on the Supreme Court's clear rejection of the narrow abatement-only interpretation in Jasjit Singh, adopting the broader textual and purposive construction that the first proviso fixes the reference date for the third person's liabilities and rights under Section 153C.
Issue 3 - Interpretation and reasoning
The Court emphasized statutory coherence: Section 153C expressly references application "in accordance with the provisions of section 153A" for the other person and includes a proviso specifying how references to "date of initiation of the search" in the second proviso to 153A(1) are to be construed when applied to the other person. The Court reasoned that the proviso must therefore govern more than abatement alone; it supplies the relevant temporal anchor for the other person's assessment period and procedural rights, avoiding unfair results that would flow from treating the sought date as the searched person's physical search date.
Issue 3 - Ratio vs. Obiter
Ratio: The determination that the first proviso to Section 153C(1) governs the date for reckoning the six-year period and related consequences for the other person (not merely abatement) is ratio decidendi. Observations on practical consequences and policy concerns are supportive reasoning.
Issue 3 - Conclusion
The Court concluded that the first proviso to Section 153C(1) applies for all practical purposes (including computation of the six-year assessment window and applicability under Section 153C(3)), and not solely for abatement, thereby displacing the earlier narrower construction urged by the revenue.
Disposition and Effect
Applying the above principles to the facts, the Court held that the date of receipt of seized materials by the Assessing Officer of the other person was 25.11.2022, which is after 01.04.2021; therefore Section 153C(3) operates to exclude Section 153C's application and the impugned Section 153C notices dated 07.02.2023 were without authority and were quashed. The Court declined to decide other factual issues as unnecessary in light of this jurisdictional conclusion.
Validity of notice issued u/s 153C after 01.04.2021 - assessment of income of “other person” - whether the issuance of notice, u/s 153C on 07.02.2023, is in accordance with the provision of Section 153C(3) of the Act? - HELD THAT:- The first proviso to Sub-Section (1) of Section 153C is not only for the purpose of abatement but also for all other purposes, viz., initiation of search for other person in terms of Section 153C(3) of the Act. In such case, the date of initiation of search for the petitioner is the date, on which the documents were handed over to the JAO of the petitioner, i.e., 25.11.2022 is the date of initiation of search for the petitioner.
In terms of Sub-Section (3) of Section 153C, the provision of Section 153C will not apply for any search, which is initiated on or after 01.04.2021.
As stated above, in this case, the date of handing over of seized material to the petitioner's JAO is on 25.11.2022 and the said date is the date of initiation of search for the petitioner. Thus, in the present case, it is crystal clear like cloudless sky that the initiation of search was subsequent to 01.04.2021, for which, the provisions of Section 153C will not apply. Therefore, the impugned notices dated 07.02.2023 is unsustainable and the same were issued without authority and against the provisions of Sub-Section (3) of Section 153C of the Act.
In such view of the matter, all the impugned notices are liable to be quashed and accordingly, all the impugned notices dated 07.02.2023 issued by the 2nd respondent are quashed.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether the Income Tax Appellate Tribunal was justified in reversing the Assessing Officer's addition under Section 68 of the Income Tax Act in respect of share capital and share premium where the subscribers' identity and source of funds were, on the material, established.
2. Whether the non-appearance of the company's directors in response to summons under Section 131, without more, permits the Assessing Officer to treat the explanation tendered by the company regarding share issuance and premium as unsatisfactory and to invoke Section 68.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Validity of reversal of Section 68 addition where identity and source are established
Legal framework: Section 68 permits charging to tax any sum credited in the books where the assessee offers no explanation or an explanation which, in the opinion of the Assessing Officer, is not satisfactory. The second proviso specifically requires that where the sum credited consists of share application money, share capital or share premium in a non-public company, the person in whose name the credit is recorded (i.e., the subscriber) must also offer an explanation about the nature and source of such sum and the Assessing Officer must find it satisfactory.
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal and the appellate authority accepted the evidentiary material produced by the assessee and held that the identity of subscribers and source of funds were established. The Court noted a co-ordinate Bench decision (referenced by the assessee) where independent verification of share allotment facts led to non-invocation of Section 68; that decision was relied upon rather than distinguished.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court examined the materials placed on record by the company: return filing acknowledgement, audited balance-sheet, bank statements, Form of return of allotment filed with corporate authorities, confirmations and source-of-funds documentation from subscribers. The appellate authorities' concurrent findings were that subscribers were identified and explanation of nature of transactions was satisfactory. The Court emphasised that Section 68 involves subjective satisfaction of the Assessing Officer based on appreciation of materials, but where the assessee produces contemporaneous statutory records and verifiable bank/filing evidence, a contrary finding of no explanation must be demonstrably perverse to be interfered with on appeal. The Court found no additional material before it to show perversity in the concurrent findings of the two authorities below and accepted their conclusion that Section 68 could not be invoked on the given facts.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Where a company records share issue with contemporaneous statutory filings and verifiable banking and subscriber confirmations establishing identity and source of funds, an Assessing Officer's addition under Section 68 can be set aside; concurrent findings of identification and sufficiency of explanation are binding unless shown to be perverse. Obiter - Reliance on the cited co-ordinate Bench decision is supportive but not treated as a broader rule beyond the facts examined.
Conclusion: The Tribunal was justified in reversing the Section 68 addition because the subscribers were identified and the source/nature of funds for share capital and premium were satisfactorily explained on the record; no substantial question of law arises on this aspect.
Issue 2 - Consequences of directors' non-appearance under Section 131 on sufficiency of explanation under Section 68
Legal framework: Section 131 empowers the Assessing Officer to summon persons and require attendance; non-compliance may permit adverse inference but cannot automatically replace the statutory requirement under Section 68 that the assessee or the person in whose name credit is recorded must offer a satisfactory explanation.
Precedent treatment: The lower authorities evaluated the available documentary and corroborative material despite the non-appearance of directors; the Court referred to that approach approvingly and rejected an automatic legal consequence from non-appearance alone.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court held that the mere absence/non-appearance of directors in response to a Section 131 summons does not automatically justify a finding that no explanation within the meaning of Section 68 was offered. Where the assessee has produced contemporaneous statutory filings, bank records and confirmations from subscribers, the Assessing Officer must consider the material on record. An adverse inference based solely on non-appearance, without demonstrating that documentary/material evidence was insufficient or unreliable, cannot sustain an addition under Section 68. The Court reasoned that the factual matrix showed adequate contemporaneous evidence and independent filings; thus non-appearance did not render the explanation unsatisfactory as a matter of law or fact.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Non-appearance of directors under Section 131, in isolation, is not a ground to treat explanations as unsatisfactory for the purposes of Section 68 when contemporaneous and corroborative documentary evidence identifying subscribers and source of funds exists. Obiter - The Court's observations as to the weight to be attached to Section 131 compliance are contextual to the facts and do not amount to a categorical rule for all cases.
Conclusion: The Assessing Officer erred in treating non-appearance of directors as determinative of insufficiency of explanation; given the documentary and statutory filings produced by the company and the Tribunal's and appellate authority's concurrent factual findings, the Section 68 addition could not be sustained.
Cross-reference and overall conclusion
The two issues are interlinked: the Court's conclusion that the Tribunal rightly reversed the Section 68 addition rests both on the sufficiency of the contemporaneous documentary record establishing identity and source, and on the principle that non-appearance under Section 131 does not, by itself, render such documentary explanations unsatisfactory. The concurrent factual findings of the appellate authority and the Tribunal on identification and source were not shown to be perverse; accordingly, no substantial question of law warranted interference.
Addition u/s 68 - bogus share capital and share premium - Directors did not appear pursuant to the summons issued u/s 131 - on absence of attendance by the Directors of the assessee, the AO proceeded to doubt the identity and creditworthiness of the shareholders and the genuineness of the transactions - HELD THAT:- Section 68 allows the AO on his subjective satisfaction arrived at and on the basis of the appreciation of the materials placed before him, to charge the sum credited in the books of the assessee to income tax of the assessee as income of the assessee.
There are three provisos to Section 68 of the Act of 1961. The first proviso deals with a loan or borrowing. The second proviso deals with share application money and the third proviso speaks about venture capital fund.
Assessee issued allotted shares at a premium. Therefore, at the highest, the second proviso to Section 68 will come into operation, assuming though not admitting that the first part of Section 68 of the Act of 1961 stands satisfied. In the facts and circumstances of the present case, the consistent finding of the appellate authority and the income tax appellate tribunal is that, the persons who applied for the shares stand identified and that, the assessee offered sufficient explanation about the nature of the transactions in question.
In course of hearing before us, the appellant is not in a position to produce any additional or new materials to substantiate that, the concurrent finding of fact by the two authorities, namely, the appellate authority and the income tax tribunal with regard to the explanation offered by the assessee is perverse.
As decided in M/s. Naina Distributors Pvt. Ltd.[2023 (6) TMI 1362 - CALCUTTA HIGH COURT] as found in the facts and circumstances of that case that, the transaction in share allotment in respect of the assessee concerned, was verified independently and that, independent verification did not render any finding so as to invoke Section 68.
The shareholders who applied for the shares in the assessee stands identified. The source of funds stands satisfied. The assessee reflected the entire issue and allotment of shares at a premium in its books of accounts and submitted the same contemporaneously to the statutory authority, namely, Ministry of Corporate Affairs.
Before the Assessing Officer, the assessee produced all such relevant materials with regard to the transaction in question. The absence/non-appearance of the Directors of the assessee before the Assessing Officer would not prompt the AO, to render a finding that no explanation within the meaning of Section 68 was offered by the assessee particularly in the factual matrix of the present case. Assessee appeal allowed.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether an authority under Section 119(2)(b) of the Income-tax Act can condone delay in filing the audit report in Form No.10B where the delay of 133 days was caused by inadvertence of the auditor and not by mala fides or deliberate non-compliance.
2. Whether the statutory requirement to furnish the audit report in Form No.10B electronically with the return (and the related provisos to Section 143(1)) is to be treated as a strictly mandatory bar to exemption under Section 11, or whether it admits of a justice-oriented, directory/substantial-compliance approach permitting condonation in appropriate cases.
3. Whether refusal to condone such delay, when the substantive statutory conditions for exemption are otherwise satisfied and the audit report was prepared in time, results in disproportionate injustice and financial hardship warranting interference by the Court under writ jurisdiction.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1: Power under Section 119(2)(b) to condone delay caused by inadvertence of auditor
Legal framework: Section 119(2)(b) confers administrative power to the Board/authority to condone delay in compliance with statutory requirements; Form No.10B is statutorily mandated for claiming exemption under Section 11 and, as per the provisos to Section 143(1), is required to be furnished electronically within stipulated timeframes.
Precedent treatment: The Court relied on a line of authority wherein similar delays in filing Form No.10B were condoned; those authorities adopted an equitable approach and construed the requirement as amenable to condonation where the delay was not deliberate or mala fide.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court examined the contemporaneous facts - audit report prepared and signed on time, auditor's affidavit admitting inadvertent failure to upload, prompt uploading upon detection and compliance with CPC communication within the second proviso time-limit - and treated the lapse as inadvertent, not deliberate. The Court emphasised the discretion conferred upon the authority to condone delay under Section 119(2)(b) and held that that discretion should be exercised in a justice-oriented manner where delay is bona fide and the substantive conditions for exemption are satisfied.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - administrative power under Section 119(2)(b) includes condonation of delays caused by bona fide inadvertence of auditors where substantive compliance exists; refusal to condone in such circumstances is amenable to judicial review. The Court's reliance on comparable decisions is ratio in the context of like facts. Any broader remarks on policy or legislative wisdom are obiter.
Conclusion: The Court concluded that condonation ought to have been granted: the delay was neither deliberate nor mala fide, and the authority's rejection for lack of "reasonable cause" was unsustainable. The impugned order rejecting condonation was quashed and the delay of 133 days was condoned.
Issue 2: Character of the requirement to furnish Form No.10B (directory vs mandatory/substantive) and applicability of substantial compliance
Legal framework: Statutory scheme requires furnishing of audit report in Form No.10B; provisos to Section 143(1) prescribe electronic filing timelines. The question is whether non-filing strictly bars exemption or whether substantial compliance and justice-oriented discretion can preserve exemption.
Precedent treatment: The Court referred to decisions treating the furnishing requirement as procedural/directory in nature where the substantive audit was completed and later produced (including decisions of the same Court and another High Court that favored an equitable approach); specific earlier authorities were followed for the proposition that substantial compliance suffices in such contexts.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court adopted the view that the provision for furnishing the audit report is procedural and that the discretion to condone delay should be exercised equitably where the assessee had obtained the audit report in time and the lapse was technical. The Court contrasted a pedantic denial of exemption on the ground of timing alone with a balancing approach that prevents grave injustice to charitable entities complying substantively with the statutory regime.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - the requirement to furnish Form No.10B, in circumstances where the audit report was made timely and the failure to upload was inadvertent, may be treated as procedural/directive permitting condonation; consequently, denial of exemption solely on timing where discretionary condonation is available is not justified. Observations about broader policy and legislative choices are obiter.
Conclusion: The Court held that the furnishing requirement admits of substantial-compliance analysis and equitable exercise of discretion; therefore, a technical delay in electronic filing does not automatically defeat the claim to exemption where condonation is appropriate.
Issue 3: Judicial reviewability of refusal to condone and the relief appropriate by writ
Legal framework: Writ jurisdiction permits interference where administrative action is arbitrary, unreasonable or causes injustice; Section 119(2)(b) is a provision under which administrative discretion is exercised and can be reviewed for arbitrary denial.
Precedent treatment: The Court followed prior judgments which interfered where authorities adopted a pedantic approach and denied exemption despite substantive compliance and bona fide delay.
Interpretation and reasoning: Considering that the delay arose from admitted inadvertence, that the petitioner had otherwise complied with statutory requirements, and that the denial produced substantial financial hardship and undermined the substantive right to exemption, the Court found the impugned order unreasonable. The Court emphasised proportionality and justice-oriented exercise of discretion and exercised supervisory jurisdiction to quash the order and grant condonation itself.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - courts may set aside administrative refusals to condone genuine, non-mala fide delay where such refusal produces disproportionate hardship and when the authority's exercise of discretion is not in accordance with principles of reasonableness and justice. Ancillary remarks on administrative mindset are obiter.
Conclusion: Judicial interference was warranted; the Court quashed the impugned order and condoned the delay of 133 days in filing Form No.10B, disposing of the petition without costs.
Cross-references and Consolidated Outcome
All issues converge on the central proposition: where an audit report was prepared and signed within time, but electronic filing was inadvertently omitted by a senior citizen auditor and uploaded promptly upon discovery, the authority under Section 119(2)(b) should adopt an equitable, justice-oriented approach and condone bona fide delay rather than deny exemption on a purely technical ground. The Court followed like precedents and held that the impugned denial lacked reasonable basis, quashing the order and condoning the delay.
Denial of exemption u/s 11 on account of non-filing of the audit report in Form No.10B electronically - Rejecting the Petitioner’s application u/s 119(2)(b) - condonation of delay of 133 days in filing Form No.10B for the Assessment Year 2019-20 - HELD THAT:- We find that the delay in filing Form No.10B was neither deliberate nor mala fide but was on account of inadvertence on the part of the Petitioner’s auditor who has admitted the same in his Affidavit dated 3rd March 2025. The Petitioner, a Charitable Trust running educational institutions, had otherwise complied with the statutory requirements, obtained the audit report in time, and filed it immediately upon noticing the lapse. We, therefore, agree with the counsel for the Petitioner that refusal to condone this delay will result in grave injustice and financial hardship to the Petitioner, which runs various educational institutions, especially when the demand has arisen solely on account of a technical lapse.
As relying on St. Thomas High School [2025 (9) TMI 660 - BOMBAY HIGH COURT] we accordingly quash and set aside the impugned order dated 26th March 2025 passed by Respondent No.1 under Section 119(2) (b) of the Act. Now that the impugned order is quashed, we also hereby condone the delay of 133 days in filing Form No.10B.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether a Circular issued by the Board under section 119 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 extending the "specified date" under section 44AB can stand without a simultaneous extension of the "due date" for filing return under section 139(1), in view of Explanation (ii) to section 44AB (as amended by Finance Act, 2020).
2. Whether the Board (CBDT) has the statutory power under section 119 to extend the "due date" under section 139(1) as a necessary consequence of extending the "specified date" under section 44AB, and whether failure to do so renders Explanation (ii) to section 44AB otiose.
3. Whether judicial precedent and statutory interpretation require the Board to issue a consequential notification extending the due date where it has extended the specified date for furnishing tax-audit reports.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Validity and effect of extending "specified date" under section 44AB without extending "due date" under section 139(1)
Legal framework: Section 44AB mandates that certain assessees obtain an audit and furnish the audit report before the "specified date"; Explanation (ii) to section 44AB (post-Finance Act, 2020) defines "specified date" as "date one month prior to the due date for furnishing the return of income under sub-section (1) of section 139." Explanation 2(a) to section 139(1) prescribes the "due date" (for relevant assessees) as the 31st day of October of the assessment year (for the assessment year in question).
Interpretation and reasoning: The Finance Act, 2020 deliberately introduced a one-month gap between the "specified date" and the "due date" to enable pre-filling of returns. That legislative design amended multiple provisions that reference the "specified date" so that various substantive benefits and compliance preconditions operate only if the audit report is furnished one month prior to the return filing due date. Giving effect to the statute requires that the distinct meaning of "specified date" be preserved; extending the specified date alone collapses the intended one-month gap and thereby frustrates the legislative purpose.
Precedent treatment: This Court's earlier decision (All Gujarat Federation of Tax Consultants v. CBDT) was relied upon and reiterated; that decision holds that the Board cannot extend the tax-audit due date (specified date) alone without extending the return due date, because the two are inextricably linked. The Board's past practice of separately issuing two circulars in different months does not negate the statutory requirement that the "specified date" be one month prior to the "due date".
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - where Explanation (ii) ties the specified date to the due date, an executive circular extending the specified date must be accompanied by an extension of the due date to preserve the statutory one-month interval; otherwise the statutory scheme is undermined. Obiter - observations about administrative convenience or portal monitoring are incidental and do not displace the statutory requirement.
Conclusion: Extending the "specified date" without concomitant extension of the "due date" is contrary to Explanation (ii) to section 44AB and to the legislative intent of Finance Act, 2020; the Board's Circular extending only the specified date lacks consonance with the statute insofar as it does not effect a corresponding extension of the due date for filing returns.
Issue 2 - Scope of section 119 power to extend the "due date" and the necessity of a consequential notification
Legal framework: Section 119 empowers the Board to issue instructions and relax provisions of the Act in appropriate cases. Section 44AB itself contains no express power to be relaxed by section 119; section 139(1) can be relaxed by the Board under section 119(2) by extending the due date for filing returns.
Interpretation and reasoning: Where the Board purports to extend the "specified date" (a term defined by reference to the due date of section 139), the only administratively and legally coherent method to place that extension within the Board's jurisdiction is to exercise power under section 119 to extend the due date under section 139(1). Doing so preserves the statutory relation and avoids rendering Explanation (ii) nugatory. The Board's technical delineation between "due date" and "specified date" in prior notifications cannot override the statutory linkage created by the Finance Act, 2020.
Precedent treatment: This Court's earlier ruling (All Gujarat Federation of Tax Consultants) held that the Board cannot lawfully extend the tax-audit specified date alone without extending the return due date and that the valid exercise of section 119 must extend section 139(1) when section 44AB is to be given effect as intended. The Supreme Court's dismissal of SLPs against that ruling left the question open (i.e., not finally decided by the Apex Court), but did not negate the High Court's reasoning; thus the High Court's position remains binding in the present proceedings.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - section 119 empowers the Board to relax section 139(1), and where the Board extends the specified date under section 44AB it must concomitantly relax section 139(1) so that the one-month gap mandated by Explanation (ii) survives; failure to do so places the Board's action outside the statutory scheme. Obiter - administrative statements about portal monitoring and discretionary timing for extensions are not determinative of the legal requirement.
Conclusion: The Board has the requisite power under section 119 to extend the due date under section 139(1); where it extends the specified date for audit reports it is required, as a legal consequence and to give effect to Explanation (ii) to section 44AB, to issue a simultaneous (or consequential) notification extending the due date for filing returns.
Issue 3 - Appropriate remedy and direction
Interpretation and reasoning: Given the statutory linkage and prior judicial rulings, and to avoid rendering statutory amendments nugatory, a direction requiring the Board to exercise its section 119 power and extend the due date is an appropriate and proportionate remedy. Administrative convenience (monitoring e-filing) cannot justify divergence from the legislated one-month interval where the Board has already altered the specified date by circular.
Precedent treatment: Consistent with this Court's earlier decision, and applying statutory interpretation principles that no provision should be rendered redundant, the Court concluded that a consequential extension of the due date is required.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - where the Board extends the specified date, the Board must issue a consequential extension of the due date so that Explanation (ii) to section 44AB operates as amended; judicial direction to issue such consequential circular is permissible to vindicate statutory intent where the executive has already acted in a manner that requires supplementation. Obiter - criticisms of the Board's timing practices are incidental.
Conclusion and operative outcome: The Court directed the Board to issue a Circular under section 119 extending the due date for filing returns for assessees required to furnish audit reports (clause (a) of Explanation 2 to section 139(1)) to 30th November, 2025, as a necessary consequence of extending the specified date to 31st October, 2025; petitions disposed accordingly and notice discharged.
Extension of specified date for filing the tax audit report under section 44AB - whether the due date u/s 139 (1) is required to be extended in view of the Circular No. 14/2024 dated 25.09.2025 as per Explanation (ii) to Section 44AB of the Act or not by the respondent no. 2. - “specified date” in relation to the accounts of the assessee of the previous year relevant to an assessment year -
HELD THAT:- From the analysis of the provisions of the Act and taking into consideration the Explanatory Memorandum for Finance Act, 2020, by which the Explanation (ii) to Section 44AB has been amended and all other Sections referred to herein-above also have been amended to mean the specified date in relation to the accounts of the assessee of the previous relevant Assessment Year means date one month prior to “the due date for furnishing the return of income under sub-section(1) of Section 139 of the Act.
Therefore, extending the specified date without extending the due date for furnishing the return of income under sub-section (1) of Section 139 of the Act would be contrary to the statutory provisions. As the specified date is extended as per the Circular No. 14/2025, the due date has to be extended accordingly by one month from the date of extension of the specified date.
For the Assessment Year 2025-26, the due date for furnishing the return of income under sub-section (1) of Section 139 of the Act read with Explanation-2(a) is prescribed as 31st October, 2025. Therefore, as per the Explanation (ii) to Section 44AB of the Act, the specified date in relation to the account of the assessee of the previous year relevant to the Assessment Year 2025-26 would be the date one month prior to the due date of furnishing the return of income under sub-section (1) of Section 139 of the Act would be 30.09.2025.
Respondent no. 2 – CBDT by Circular No. 14/2025 has extended the “specified date” in exercise of the power conferred upon it u/s 119 of the Act has from 30th September to 31st October, 2025 for the assesses which are required to file the return of income as per Explanation (a) to Section 139 (1) of the Act which provides filing of return by 31.10.2025.
Considering the above facts and the Explanation (ii) to Section 44AB of the Act the “specified date” has to be one month prior to the “due date” of furnishing return of income meaning thereby that there has to be is gap/ difference of one month between the “specified date” and “due date” for filing return of income, otherwise, the Explanation (ii) to Section 44AB of the Act would be rendered negatory and otiose. The statutory provisions which have been amended by Finance Act,2020 cannot be rendered nugatory or otiose.
Hon’ble Apex Court in case of Bansal Wire Industries Ltd. & Anr. v. State of Uttar Pradesh & Ors. [2011 (4) TMI 77 - SUPREME COURT] observed "It is a settled principle of law that the words used in the section, rule or notification should not be redundant and should be given effect to. It is also one of the cardinal principles of interpretation of any statute that some meaning must be given to the words used in the section”
In view of the above dictum of law, the Circular No. 14/2025 is not in consonance with the provisions of the Act meaning thereby that merely extending the “specified date” without extending the “due date” for filing of return would be contrary to the Explanation (ii) to Section 44AB of the Act and contrary to the legislative intention to bring amendment by Finance Act, 2020. This fact is further fortified from the previous years data which is placed on record which clearly demonstrates that at no point of time the difference between the “specified date “ and the “due date” is less than one month after the Assessment Year 2021-22 from which the amendment brought on record by the statute by Finance Act, 2020 is applicable and the last five years data.
As the respondent no. 2 CBDT has not issued any Circular while exercising its power under Section 119 of the Act to extend the “due date” for filing the return of income for the assessees covered by Explanation (a) to Section 139 (1) of the Act to 30th November,2025, when the “specified date” is extended from 30.09.2025 to 31.10.2025, a consequential Circular to extend the “due date” to 30.11.2025 as per the provisions of Explanation (ii) to Section 44AB read with Section Explanation (a) to Section 139 (1) of the Act is required to be issued. If ‘due date’ for filing return of income under Section 139(1) of the Act is not extended by the respondent no. 2 -CBDT then the Explanation (ii) to Section 44AB of the Act shall be rendered negatory and the “specified date” defined therein would as per the extended date by the CBDT and not as per the statutory provision being one month to the due date of filing of the return . The present situation would restore the pre amended provision of filing audit report and return of income together contrary to existing provisions of the Act.
In the aforesaid circumstances, and having regard to the provisions of Explanation (ii) of Section 44AB of the Act, we direct the respondent no. 2 CBDT to issue Circular exercising power under sections 119 of the Act to extend the “due date” of filing of return up to 30th November,2025 for the assessees who are required to file audit report as per clause (a) of Explanation 2 to sub-section (1) of section 139 of the Act or requiring to file the report of audit under the provisions of the Act for the Financial Year 2024-25 (Assessment Year 2025-26).
Issues: Whether the respondent committed civil contempt by wilfully disobeying the order directing fresh consideration of the assessee's stay application.
Analysis: Civil contempt under Section 2(b) of the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 requires a judgment, order or direction and its wilful disobedience. Wilful disobedience signifies a conscious, intentional and contumacious breach, and mere error of judgment, brief reasoning, or a bona fide decision taken on relevant materials does not suffice. The order dated 05.04.2019 was founded on the CBDT office memoranda governing stay of demand, the assessee's payment history, and the absence of material showing weak financial condition. The order therefore reflected application of mind and could not be treated as a deliberate defiance of the earlier direction.
Conclusion: No civil contempt was made out against the respondent.
Final Conclusion: The contempt proceedings were dropped, and no punitive action followed against the respondent.
Ratio Decidendi: A contempt finding for disobedience of a court order can be sustained only where the breach is wilful and contumacious; a reasoned decision taken bona fide on relevant considerations, even if imperfect or brief, does not amount to civil contempt.
Rejection of stay application - directed the assessee to deposit 20% of entire demand in light of CBDT circular vide O.M. No. 404/72/93-ITCC dated 29.02.2016 and its amendment dated 31.07.2017 - HELD THAT:- A conjoint reading of OMs clearly brings out that where the demand was contested before CIT (A), as in the present case, normally grant of stay of demand till disposal of first appeal shall be subject to payment of 20% of the disputed demand. It is only in the event that payment of a lump-sum amount higher than 20% is warranted, that the reasons are required to be given.
Reference in this regard may be had to the following observations made in Skyline Engineering Contracts [2021 (8) TMI 1051 - DELHI HIGH COURT] while dealing with the question of deposit of 20% in terms of OM dated 29.02.2016, as amended by OM dated 25.08.2017 finds that in the present matters no order has been passed by the Assessing Officer under Section 245 of the Act for adjustments of refunds. Moreover, there is no order by the Assessing Officer giving any special/particular reason as to why any amount in excess of 20% of the outstanding demand should be recovered from the petitioner-assessee at this stage in accordance with paragraph 4(B) of the office memorandum dated 29th February, 2016.
Consequently, this Court is of the view that the respondents are entitled to seek pre-deposit of only 20% of the disputed demand during the pendency of the appeals in accordance with paragraph 4(A) of the office memorandum dated 29th February, 2016, as amended by the office memorandum dated 25th August, 2017.
Besides relying upon CBDT circulars viz. OM dated 29.02.2016 and OM dated 25.08.2017, the respondent also took into consideration the financial condition of the assessee, as was borne out from the returns of Assessment Years 2011-12 to 2016-17, to record that the financial condition of assessee is sound and payment of 20% of the entire demand will not cause any financial hardship to the assessee.
Respondent also stated that the assessee has not given any evidence regarding his weak financial position warranting direction to pay less than 20% demand.
Thus, this Court finds that the decision taken by the respondent vide its order dated 05.04.2019 is not bereft of reasons, albeit, such reasons are brief and not elaborate. The order does reflect due application of mind on the part of respondent.
In the facts and circumstances of the present case, this Court does not find that there is any wilful disobedience of the order dated 05.04.2019, or that the order has been passed by the respondent with evil intent or with a bad motive or purpose, especially when the order has been passed in the light of CBDT circular, i.e., OM dated 29.02.2016, as amended by OM dated 25.08.2017.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether the reassessment proceedings under section 147/148 were validly initiated where the reason recorded by the Assessing Officer omitted a paragraph but referred to information available on the Department's centralized Insight Portal and was approved by the competent authority.
2. Whether information arising from enquiries and findings (including material originating from investigation/search of third parties) disseminated centrally on the Insight Portal can furnish the foundational material for formation of belief under section 147, or whether proceedings should have been initiated under section 153C instead.
3. Whether the Assessing Officer correctly treated entire sale proceeds of shares as unexplained cash credit/ accommodation entry (invoking the principles applicable to section 68 and admission of accommodation-entry providers), where the assessee claimed long-term capital gains (LTCG) exempt and produced limited documentary evidence of purchases.
4. Whether surrounding circumstances, absence of purchase documentation, atypical investment behaviour of a salaried person in penny-stock transactions, and departmental investigative findings suffice to displace documentary sale evidence (STT-paid sales receipts and bank payments) and establish transactions as sham, permitting denial of exempt LTCG.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Validity of Reopening: Sufficiency of Reasons Where a Paragraph Is Omitted but Information from a Centralized Portal Existed
Legal framework: Formation of belief for reopening under section 147 requires recording of reasons which demonstrate application of mind to available material; competent authority's sanction under the relevant provision is required where time limits exceed specified years.
Precedent treatment: Earlier judicial pronouncements require that reasons recorded must reflect application of mind and cannot be supplemented later; however, authorities have held that where no prior assessment under scrutiny existed, reasons based on investigative information may suffice. Higher court authority also permits reopening to examine documents seized in search.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal found the omission of a paragraph in the recorded reasons to be a typographical/clerical lapse because the reasons expressly referred to information disseminated via the Insight Portal and stated that the AO had verified ITBA/ITD data and other material. The Tribunal held there is no legal requirement to reproduce verbatim the underlying information in the reasons; what matters is that the AO applied his mind to the received information and formed a bona fide belief of escapement. The competent authority's approval, having been given after verification of Portal data by that officer, was treated as valid.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - omission of reproduction of source material in the recorded reasons does not vitiate reopening so long as the reasons demonstrate consideration of identifiable material and application of mind; approval by competent authority is valid if it is given after reviewing the relevant disseminated information. Obiter - observations distinguishing cases where prior scrutiny assessment existed and additional statutory requirements applied.
Conclusion: Reopening under section 147/148 was valid. The AO's reasons, despite a missing paragraph, and the sanction by the competent authority were sufficient to sustain the formation of belief.
Issue 2 - Use of Material Originating from Third-party Searches and Applicability of Section 153C
Legal framework: Documents seized in searches of third parties may trigger proceedings under section 153C when the AO of the searched person records satisfaction and forwards material; alternatively, sections 147/148 permit reopening to consider information including seized documents where available to the AO.
Precedent treatment: Courts have recognized both routes - section 153C where procedural prerequisites are fulfilled, and section 147/148 where documents/seized material are considered by the AO following lawful dissemination; Supreme Court authority has allowed use of search materials to initiate reassessment.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal noted that no formal satisfaction/reason recorded by the AO of the searched person and no forwarding of documents under section 153C occurred. Instead, investigative findings were uploaded centrally on the Insight Portal and disseminated; therefore the statutory prerequisites for section 153C were absent and AO validly relied on centrally disseminated information to form belief under section 147. Reliance by the revenue on earlier higher-court precedent permitting consideration of seized documents in reassessment was accepted.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - where no formal satisfaction and forwarding under section 153C occurred, reassessment under section 147/148 can validly proceed based on centrally disseminated investigative information; Obiter - procedural distinctions between different factual matrices.
Conclusion: Initiation of reassessment under section 147/148 was not rendered invalid by the fact that investigative material related to third parties; section 153C was not applicable on these facts.
Issue 3 - Onus under Section 68 and Treatment of Claimed LTCG as Accommodation Entry / Unexplained Credit
Legal framework: When unexplained credit/receipt is alleged, section 68 principles place the onus on the taxpayer to prove the nature and source of the credit; for exemption claims (LTCG), genuineness of both purchase and sale must be established for correct computation and claim of exemption. Revenue may test genuineness by circumstantial evidence and the principle of preponderance of probabilities.
Precedent treatment: Jurisprudence allows revenue to look beyond documentary formalities, apply "substance over form" or "piercing the corporate veil" where surrounding circumstances indicate sham transactions; courts have approved holistic assessment including abnormal price movements, manipulation, and coordinated trading to infer accommodation entry. Authorities have cautioned that documentary evidence alone may not be conclusive where surrounding facts suggest fraud.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal reviewed facts: no contract notes or purchase vouchers were produced despite requisition; original return did not disclose any capital gains while a later return filed after notice declared exempt LTCG; de-mat entries showed initial credits in a different company and subsequent subdivision into the penny-stock; assessee was a salaried individual with no trading history who invested in low-profile/penny stocks; departmental investigation and admission by an alleged entry operator established a racket in bogus LTCG through manipulated penny stocks; market price behavior of the scrip showed non-economic abrupt movements consistent with manipulation. Applying the preponderance of human probabilities and accepted principles that surrounding circumstances may override facial documentary evidence, the Tribunal held that documentary proof of sale (STT-paid, bank receipts) was insufficient by itself to establish genuineness without satisfactory proof of purchase and economic rationale. The assessee failed to discharge the onus under section 68; the LTCG claim was a façade for unexplained credit.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - where purchase documentation is absent and surrounding circumstances (investigative findings, atypical investor profile, manipulated price behavior, admissions by entry operators) establish a strong inference of sham/accommodation entries, the revenue may treat receipts as unexplained credits and deny exemption; Obiter - commentary on the inapplicability of accepting sale-side evidence alone without purchase corroboration in such contexts.
Conclusion: The Tribunal upheld the AO's treatment of the sale proceeds as unexplained/accommodation entries and confirmed the addition; the assessee failed to meet the onus to prove genuineness of purchases and the LTCG claim.
Issue 4 - Evidentiary Approach: Documentary Evidence versus Surrounding Circumstances and Standard of Proof
Legal framework: Taxing authorities may examine surrounding circumstances and apply the test of preponderance of probabilities; documentary records are not conclusive if overall facts point to manipulation or sham transactions.
Precedent treatment: Higher courts have endorsed a holistic approach that considers trade volumes, timing, proximity between buy and sell orders, market behaviour, and investigatory leads to infer fraudulent or manipulative schemes; authorities may "work backwards" to identify beneficiaries.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal applied the preponderance test, found the totality of adverse inferences (no purchase documents, late disclosure of LTCG only after reopening notice, investigation results, admission by entry operator, abnormal scrip movements, and the assessee's profile) to outweigh the documentary sale evidence. The Tribunal held that acceptance of sale documents alone would be naïve given coordinated manipulation and prior meeting of minds typically involved in bogus LTCG schemes; hence substance prevailed over form.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - where circumstantial evidence cumulatively points to sham transactions, the standard of preponderance permits denial of claims despite documentary sale evidence; Obiter - procedural observations on cross-examination opportunities and evidentiary steps not decisive on these facts.
Conclusion: Surrounding circumstances and preponderance of probabilities justified the conclusion that transactions were not genuine; documentary sale evidence did not discharge the onus, and the Tribunal confirmed the addition and dismissed the appeal.
Validity of reassessment proceedings - as alleged satisfaction of escapement of income was recorded by the AO without any foundational fact or information available on record - Addition u/s 68 - genuineness of the credit transactions not proved - HELD THAT:- We are of the considered opinion that the transactions entered into by the assessee are not genuine. The manner of purchase of shares of M/s Nyssa Corporation Ltd being not explained, non-disclosure of the gain arising in trade of shares in the original return of income; the assessee has not discharged his onus against the adverse evidences brought on record by the AO and no satisfactory reply was given to explain the same. The unusual investment in shares of M/s Nyssa Corporation Ltd., the preponderance of probabilities and the surrounding circumstances as discussed above, are heavily loaded against the genuineness of the transactions and, therefore, we have no hesitation in confirming the findings of the AO which was upheld by the CIT(A).
Assessee has relied upon several case laws which are found to be different on facts. On the other hand, the AO and the ld. CIT(A) have also relied upon various decisions in their respective orders. The issue is not of application of any particular case law, but to examine and appreciate the facts and circumstances of the instant case. As the Revenue had invoked the provisions of Section 68 of the Act, the onus was squarely on the assessee to prove the genuineness of the credit transactions, which has not been discharged by the assessee.
Revenue has brought enough materials on record to exhibit the transactions as sham or bogus as well as unexplained and the assessee has miserably failed to establish the genuineness of the impugned credit entry of LTCG/sale transactions appearing in the accounts. Since the exempted LTCG claim of the assessee was only a facade created to conceal the true nature of the credit entry appearing in the accounts, the addition as made by the AO is confirmed and the order of the CIT(A) is upheld. Decided against assessee.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether the non-resident's non-exclusive distributor in India constitutes a Permanent Establishment (PE) - fixed place PE or dependent agent PE (DAPE) - under Article 5 of the India-Ireland Tax Treaty and domestic tax law.
2. Whether profits may be attributed to an alleged PE by resort to Rule 10 (estimation) and the AO's methodology (35% profit margin on gross revenue and 70% attribution to PE) where international transactions between the parties have been found at arm's length.
3. Whether receipts from sale of hardware and related export transactions can be included in the income attributable to the alleged PE, notwithstanding that sales were on a principal-to-principal basis and the distributor conducted business on its own account.
4. Whether the Dispute Resolution Panel's (DRP) directions to the AO (to verify factual identity with prior years and to uphold proposed variation where appeals are pending) were lawful and whether the AO complied with binding coordinate-bench and High Court decisions in the assessee's own earlier years.
5. Whether the claim regarding alleged TDS of INR 16,200 on income-tax refund requires verification and appropriate action.
6. Whether initiation of penalty proceedings under section 270A and imposition of interest under section 234B are premature in the circumstances.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Existence of Permanent Establishment (fixed place PE / dependent agent PE)
Legal framework: Determination of PE governed by Article 5 of the India-Ireland DTAA (fixed place PE, agency PE, and requirements such as authority to conclude contracts, habitual conclusion of contracts, maintenance of fixed place of business). Domestic law and OECD commentary inform interpretation.
Precedent Treatment: The Tribunal and the High Court in multiple prior assessments of the same taxpayer (identical factual matrix) held that the subsidiary/distributor does not constitute a PE. Those coordinate-bench decisions and the High Court's rulings were relied upon and followed.
Interpretation and reasoning: The distribution agreement designates the local entity as a non-exclusive distributor and licensee, describes the distributor as an independent contractor, reserves rights to the principal, and places business operations, expenses and premises under the distributor's sole control. Key clauses (appointment, reservation of rights, business operations, relationship of parties) demonstrate (i) transfers of property in hardware to the distributor (principal-to-principal sale), (ii) distributor control over premises and personnel, and (iii) an express denial of agency authority to create obligations or contract on behalf of the principal. There was no material showing the distributor habitually concluded contracts on behalf of the non-resident, maintained stock on behalf of the non-resident, or employees of the non-resident were at the distributor's disposal. The AO had selectively relied on isolated contractual phrases without establishing the requisites of Article 5(5)/(6) (agency PE) or permanency of place of business for a fixed place PE.
Ratio vs. Obiter: The holding that the distributor is an independent contractor and not a PE is ratio decidendi, grounded on construction of the distribution agreement and factual matrix. Observations on the absence of employees at the disposal of the non-resident and on principal-to-principal transfers are integral to the ratio. Any incidental comments contrasting earlier AO findings are obiter but supportive.
Conclusions: The distributor does not constitute either a fixed place PE or a dependent agent PE of the non-resident. Prior coordinate-bench and High Court findings on identical facts are followed; grounds challenging PE are allowed and the addition on account of attributed PE profits is deleted.
Issue 2 - Attribution of profits by Rule 10 methodology (35% profit and 70% attribution)
Legal framework: Rule 10 permits computation of income attributable to business activities in India where accounts are not available; attribution principles under treaty and domestic law require a proper allocation based on functions, assets and risks and respect for arm's-length characterization of international transactions.
Precedent Treatment: Earlier Tribunal orders for the taxpayer held that where international transactions were at arm's length, no further attribution to PE can be sustained. Those decisions were followed.
Interpretation and reasoning: The AO's estimate (35% profit on gross receipts and a 70% allocation to PE) was arbitrary and unsupported by examined facts, especially where the parties' international transactions were found to be at arm's length. Rule 10 quantification cannot substitute for the absence of any factual foundation showing the PE's function/role warranting the specific percentages chosen. The AO failed to substantiate why the distributor's independent operations warranted attributing 70% of profits to an alleged PE of the non-resident.
Ratio vs. Obiter: The rejection of the AO's Rule 10 computation for lack of basis is ratio. Observations about appropriate use of Rule 10 and necessity of factual foundation are binding for the assessment.
Conclusions: The AO's arbitrary attribution methodology cannot stand; the addition based on Rule 10 computation is deleted in light of the finding that no PE exists and lack of factual basis for the estimates.
Issue 3 - Inclusion of hardware sales in PE income where sales were principal-to-principal
Legal framework: Taxability of business profits attributable to a PE requires that income be attributable to activities of that PE; transfer of property in goods on principal-to-principal terms generally means reseller acts on its own account and profits are its own.
Precedent Treatment: Tribunal's analysis of the distribution agreement established that hardware sales were effected by the non-resident to the distributor (resale by distributor), not sales by the distributor on behalf of the non-resident; therefore hardware consideration could not be attributed to an alleged PE.
Interpretation and reasoning: Clause definitions and distribution covenants show property in hardware passed to the distributor; distributor used goods as inputs for its own manufacturing/resale. There was no material showing that such hardware sales were executed for or on behalf of the non-resident in a manner that would attribute the proceeds to a PE of the non-resident.
Ratio vs. Obiter: The conclusion that hardware receipts cannot be included in PE income on the facts is ratio.
Conclusions: Inclusion of hardware receipts in the income attributed to the alleged PE was unsustainable; the AO's inclusion is reversed as part of deleting the PE-based addition.
Issue 4 - Lawfulness and application of DRP directions and AO compliance with binding coordinate-bench/High Court decisions
Legal framework: DRP directions under section 144C(5) guide completion of assessment; AO is required to follow binding appellate decisions where issues and factual matrices are identical, unless the revenue has pursued further appeal keeping the issue alive.
Precedent Treatment: DRP acknowledged this is a legacy issue and directed the AO to verify if earlier decisions have been accepted or if revenue has filed further appeals; if appeals were pending, DRP indicated the proposed variation could be upheld to keep the matter alive.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal examined prior appellate orders and the High Court judgment which rejected the PE claim, noted the revenue had not accepted earlier orders in some years but that in the years relevant to the impugned assessment the factual matrix was identical and the coordinate-bench/Hon'ble High Court decisions were in favour of the taxpayer. The Tribunal followed those binding decisions rather than upholding DRP's direction to sustain the addition merely to keep issues alive where facts and legal conclusions were identical and binding precedents stood for the taxpayer.
Ratio vs. Obiter: The Tribunal's direction to adhere to prior binding decisions in identical facts is ratio; DRP's instruction to uphold adjustments to keep issues alive where higher courts had pending appeals is treated as procedural guidance but cannot override binding appellate determinations.
Conclusions: The AO was required to follow the coordinate-bench and High Court decisions applicable on identical facts. The DRP's directions did not justify sustaining the addition where binding appellate orders were in favour of the assessee; the addition was deleted accordingly.
Issue 5 - Verification of alleged TDS of INR 16,200 on income-tax refund
Legal framework: Assessment officer to verify claims of relief or TDS credits and take action according to law where amounts are disputed or incorrectly recorded.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal directed the AO to verify the assessee's claim about the purported TDS deduction and take necessary action in law, indicating that the claim required factual verification rather than summary rejection.
Ratio vs. Obiter: The direction to verify is operative and therefore part of the dispositive order (ratio as applied to administrative follow-up).
Conclusions: The AO is directed to verify the asserted TDS on tax refund and act as per law; ground on this point is partly allowed.
Issue 6 - Penalty under section 270A and interest under section 234B - prematurity
Legal framework: Penalty proceedings under section 270A and interest assessments may be premature if founded on disputed additions that are yet to attain finality.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal held that initiation of penalty proceedings under section 270A was premature in the circumstances of the pending/contested additions and assessment appellate history.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Dismissal of the penalty ground as premature is ratio in the present assessment context.
Conclusions: Ground challenging initiation of penalty proceedings is dismissed as premature; overall appeal is partly allowed (deletion of addition), with other without-prejudice grounds rendered academic and kept open.
Accrual of income in India - Revenue earned in the form of Sale of Software, Export of Goods, Reimbursements and Royalty for use of technology and brand - 'business connection' and a 'Permanent Establishment' in India - assessee was a tax resident of Ireland and was the principal distributor and licensor for software and hardware products and related support services - AO noted that during the year the assessee sold NCR software and hardware products and related support services through its Affiliates and in India, GSL had appointed M/s NCR Corporation India Pvt Ltd. (CIPL) as its non-exclusive distributor in exchange for payments for NCR's distribution activities -
HELD THAT:- The present cases are identical to the facts in the case of the assessee [2023 (4) TMI 1303 - ITAT DELHI] and therefore we hold that the assessee does not have PE in India, through it nonexclusive distributor CIPL and also cannot be treated as dependent agent PE of the assessee in India. CIT(DR) has also not brought any contrary facts or any favourable decision in its support. Accordingly, we delete the addition made by the AO. Decided in favour of assessee.
Issues: Whether the reassessment notice issued in the name of an amalgamated and non-existent company was valid.
Analysis: The assessee had informed the tax authorities that the erstwhile company had ceased to exist after amalgamation and that the resultant entity had assumed its identity. The reassessment notice, however, was issued in the name of the non-existent amalgamated company. A notice issued to an entity that had already ceased to exist is vitiated, and the defect is not cured by the subsequent reliance on later case law supporting the Revenue.
Conclusion: The reassessment notice was invalid and the finding of the first appellate authority was upheld; the Revenue's appeal failed.
Reassessment proceedings against non existing company - Scheme of amalgamation conceived - HELD THAT:- We find that the assessee had duly informed the fact the erstwhile company had seized to exist, yet, the reassessment notice was issued in the name of the erstwhile company. Reliance in this regard is rightly placed on the decision of Sky Light Hospitality LLP [2018 (2) TMI 1093 - DELHI HIGH COURT] where such notice on non-existent entity is vitiated. Thus, we find no reason to interfere in the findings of the ld.CIT(A). The appeal of the Revenue is dismissed.
Issues: Whether the management fee or processing fee received in connection with the ECB loan was taxable as fee for technical services, or whether it partook the character of interest and was outside taxability in India under the India-Germany DTAA.
Analysis: The payment was found to be identical to the processing fee considered in the assessee's earlier year. The Tribunal applied its earlier view that charges such as management fee, commitment fee and documentation fee, when closely linked to the loan facility, are part of the loan-related consideration and fall within the definition of interest under the domestic law. On that basis, the receipt could not be treated as fee for technical services under section 9(1)(vii) of the Income-tax Act, 1961, and was covered by the treaty protection under Article 11(3)(b) of the India-Germany DTAA.
Conclusion: The addition made by treating the management fee or processing fee as fee for technical services was deleted and the issue was decided in favour of the assessee.
TDS u/s 195 - foreign remittances toward Management Fee (Processing Fee) to the assessee and no TDS has been deducted on these remittances - HELD THAT:- The facts of the present case are identical to the facts in the case of the assessee for A.Y. 2016-17 as admitted by the AO and the DRP as discussed above. During the present assessment year, the AO had taxed the amount received by the assessee towards Management Fees (Processing Fee) as FTS wherein identical being similar nature of payment towards “Processing Fee’ was taxed in A.Y. 2016-17 in Assessee’s own case, which was deleted by the Co-ordinate Bench of the Tribunal in assessee’s own case for A.Y. 2016-17 in the order cited above. Therefore, following the order of the Co-ordinate Bench of the Tribunal in the assessee’s own case, as referred to above, we hold that the amount is not taxable, as it does not qualify as FTS. Accordingly, the addition made by the AO is deleted. Ground no. 3 of the appeal is allowed.
Levy of fees u/s 234F - AR submitted that the said fees of Rs. 10,000/- was levied on wrong facts as the assessee filed its return of income in response to notice u/s 148 of the Act, and therefore, no levy of fees u/s 234F was applicable in the case of the assessee - AO is directed to verify the above claim of the assessee and take necessary action as per law.
Issues: Whether the receipts from GIT infrastructure charges for use of third-party software were taxable as Fees for Included Services or royalty under the Income-tax Act, 1961 and Article 12 of the India-Canada DTAA.
Analysis: The receipts arose from use of software licensed from third-party vendors and not from any transfer of technical knowledge, skill, know-how, or process to the Indian group entities. Applying the make available requirement under Article 12(4)(b), the services did not enable the recipient to perform the function independently without recourse to the assessee. The payment was for a copyrighted article and no copyright or commercial exploitation right was granted. The facts were held to be identical to the assessee's earlier year, where the coordinate bench had deleted a similar addition.
Conclusion: The amount received as GIT infrastructure charges was not taxable as Fees for Included Services or royalty, and the addition was deleted in favour of the assessee.
FIS/Royalty income - Amounts received as GIT charges - charges only for providing use of third-party software OR in the nature of FIS as envisaged under Article 12(4)(b) of India-Canada DTAA - Whether such receipts qualify as "royalty" under Article 12(3) of the India-Canada DTAA? -
HELD THAT:- The Co-ordinate Bench of the Tribunal, in the assessee’s own case for A.Y. 2021- 22 [2024 (6) TMI 1434 - ITAT DELHI] held that the amounts received as GIT charges is only for providing use of third-party software and is not in the nature of FIS as envisaged under Article 12(4)(b) of India-Canada DTAA. It further held that the payment in consideration made by Indian group entities to the assessee was in consideration for use of software provided by third party vendor and was towards the 'copyrighted article', without any copyrights being granted for its commercial exploitation, hence, the same shall not qualify as 'Royalty' as per Article 12(3) of the India-Canada DTAA and thus allowed the appeal of the assessee.
The facts of the present case are identical to the facts in the case of the assessee for A.Y. 2021-22 as in the present case also the amount received by the assessee as GIT Infrastructure Charges and which was claimed as non-taxable by the assessee was taxed by the AO as FIS/Royalty income.
Thus, we hold that the amount does not qualify as FIS or as royalty. Assessee appeal allowed.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether reopening of assessment under section 147/148 was validly initiated on the material available to the Assessing Officer (AO), including bank data showing undisclosed bank accounts and cash deposits during demonetisation period.
2. Whether the reasons recorded for reopening had a live nexus with the additions made in the reassessment order, and whether approval/sanction procedure under section 151 (and related jurisprudential safeguards) was properly followed.
3. Whether the AO could make additions under section 68/69A and complete assessment under section 144 in the absence of taxpayer's compliance, and whether the appellate authority erred in remanding the matter back to the AO instead of deciding on merits.
4. Whether the Tribunal should remit the matter for fresh adjudication in view of amended appellate powers ( proviso to section 251(1)(a) ) and principles of natural justice where assessment was completed as a best judgment/ ex parte assessment.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Validity of reopening under section 147/148
Legal framework: Reopening requires formation of belief that income chargeable to tax has escaped assessment and is permissible where there is prima facie material suggesting escapement; sufficiency of material is judged at prima facie stage, not on merits.
Precedent Treatment: The Court/Tribunal applied established principles that reopening may be based on information from investigation, bank data, or other sources and that AO need only have prima facie reason to reopen; sufficiency or correctness of the material is not inquired into at the threshold stage.
Interpretation and reasoning: The AO possessed ITD/ITBA/Insight Portal data showing two PAN-linked bank accounts with substantial credits and cash deposits during the demonetisation period, one of which was not disclosed in the return. The Tribunal held that such information prima facie indicated escapement of income, supplying live nexus for issuance of notice under section 148. The fact that reopening was within four years was material, as extended-period provisos did not apply.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - reopening is valid where prima facie material (undisclosed bank credits and deposits) exists; Obiter - general observations on sources of information and non-est returns being a basis for notice.
Conclusion: Reopening under section 147/148 was validly initiated; grounds challenging jurisdiction to reopen were dismissed.
Issue 2 - Nexus between reasons recorded and additions made; sanction/approval requirement
Legal framework: Reasons recorded must disclose the basis for belief that income escaped assessment; AO must have requisite approval/sanction (internal administrative requirement) where applicable; Explanation to section 147 allows AO to examine and make additions even beyond the precise reasoning recorded, subject to procedural fairness.
Precedent Treatment: The Tribunal relied on established jurisprudence that the AO's reasons need only provide a prima facie basis for reopening and that additions made in reassessment can relate to matters reasonably connected to the reasons recorded; the sufficiency of reasons is judged by whether they show a live link to the alleged escapement.
Interpretation and reasoning: The AO recorded reasons relying on department data indicating undisclosed deposits/credits. The Tribunal accepted the appellate authority's finding that there existed a direct nexus between the reasons for reopening (undisclosed cash deposits during demonetisation and nondisclosure of one bank account) and the additions assessing unexplained bank credits. The appellant did not place the reasons recorded on record to contradict the AO's position or demonstrate lack of approval; no evidence was produced to show the approval under section 151 (or equivalent administrative sanction) was absent or tainted.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - where reasons show prima facie nexus to alleged escapement, additions related to unexplained bank credits are within the scope of reassessment; Obiter - discussion on timing/mechanics of approval when not controverted on record.
Conclusion: The reasons recorded are held to have nexus with the additions; challenge to reopening and to the approval process was rejected in absence of contrary material.
Issue 3 - Legality of additions under sections 68 and 69A and assessment under section 144 when taxpayer did not comply
Legal framework: Section 68 (cash credits) and section 69A (unexplained money/valuable articles) permit taxation when credits/deposits remain unexplained; where taxpayer fails to furnish explanations or documents despite opportunities, AO may proceed to make best judgment assessment under section 144; appellate authority has power to set aside and remit best-judgment assessments.
Precedent Treatment: The Tribunal noted jurisprudence that non-disclosure or failure to furnish explanations empowers the AO to treat deposits as unexplained and to make additions; best-judgment assessments are permissible where the assessee is non-compliant.
Interpretation and reasoning: The AO found aggregate bank credits exceeding notified turnover and no satisfactory explanation having been filed in response to notices. The CIT(A) observed non-compliance and remanded for fresh adjudication by reason of statutory amendment empowering remand in best-judgment cases. The Tribunal declined to adjudicate merits of additions because the matter had been remanded by the CIT(A) and the reassessment had been affected by non-compliance leading to ex parte completion under section 144.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - unexplained bank credits may be taxed under sections 68/69A where taxpayer fails to explain; best-judgment completion under section 144 is permissible in case of persistent non-compliance; Obiter - specific merits of each bank-entry explanation left open for fresh adjudication.
Conclusion: Additions under sections 68/69A and completion under section 144 were not overturned; merits of the additions were remitted to the AO for fresh adjudication because the CIT(A) had set aside the assessment and directed fresh proceedings.
Issue 4 - Remand to AO by CIT(A) and role of amended proviso to section 251(1)(a); natural justice and admission of additional evidence
Legal framework: Amended proviso to appellate powers permits Commissioner (Appeals) to set aside best-judgment assessments under section 144 and remit to AO for fresh assessment; principles of natural justice require opportunity to be heard before fresh assessment; the appellate forum may admit additional evidence subject to rules.
Precedent Treatment: The Tribunal accepted the appellate authority's reliance on statutory amendment and legislative intent to empower remand where best-judgment assessments arise from non-response; it treated remand as appropriate mechanism to ensure fairness and effective opportunity to disclose and substantiate claims before the AO.
Interpretation and reasoning: The CIT(A) found repeated non-compliance before AO and that assessment was completed under section 144; in view of the legislative amendment and memorandum explaining the change, remand to AO to afford opportunity and fresh adjudication was held to meet ends of justice. The appellant had sought admission of additional evidence before the CIT(A), but there was no record showing proper invocation of admittance procedures under Rule 46A; further, the Tribunal observed that the appellant had not provided reasons/exhibits to show what was not before the AO earlier.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - where assessment is a best-judgment order and taxpayer failed to comply, appellate authority may set aside and remit under the amended proviso to section 251(1)(a); Obiter - guidance on admission of additional evidence and expectations on taxpayer to specify which documents were not earlier placed before AO.
Conclusion: Remand to the AO for fresh adjudication was appropriate; appellate remittal was upheld and the Tribunal declined to adjudicate the merits pending fresh assessment. The assessee was directed to furnish requisite details to the AO; AO permitted to use statutory powers to enforce compliance.
Ancillary findings - burden of proof, evidentiary expectations and scope of Tribunal's interference
Legal framework: Where material remains unrefuted and taxpayer fails to place contradictory evidence before the AO, appellate or judicial interference is limited; Tribunal will not substitute merits decisions that have been remitted for fresh consideration.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal emphasised that the assessee did not place reasons/relevant documents to challenge reopening or to show lack of nexus between reasons and additions; as the CIT(A) remitted issues on merits, the Tribunal refrained from deciding the substantive taxability of disputed bank deposits and credits.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - appellate/tribunal interference is constrained where remand is made and where taxpayer has not brought contrary material on record; Obiter - directions to AO to afford effective opportunity and to make use of powers to secure compliance.
Conclusion: On evidence and procedural posture, Tribunal dismissed appeal against reopening and upheld remand to AO; substantive tax issues were left to be decided afresh after compliance and evidentiary opportunity.
Validity of reopening of assessment - recording the requisite satisfaction in accordance with the law or otherwise - sanction to be accorded u/s 151 - unexplained cash deposit made in the bank accounts - HELD THAT:- CIT(A) had given very detailed findings and the assessee has not brought the copy of reasons recorded for reopening the assessment on the record. The information in possession with the AO that the assessee has maintained two bank accounts in Federal Bank and has deposited crores of rupees in these bank accounts during demonetization period; prima-facie leads to infer the escapement of income particularly when one of the bank accounts is not disclosed in the ITR and assessee did not file any explanation thereof.
Hon’ble Supreme Court in the case of Raymond Woollen Mills Ltd. [1997 (12) TMI 12 - SUPREME COURT] have held that in determining whether commencement of reassessment proceedings was valid it has only to be seen whether there was prima facie some material on the basis of which the department could reopen the case. The sufficiency or correctness of the material is not a thing to be considered at this stage.
Hon’ble Supreme Court in the case of Aravali Infrapower Ltd. [2017 (2) TMI 114 - SC ORDER] has confirmed the decision of The Hon’ble High Court, whereby it was held that reopening of assessment is justified, when the bank statements as well as the ITR form disclosing returns, raises more questions than satisfying the queries already raised. Here, we find that deposits in bank accounts as well as turnover disclosed in the ITR, raise more questions than satisfying the queries already raised. In view of the facts of the case in entirety and above-mentioned case laws in this para, we do not see any infirmity in the impugned order dismissing the jurisdictional/ reopening issue as the AO has sufficient reason to prima-facie infer that the income of the assessee has escaped assessment.
Here in this case, one important aspect which needs to be kept in mind that the reopening has been done within four years from the end of the relevant assessment year. Thus, the law contained in proviso to section 147 of the Act will not apply whereby ascribing of failure on part of the assessee by the AO is sine-qua-non to acquire the jurisdiction beyond the period of 4 years.
As per the Explanation of Section 147 of the Act, the Ld. AO had all the powers to examine and to make any addition even other than the reasoning recorded for reopening the assessment. Here, part of the deposits in one bank account and entire deposits in the other bank account which not disclosed in the ITR were held unexplained and liable to be taxed in the reasons recorded for reopening the assessment and the reassessment is found confined to that only.
AR has not brought any material on the record to contradict the finding of the Ld. CIT(A) on the issue of reopening of assessment on the reasoning that the unexplained deposits in bank accounts have escaped assessment. Therefore, no infirmity in the finding of the Ld. CIT(A) that reopening is justified; hence, the grounds challenging the reopening of the assessment are dismissed and decided against the assessee.
Since the CIT(A) has remanded the issue of taxability of bank deposits to the Ld. AO for fresh adjudication; hence, we are refraining to comment on the merit of the issue as the same has not been examined by the Authorities below.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether expenditure is liable to be disallowed under section 14A read with Rule 8D of the Income-tax Rules, 1962 where the assessee has not earned or included any exempt income in the relevant assessment year.
2. Whether the Explanation and non-obstante clause inserted into section 14A by the Finance Act, 2022 can be given retrospective effect so as to attract disallowance for assessment years prior to 2022-23.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Applicability of section 14A/Rule 8D where no exempt income is earned in the year
Legal framework: Section 14A authorises disallowance of expenditure incurred in relation to income which does not form part of total income under the Act; Rule 8D prescribes a mode of calculation for such disallowance.
Precedent Treatment: The Tribunal considered and followed the decision of the High Court (Pr. CIT v. M/s. Era Infrastructure) which held that if no exempt income is earned in the relevant year, disallowance under section 14A is not to be made. The Court also noted earlier authorities (including decisions relied upon by the revenue and the assessing officer) holding that Rule 8D permits disallowance even where exempt income is not included in the return, but treated the Delhi High Court decision as controlling on the facts.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal examined the factual position that the assessee did not earn or include any exempt income in the relevant year, had not claimed exempt income, and had not suo moto made any section 14A disallowance in its computation. Applying the legal principle affirmed by the Delhi High Court, the Tribunal concluded that where no tax-free income is claimed/earned in the year, invoking section 14A/Rule 8D for disallowance is not justified. The Tribunal observed that the nature of investments (debt mutual funds) and the character of gains (capital gains on sale) were relevant to the factual matrix but the determinative legal point remained the absence of exempt income in the year.
Ratio vs. Obiter: The finding that no disallowance under section 14A/Rule 8D should be made where no exempt income is earned or included in the assessment year is applied as the ratio in the present appeal by following the Delhi High Court ruling; it forms the operative basis for allowing the appeal.
Conclusion: The Tribunal set aside the assessing officer's addition under section 14A/Rule 8D and remitted/directed that if it is revealed on further examination that the assessee has not claimed any exempt income for the year, no disallowance under section 14A/Rule 8D should be made.
Issue 2 - Retrospectivity of the Finance Act, 2022 amendment to section 14A
Legal framework: The Finance Act, 2022 inserted a non-obstante clause in section 14A(1) and an Explanation stating that the provisions shall apply "and shall be deemed to have always applied" even where exempt income has not accrued/been received during the previous year, with effect from 1 April 2022 (assessment year 2022-23 onwards).
Precedent Treatment: The Tribunal relied on Supreme Court authority (Sedco Forex; M.M. Aqua Technologies Ltd.) and related High Court reasoning that a provision said to be "for removal of doubts" or stated to "deem to have always applied" will not be construed as retrospective if it effects a change in the law as it previously stood; retrospective operation cannot be presumed where the amendment alters earlier law unless intention to make it retrospective is clear and lawful.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal accepted the legislative memorandum and statutory language accompanying the 2022 amendment which expressly stated the amendment's effective date as 1 April 2022 and its application to assessment year 2022-23 and subsequent years. Applying the settled principle that tax law applicable is that in force in the relevant assessment year and that a declaratory explanation that changes the law is not to be read as retroactive, the Tribunal concluded that the 2022 amendment does not alter the law for earlier assessment years.
Ratio vs. Obiter: The Tribunal's discussion that the 2022 amendment cannot be given retrospective effect insofar as it would change pre-existing law is an applied ratio relied upon to uphold the decision in the present assessment year; it is not treated as obiter.
Conclusion: The Tribunal held that the 2022 amendment (non-obstante clause and Explanation) cannot be presumed to apply retrospectively to assessment years prior to 2022-23. Consequently, reliance on that amendment does not justify imposing section 14A/Rule 8D disallowance for the assessment year under consideration.
Cross-reference and operative finding
The Tribunal, while noting that the revenue has challenged relevant High Court decisions before the Supreme Court, observed there is no stay of those High Court decisions; accordingly, the Tribunal respectfully followed the controlling High Court authority (Pr. CIT v. M/s. Era Infrastructure) and applied the principle that absent exempt income in the year, no section 14A/Rule 8D disallowance should be made. The Tribunal clarified its order would abide by the final decision of the Supreme Court in any pending appeals addressing the same legal question.
Disallowance u/s 14A r.w.r.8D - whether no exempt income earned - HELD THAT:- We find that the issue on account of disallowance under section 14A of Income Tax Act, 1961 read with Rule 8D of the Income Tax Rules 1962 is squarely covered by the decision of Era Infrastructure (India) Ltd [2022 (7) TMI 1093 - DELHI HIGH COURT]. Therefore, this issue is set aside to the file of ld. Assessing Officer and in case it revealed that there is no tax-free income to the assessee in this year, in other words if the assessee has not claimed any exempt income, then no disallowance under section 14A read with Rule 8D be made in the case of the assessee. Appeal of the assessee is allowed.
Issues: Whether the dispute over enhancement of the declared transaction value of imported goods under the Customs valuation regime survived for adjudication when it was stated that no further import of the balance quantity had taken place.
Outcome: The matter was not finally adjudicated and was directed to be taken up again after obtaining instructions.
Summary order. Proceeding adjourned for four weeks for the appellant to obtain and place on record instructions regarding the respondent's statement that no further imports were made and no additional revenue is involved; if that statement is confirmed, the Court need not adjudicate the appeal on merits.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether issuance of a Show Cause Notice under the Customs Act, 1962 was required where differential export duty and interest were voluntarily paid by the exporter after being pointed out by the Directorate of Revenue Intelligence.
2. Whether exported goods, already physically exported and unavailable for confiscation, can be subject to confiscation with a consequential option to pay a redemption fine in lieu of confiscation.
3. Whether penalty under Section 114A of the Customs Act, 1962 can be validly imposed where the differential duty (and interest) has been paid prior to initiation of adjudication proceedings.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS - I. Requirement of Show Cause Notice where differential duty is paid
Legal framework: Section 28(2) of the Customs Act, 1962 (procedure relating to provisional assessment and finalization) and the statutory scheme governing demand, recovery and adjudication of customs duty; role of Directorate of Revenue Intelligence in pointing out discrepancies.
Precedent Treatment: The Tribunal relied on its earlier decision in M/s. MMTC Ltd. (cited in the judgment) as dispositive authority that where higher consideration is realized post-export and differential duty with interest is paid on being pointed out, issuance of a Show Cause Notice may not be required and penalty may be unsustainable.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court found as a fact that the shipping bills were assessed finally but the exporter realized a higher FOB amount subsequently due to post-export variations (moisture/Fe content) and, on being pointed out by DRI, voluntarily paid the differential duty with interest before issuance of the Show Cause Notice. In those circumstances the Tribunal held that initiating adjudication by issuing a Show Cause Notice was unnecessary and contrary to the principle applied in the MMTC decision; the rationale is that once duty and interest have been discharged voluntarily on detection, the statutory purpose of the Show Cause Notice (to demand unpaid duty) is obviated.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - where differential export duty and interest are paid voluntarily upon detection and prior to adjudication, issuance of a Show Cause Notice for demand and penalty is not required and penalties based on such proceedings are liable to be set aside. This follows the Tribunal's prior pronouncement applied as binding precedent for similar factual matrices. Observations about bonafides and public sector status in MMTC are explanatory but not essential to the ratio here.
Conclusions: The Tribunal concluded that the Show Cause Notice was not required and set aside proceedings initiated thereby; consequentially the redemption fine and penalties founded on such proceedings were set aside (cross-ref. Issues II and III for connected relief).
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS - II. Confiscation and imposition of redemption fine where goods are already exported and unavailable
Legal framework: Section 113(i) of the Customs Act, 1962 (confiscation of goods) and the statutory alternative of payment of a redemption fine in lieu of confiscation.
Precedent Treatment: The appellant relied on multiple authorities (Bombay High Court, Supreme Court and various Benches of the Tribunal) for the proposition that redemption fine cannot be imposed where goods are no longer available for confiscation because they have been exported and cannot be recovered. The Tribunal did not undertake an independent reappraisal of those authorities in detail but treated the unavailability of goods as a factual circumstance relevant to the viability of confiscation proceedings.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal's primary ground for setting aside the confiscation and redemption fine was procedural - the issuance of the Show Cause Notice after payment of differential duty and interest rendered the adjudication itself unnecessary. Because the adjudicatory proceedings were quashed, the consequent finding of confiscation under Section 113(i) and the option to pay a redemption fine fell with it. The judgment notes the factual reality that the goods had been exported and were not available, which supports the practical impossibility of effectuating confiscation, but the operative disposal rests on the procedural error in initiating proceedings post-payment.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - where adjudication leading to confiscation and imposition of a redemption fine is initiated after the differential duty and interest have been paid (and the goods are already exported/unavailable), the confiscation/redemption fine cannot stand insofar as the underlying adjudication is set aside as unnecessary. Observations concerning the unavailability of goods are supportive but ancillary to the primary holding.
Conclusions: The Tribunal set aside the confiscation finding and the redemption fine, concluding that proceedings founded on a Show Cause Notice issued after voluntary payment of duty and interest are unsustainable; unavailability of goods reinforced the practical ground for not sustaining confiscation/redemption relief.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS - III. Validity of penalty under Section 114A after payment of differential duty and interest
Legal framework: Section 114A of the Customs Act, 1962 (penalty for wrongful act/omission in relation to export) and general principles governing imposition of penalties - proximate causation, mens rea/recklessness, and the remedial purpose of penalty provisions.
Precedent Treatment: The Tribunal applied its prior decision in M/s. MMTC Ltd., which mitigated or set aside penalty where differential duty and interest were paid voluntarily upon detection and where there was no intent to evade duty; that decision was followed rather than distinguished.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal emphasized that since the differential duty and interest were paid prior to issuance of the Show Cause Notice, the statutory basis for initiating penalty proceedings under Section 114A was undermined. The Tribunal accepted the view (from MMTC) that voluntary payment and absence of wrongful intent reduce the justification for penal consequences. Consequently, the penalty imposed under Section 114A was set aside along with the contested adjudication.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - penalty under Section 114A cannot be sustained where the duty shortfall has been rectified voluntarily by the exporter upon detection and the Show Cause Notice was issued thereafter; such penal proceedings are liable to be quashed. Any remarks on the exporter's reputation or bonafides in precedent are obiter when used to characterize intent but may be relevant to mitigation.
Conclusions: The penalty under Section 114A imposed following issuance of the Show Cause Notice after payment of duty and interest was set aside; the Tribunal directed consequential relief consistent with its holding on the invalidity of the Show Cause Notice (cross-ref. Issue I).
CROSS-REFERENCES AND OPERATIVE CONCLUSION
All three issues are interlinked: the Tribunal's primary finding that a Show Cause Notice was unnecessary because the differential duty and interest had been paid prior to adjudication (Issue I) determines the outcome on confiscation/redemption fine (Issue II) and penalty (Issue III). The Tribunal followed its earlier pronouncement in M/s. MMTC Ltd. and applied that principle to set aside the impugned proceedings, redemption fine and penalty.
Levy of redemption fine and penalty u/s 114A of the Customs Act, 1962 - export of iron ore fines to various overseas buyers during the period 2010-11 under various shipping bills and invoices - rejection of transaction value on the ground that the FOB value realized by issuance of final invoice by the appellant was more than the FOB value as considered for assessment of shipping bills by the Customs authorities - HELD THAT:- It is found that it is a fact on record that initially, the shipping bills had been assessed finally, although the appellant had recovered an excess amount than the FOB value declared while filing the shipping bills. The appellant paid the differential duty, on being pointed out by the DRI, along with interest thereon. In these set of facts, a Show Cause Notice was not required to be issued in this case, as held by this Tribunal in the case of M/s. MMTC Ltd.[2025 (4) TMI 1716 - CESTAT KOLKATA], wherein it has been observed that 'We find that the admittedly the appellant realized higher amount in view of the difference in the moisture content. On being pointed out, the appellant has paid the differential duty along with interest as has already been noted in the Show Cause Notice. Therefore, we find force in the appellant's argument that Show Cause Notice itself should not have been issued as per the provisions of Section 28(2) of the Customs Act 1962.'
Admittedly, the impugned Show Cause Notice has been issued after payment of differential duty along with interest by the appellant.
The Show Cause Notice was not required to be issued to the appellant in this case and therefore, the proceedings initiated against the appellant by way of issuance of the impugned Show Cause Notice are set aside. Consequently, the redemption fine and penalties imposed on the appellant are also set aside.
Appeal allowed.
Issues: Whether the trustees of a SEBI-registered venture capital fund are responsible for non-winding up of expired schemes and related regulatory breaches; and whether the quantum of monetary penalty imposed under Section 15HB of the SEBI Act on the trustees should be modified.
Analysis: The Court examined the legal obligations of trustees under Section 15 of the Indian Trust Act, 1882 and the relevant VCF Regulations, noting that trustees bear primary responsibility to achieve the purpose of the trust and possess powers to realise and protect trust property. The Tribunal considered the factual finding that the three schemes had expired and were not wound up, prior penalties upheld against the trustees for Schemes I and II, the role and alleged dysfunction of the investment advisor, and attachments by enforcement authorities. The Tribunal evaluated submissions on procedural timelines and SEBI's power to issue directions under the VCF Regulations and relevant SEBI Act provisions. Considering appellants' status as trustees, the prior Tribunal decision upholding penalties for non-winding up, the absence of sufficient steps taken by the trustees to wind up Scheme IV, and appellants' personal circumstances (senior citizens and attachment of fund assets), the Tribunal determined that liability of trustees for winding up is established but that the monetary quantum could be reduced in the interest of justice.
Conclusion: The appeal is allowed in part: the trustees are held responsible for the non-winding up and related regulatory breaches, but the penalty is modified and reduced to Rs. 2,00,000 (Rupees Two Lakhs) payable by each appellant; all other directions in the impugned order remain undisturbed.
Duty of trustees to deal with trust-property with prudence and to achieve the purpose of the trust - liability of trustees for non-winding up of a registered Venture Capital Fund - SEBI's power to issue directions and impose penalties against trustees under VCF/AIF regulatory framework - reduction of penalty in view of mitigating circumstances (age of trustees and attachment of assets)
Duty of trustees to deal with trust-property with prudence and to achieve the purpose of the trust - liability of trustees for non-winding up of a registered Venture Capital Fund - Whether the appellants, as trustees of the SEBI-registered Venture Capital Fund, are liable for non-winding up of the Schemes. - HELD THAT: - The Tribunal held that trustees are primarily responsible to achieve the purpose of the trust and must deal with trust property prudently as envisaged by the Indian Trust Act. The appellants' contention that the Investment Advisor alone was responsible for winding up was rejected because the statutory duty and powers of trustees include taking necessary steps for realisation and protection of trust property and winding up of schemes in the interests of investors. Prior SEBI proceedings and this Tribunal's earlier upholding of penalties for non-winding up of Schemes I and II underscore trustees' liability. The Tribunal therefore affirmed that the appellants, being trustees, are liable for non-winding up of the Fund's schemes. [Paras 11, 12]
Appellants are liable as trustees for non-winding up of the schemes; their contention that only the Investment Advisor could act was rejected.
SEBI's power to issue directions and impose penalties against trustees under VCF/AIF regulatory framework - reduction of penalty in view of mitigating circumstances (age of trustees and attachment of assets) - Whether the monetary penalty imposed by SEBI should be sustained or modified. - HELD THAT: - While the Tribunal affirmed the appellants' liability, it exercised its appellate discretion on quantum. Having regard to mitigating factors-namely that the appellants are senior citizens and that the Fund's assets were under attachment by the Enforcement Directorate-the Tribunal concluded that a reduction of the penalty was appropriate. The Tribunal therefore modified the penalty imposed by SEBI in respect of Scheme IV (and as to the appellants) from the amount imposed by SEBI to Rs.2 Lakhs payable by each appellant, while leaving the remaining directions of the impugned order undisturbed. [Paras 13, 15]
Penalty modified to Rs.2 Lakhs payable by each appellant; remaining portions of SEBI's order and directions remain undisturbed.
Intervention application rendered unnecessary where appeal considered only on quantum - Disposition of the application for intervention by investors. - HELD THAT: - An application for intervention by multiple investors was filed. The Tribunal observed that since the appeal was considered only with regard to the quantum of penalty, the intervention application was unnecessary and accordingly disposed of it as rendered unnecessary. [Paras 14, 15]
Application for intervention disposed of as unnecessary.
Final Conclusion: The appeal is allowed in part: the Tribunal upheld trustees' liability for non-winding up but reduced the monetary penalty payable by each appellant to Rs.2 Lakhs; other directions of SEBI's order remain intact and the intervention application was disposed of as unnecessary.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether the issuer of Global Depository Receipts (GDRs) had pledged its GDRs with the bank as security to enable a subscriber/related entity to avail a loan, thereby rendering the subscription a sham.
2. Whether the issuer actually received any foreign investment proceeds from the GDR subscription or whether the subscription was illusory (i.e., funds remained in escrow and were not available to the issuer).
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Whether the GDRs were pledged as security to enable the loan
Legal framework: Alleged violations raised under Section 12A(a),(b),(c) of the SEBI Act, 1992 read with Regulations 3(a),(b),(c),(d) and 4(1) of SEBI (PFUTP) Regulations, 2003; directions under Sections 11, 11B, 11(4) of the SEBI Act and penalty under Section 15HA were also invoked in the show cause notices.
Precedent treatment: The decision does not rely on, distinguish, or overrule prior case law; the Tribunal's conclusion rests on documentary and factual matrix rather than any specific precedent.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal examined contemporaneous documentary evidence including (a) the pledge agreement dated 12/11/2010 or its alleged variants; (b) an issuer letter (dated 13/09/2012) acknowledging an executed agreement and alleging discrepancies; (c) an amendment to the pledge agreement effected by the issuer's authorized signatory before a notary (changing interest rate) and acknowledged by the issuer; (d) email correspondence concerning transfer of interest only; and (e) an empowering board resolution authorising directors to sign/execute escrow/pledge-related documents. From these documents the Tribunal drew the following inferences: (i) an authorised representative of the issuer had signed an agreement relating to the pledge (admitted in issuer correspondence); (ii) the issuer subsequently accepted an amendment to the pledge terms and the amendment was signed by the authorised signatory before a notary public, evidencing knowledge and acquiescence; (iii) communications with the bank regarding transfer of only interest (and the bank's assertion that accounts were pledged) corroborated that the account was treated as security by the bank; and (iv) the board resolution granted authority to sign required banking/escrow/pledge documents, supporting the inference that the issuer's corporate organ had empowered execution of such arrangements. The Tribunal rejected the issuer's later protestations that (a) the issuer was not named as pledgor in the executed document and (b) the subscriber's name was absent from the board resolution, observing those contentions as insufficient in view of the documentary admissions and conduct.
Ratio vs. Obiter: The conclusion that the GDRs were pledged to secure the loan is treated as ratio decidendi based on the contemporaneous documentary evidence and the conduct of the issuer; related commentary about the impropriety of such market practices operates as explanatory ratio reinforcing the regulatory finding.
Conclusions: The Tribunal answered Issue 1 in the affirmative - the issuer's GDRs were pledged with the bank as security to enable Vintage FZE/related entity to obtain a loan, and the issuer's contemporaneous conduct and executed documents establish knowledge and participation in the arrangement.
Issue 2 - Whether the issuer actually received the foreign investment proceeds
Legal framework: Same statutory and regulatory provisions as Issue 1 govern the conduct complained of - in particular, PFUTP Regulations and Section 12A provisions aimed at prohibiting fraudulent or unfair trade practices and misleading disclosures to the securities market.
Precedent treatment: No precedent was invoked; the finding rests on documentary proof and admissions.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal considered undisputed facts: (a) subscription amount was placed in an escrow account upon issuance of GDRs (26/11/2010); (b) the issuer did not receive any of the subscription monies; (c) issuer correspondence and bank communications show that only interest (and not principal subscription proceeds) was considered transferable while principal remained pledged; (d) acceptance by the issuer of an amendment to pledge terms and subsequent request to remit interest further demonstrate lack of receipt of subscription proceeds by the issuer; and (e) public disclosures by the issuer announcing full subscription contrasted with the documentary reality that proceeds were not available to the issuer. On this evidence the Tribunal concluded that the issuer did not actually receive foreign investment proceeds and that the subscription announcement was misleading.
Ratio vs. Obiter: The determination that no foreign investment was actually received is core to the holding and constitutes ratio; observations on the detrimental effect on retail/investor confidence and the need for strict regulatory response are integral to the Court's reasoning and operative in effect.
Conclusions: The Tribunal answered Issue 2 in the negative - the issuer did not receive the foreign investment proceeds and the GDR subscription was effectively illusory, thereby rendering the disclosure of subscription false/misleading.
Regulatory and remedial implications - Court's assessment of sanctions and public interest
Legal framework and reasoning: Given the findings on Issues 1 and 2, the Tribunal endorsed the regulator's view that such conduct constitutes fraudulent/unfair trade practice under the PFUTP Regulations and contravenes Section 12A of the SEBI Act. The Tribunal observed that issuance of GDRs in the manner found creates a false impression of foreign investment, thereby attracting investors on a misleading basis and undermining market integrity.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal found no legal infirmity in the impugned orders - namely, market-access restraint imposed by the regulator for three years and the monetary penalties imposed by the adjudicating officer - and held that such cases must be dealt with firmly to protect investor interests. The Tribunal rejected the appellants' explanations as inadequate in light of documentary admissions and conduct.
Ratio vs. Obiter: The endorsement of regulatory measures and the necessity of strict enforcement is given as part of the operative reasoning (ratio) supporting dismissal of the appeals; pronouncements on policy and deterrence function as supplementary ratio emphasizing regulatory objectives.
Conclusions: The Tribunal upheld the regulatory orders restraining market access and imposing monetary penalty, finding the appeals devoid of merit and dismissing them; the Tribunal also emphasised the need for robust regulatory action in similar cases to protect investors and market integrity.
Cross-references
Findings on Issue 1 and Issue 2 are interlinked: documentary admission of executed/acknowledged pledge documents, acceptance of amendment by issuer, board authorisation to execute escrow/pledge documents, and communications restricting transfer to interest collectively underpin both conclusions that (a) GDRs were pledged to secure a loan and (b) the issuer did not receive subscription proceeds.
Fraudulent issuance of Global Depository Receipts (GDRs) - pledge disclosed to the stock exchange, which made the investors believe that the GDR issue was genuinely subscribed by foreign investors - SEBI restraining the appellants from accessing the securities market for a period of three years from the date of order - monetary penalty for violation of Section 12A(a),(b),(c) of SEBI Act,1992 read with Regulations 3(a), (b), (c), (d), 4(1) of SEBI (PFUTP) Regulations, 2003 - Nakoda entered into a pledge agreement with EURAM Bank for a loan that was availed by an entity company called ‘Vintage FZE’ (‘Alta Vista International FZE’) -name of Vintage FZE is not found in the board resolution - HELD THAT:- It is relevant to note that Nakoda has acceded to the change in the rate of interest by accepting the amendment to the pledge agreement dated November 12, 2010. The said document is signed by the first appellant before a notary public in Surat. The amendment has taken place on December 27, 2011, after more than one year after executing the pledge agreement. After a further lapse of eight months i.e. on August 9, 2012 the company secretary has conveyed to the EURAM Bank to remit the interest amount.
Thus, a combined reading of documents extracted lead us to an irrefutable conclusion that the company had issued the GDRs only to give an impression to the investors that USD 24.25 million was invested by foreign investors.
The contention urged by the learned Advocate for the appellant that Nakoda had raised its concern with regard to the pledge agreement with the EURAM Bank is noted only to be rejected. We say so because the first appellant has accepted the change in the terms of pledge agreement by signing the document (Annexure – 9) before a notary public and the company secretary has requested transfer of only the interest portion, two years after issuance of GDRs.
The other contention urged by the appellant that the name of Vintage FZE is not found in the board resolution is far too fragile to be countenanced, particularly in view of the undisputed stark facts narrated hereinabove.
The companies like Nakoda by indulging in such activities give an impression to the gullible investors in India that foreign investors have invested in their companies. it is an admitted position that though Nakoda made an announcement that its GDRs were subscribed, not a penny is received by it. Therefore, we answer the first point in the affirmative and the second point in the negative.
We find no legal infirmity in the impugned order. These appeals are devoid of merits and must fail.
Issues: (i) Whether receipts arising from activities connected with transmission and distribution of electricity, including ancillary charges, cross-subsidy charges, wheeling charges, meter-related charges, supervision charges and similar receipts, were exigible to service tax during the relevant period; (ii) Whether liquidated damages or penalties recovered in the course of electricity distribution could be subjected to service tax as a declared service; (iii) Whether the extended period of limitation under the service tax law could be invoked on the facts of the case.
Issue (i): Whether receipts arising from activities connected with transmission and distribution of electricity, including ancillary charges, cross-subsidy charges, wheeling charges, meter-related charges, supervision charges and similar receipts, were exigible to service tax during the relevant period?
Analysis: The receipts were found to arise from services that were naturally bundled with the principal activity of transmission and distribution of electricity. The tariff-linked charges and connected receipts were treated as part of the same composite activity having the essential character of electricity distribution. The decision relied on the statutory exemption and negative-list framework, together with the principle that ancillary services forming part of a bundled service must follow the tax treatment of the principal exempt service. The later GST notifications and circulars were also treated as confirming the legislative intent that such support services remain outside the tax net.
Conclusion: The related and ancillary receipts were not taxable, and the confirmed demands on these items were set aside in favour of the assessee.
Issue (ii): Whether liquidated damages or penalties recovered in the course of electricity distribution could be subjected to service tax as a declared service?
Analysis: Amounts recovered as liquidated damages or penalties were treated as compensation for breach or default, not as consideration for a service. Such recoveries did not reflect a promise to tolerate an act for consideration, and therefore did not satisfy the ingredients of the declared service provision invoked by the Revenue. The reasoning followed the settled distinction between consideration for service and damages for non-performance.
Conclusion: Liquidated damages and penalty recoveries were held not liable to service tax, in favour of the assessee.
Issue (iii): Whether the extended period of limitation under the service tax law could be invoked on the facts of the case?
Analysis: The record did not establish deliberate suppression, wilful misstatement, or fraud with an intent to evade tax. The assessee had maintained its books transparently and the disputed activities were already a matter of legal interpretation in multiple decisions. In the absence of cogent evidence showing suppression with intent to evade, the extraordinary period of limitation could not be sustained.
Conclusion: Invocation of the extended period was unsustainable, and the demand raised for the extended period was set aside in favour of the assessee.
Final Conclusion: The demands were not sustainable on merits, the extended-period demand also failed on limitation, and the Revenue's challenge to the partial relief granted below did not survive.
Ratio Decidendi: Services that are naturally bundled with an exempt principal service must assume the tax treatment of that principal service, and compensation for breach of contract is not consideration for a taxable service; extended limitation requires deliberate suppression with intent to evade.
Non-payment of Service Tax - services related to transmission or distribution of electricity - penalties recovered as Liquidated Damages - bundled services or not - exemption under the negative list under section 66D(k) of the Finance Act - invocation of extended period of limitation - HELD THAT:- The DISCOMs are providing the service relating to transmission and distribution of power. They are wholly owned undertakings of the Government of Odisha by virtue of holding 100% share capital and licensees under Section 14 of Electricity Act 2003, engaged in the distribution of electricity in the licensed area of the State. The activities of the appellant are regulated and controlled by the Odisha State Electricity Regulation Commissions (OERC) and Central Regulatory Commission established both at Central and State levels under the Electricity Regulation Commissions Act, 1998 - The power charges have been collected by the DISCOMs for the relevant years of dispute 2014-15 to 2017-18 (up to June 2017) under Section 62 & 63 and other applicable provisions of Electricity Act 2003 read with relevant provisions of OERC (Terms and Conditions for determination of Wheeling and Retail Supply Tariff) Regulations, 2014 and OERC (Conduct of Business) Regulations, 2004 and other Tariff related matters.
It can be observed that the income is accounted for under several headings. Some of the incomes like ‘insurance claim received’, ‘interest from bank’, ‘interests on refund of income tax’, ‘provisions made’ etc. are outright not liable for any Service Tax payment. The other likely taxable income, but exempted, has been listed by the appellant within the 18 categories, which tallies with the CA’s Certificates - it is seen that the Revenue’s allegation about the non-payment of Service Tax is without any proper verification so as to demand the same only for the purported services, but is based on the total turnover of the appellant, which is legally not sustainable.
From the judgement of Hon’ble Gujrat High Court in the case of Torrent Power Ltd Versus Union of India [2019 (1) TMI 1092 - GUJARAT HIGH COURT], it is seen that all the ancillary activities connected the transmission and distribution have been taken as a part of the ‘bundled service’ in terms of Section 66 F and the exemption has been taken as eligible for all such services. Therefore, the ratio laid down by the High Court is squarely applicable to the facts of the present case. Hence, we have no hesitation to apply the same.
Vide Notification Nos.11/2010 ST dated 27.10.2010 and 32/2010 ST dated 22.06.2010 prior to 1.7.2012, full exemption has been granted for power transmission and distribution services. From 1.7.2012, the Negative List under 66D (k) provides for full exemption for Service Tax in relation to Transmission and Distribution of the electricity. This clearly shows the legislative intent not levy any Service Tax. Therefore, it can be fairly concluded that the right from 2010 till 2024, no Service Tax / GST was ever required to be paid on any direct or ancillary service related to transmission or distribution of electricity.
Time limitation - HELD THAT:- The appellant is a Public Sector Undertaking working under the Odisha Government. They have recorded all the transactions in the books of accounts, from wherein the Revenue has gathered the data to issue the SCN. Further, the issue has been decided in favour of the appellant in several cases. Therefore, they could have entertained Bonafide belief that they are not required to pay any Service Tax. The Revenue has not brought in any evidence to the effect that the appellants have charged the Service Tax on their clients. All these, point out that rather than suppressing any activity or data, the appellant has been transparent in their dealings - the Tribunal dealing with identical issue, has relied on Pushpam Pharmaceutical Co. vs. Commissioner of Central Excise, Bombay, [1995 (3) TMI 100 - SUPREME COURT] and Continental Foundation Joint Venture Holding vs. Commissioner of Central Excise, Chandigarh-I, [2007 (8) TMI 11 - SUPREME COURT], to hold that the allegation of suppression cannot be sustained and accordingly, set aside the confirmed demand for the extended period - the confirmed demand for the extended period set aside on account of time-bar.
Appeal allowed.
Issues: Whether the demand could be sustained when it was raised and confirmed solely on the basis of the declarant's SVLDRS-1 disclosure without independent verification of services rendered, records, or taxable value, and whether a remand for de novo adjudication to fill those gaps was permissible.
Analysis: The statutory scheme under the Finance Act, 2019 provides for voluntary disclosure, verification by the designated committee, issuance of statement and discharge certificate, and finality of the matter covered by the certificate. In the present case, the show-cause notice and the original adjudication were founded only on the SVLDRS declaration, without reference to any independent material establishing liability. The adjudicating authority had not undertaken the necessary factual verification or passed a proper speaking order. A remand directing the department to verify the entire case afresh would in substance amount to redrafting the show-cause notice, which is impermissible because the demand must stand or fall on the allegations contained in the notice itself.
Conclusion: The demand could not be sustained on the basis of the SVLDRS declaration alone, and the remand order was not sustainable.
Final Conclusion: The impugned order was set aside and the appeal was allowed.
Ratio Decidendi: A tax demand cannot be confirmed or remanded for fresh factual foundation when the show-cause notice itself is confined to a voluntary disclosure under the settlement scheme and contains no independent basis for liability; such a remand would unlawfully go beyond the scope of the notice.
Failure to pay the service tax dues before the last date which was on 30.06.2020 - availment of benefit of Sabka Vishwas (Legacy Dispute Resolution) Scheme, 2019 (SVLDRS) - invocation of extended period of limitation - HELD THAT:- In view of the provisions of the SVLDR Scheme on non-payment of the declared service tax liability by a person who has voluntarily disclosed, the Revenue should have proceeded under the regular course of demand as available as per the provisions under the service tax laws. However, it is found that the show-cause notice has been issued purely on the basis of voluntary disclosure (form-1) made by the appellant under the SVLDR Scheme without referring to any services rendered by him or to any documents to determine the value and service tax amount. The Original Authority also has confirmed the demand purely based on the declaration filed by the appellant under the SVLDR Scheme. Though the Original Authority notes the fact that the jurisdictional Assistant Commissioner vide letter dated 28.07.2020 had informed that the appellant had paid the dues along with interest for the period 01.04.2015 to 30.06.2017 with the remark that the amounts declared in the application for SVLDRS were not part of this demand, does not examined it further. Since, the period mentioned in the form-1 of SVLDRS is also for the period 01.04.2015 to 30.06.2017, it was necessary for the adjudicating authority to refer to the services rendered by the appellant with regard to the above demands.
The Supreme Court in similar circumstances in the case of Commissioner of Central Excise Versus Gas Authority of India Ltd. [2007 (11) TMI 276 - SUPREME COURT] observed that 'Ultimately, an assessee is required to reply to the show cause notice and if the allegation proceeds on the basis that Lean Gas is a by-product, then there is no question of the assessee disputing that statement made in the show cause notice.'
Therefore, as rightly observed by the Commissioner (A), even though documents were placed before the authorities concerned, the original authority confirmed the demand only based on the SVLDRS Form-1 filed by the appellant, which is non-existence as per Clause 2(c) of Section 129 of the SVLDR Scheme. Moreover, having observed that the original authority has not passed a speaking order and the show-cause notice itself is issued only based on SVLDRS-1, the authorities cannot be given an opportunity to make good a wrong show-cause notice.
There are no reason to uphold the impugned order, accordingly the same is set aside - appeal allowed.
Condonation of delay of 248 days - HELD THAT:- The order impugned is perused to ascertain whether it is a fit case to liberally construe the explanation to condone the delay. However, there are no palpable error in the order impugned.
The Appeal is dismissed both on ground of delay as well as on merits.
Issues: Whether the appellant could maintain a direct challenge before the Supreme Court without first availing the statutory appeal remedy under Section 35-G of the Central Excise Act, 1944.
Analysis: The appellant had earlier been told that a statutory appeal lay to the High Court under Section 35-G of the Central Excise Act, 1944, and the appellant accepted that position. As that remedy was not availed, the direct challenge to the CESTAT order could not be entertained.
Conclusion: The direct appeals were not maintainable and the challenge was rejected against the appellant.
Maintainability of petition - statutory remedy of filing an appeal to the High Court available under Section 35-G of the Central Excise Act, 1944 - HELD THAT:- In view of the aforesaid facts and that the appellant has not availed the statutory remedy of filing appeal before the High Court, it cannot be permitted to challenge the order of the CESTAT directly in this Court by way of these appeals.
Appeal dismissed.
Issues: Whether laptops cleared in bulk to a Government undertaking for free distribution to students were liable to assessment on retail sale price basis under Section 4A of the Central Excise Act, 1944 instead of transaction value under Section 4 of the Central Excise Act, 1944.
Analysis: The clearance was to a Government undertaking acting as a procuring agency for free distribution, and the dispute turned on whether such buyer answered the description of an institutional consumer so as to exclude the need for MRP declaration. The Tribunal applied the settled view that the expression "institutional consumer" refers to consumers buying packaged commodities for service industry use, while procurement for free distribution is neither a service industry activity nor industrial consumption. On that reasoning, the goods remained within the scope of Section 4A valuation, and the demand based on that premise could not be sustained.
Conclusion: The demand for differential duty on the footing that Section 4A was inapplicable was rejected, and the assessee succeeded on the valuation issue.
Final Conclusion: The impugned appellate order was set aside and the appeal was allowed, resulting in deletion of the duty demand based on retail sale price valuation.
Ratio Decidendi: Where packaged goods are cleared to a procurement agency for free distribution and the buyer is neither an institutional consumer nor an industrial consumer, the goods do not escape Section 4A valuation merely because they are not sold for ordinary retail consumption.
Method of valuation - laptops in question are to be assessed on Retail Sale Price basis in terms of Section 4 or 4A of CEA - Demand of differential duty - HELD THAT:- Facts as could be gathered from the documents reveal that the Appellant had cleared the laptops in dispute to ELCOT which is a Government undertaking which was to be issued to the school students free of cost, which fact is not disputed. In this context, we find that the order of Principal Bench, New Delhi in the case of PG Electroplast Ltd. Vs CCE & ST, Noida [2014 (7) TMI 575 - CESTAT NEW DELHI] relied upon by ld. Advocate is very apt, wherein it has been held that 'Since M/s. ELCOT are neither institutional consumer nor industrial consumer, in respect of sale of CTVs by the appellant to them, MRP was required to be declared in term of SWM Rules and accordingly, the provisions of Section 4A would be applicable.'
The reasons for demanding the differential duty has been answered by the Principal Bench in the above case and hence, the demand upheld in the impugned Order-in-Appeal cannot sustain for which reason the same is set aside.
Appeal allowed.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether allegations of clandestine manufacture and clandestine clearance of excisable goods can be sustained where the Department's case rests predominantly on private rough notebooks/documents and a retracted statement recorded during search and seizure.
2. Whether private documents containing rough entries and statements recorded during search and seizure (including retracted statements) constitute admissible and sufficient corroborative evidence to (a) establish manufacture/clearance without payment of duty and (b) invoke the proviso to Section 11A(1) (extended period) and levy duty and interest accordingly.
3. Whether the prosecution of clandestine removal/duty demand can be sustained in absence of independent, tangible evidence of (i) receipt/consumption of additional raw materials, (ii) excess electricity/labour/packing/transportation evidence, (iii) actual transportation/loading/receipts by consignees, or (iv) recovery of sale proceeds.
4. Whether penalties under Rule 25 (on the manufacturer) read with Section 11AC and under Rule 26 (on persons including directors) can be imposed where the foundational demand for duty is found unsustainable and where the conditions precedent for Rule 26 are not satisfied.
5. Whether non-compliance with statutory safeguards (Section 9D/recording and admissibility of statements) and denial of cross-examination of panch witnesses undermine reliance on statements/documents seized during search.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Sufficiency of private rough documents and a retracted statement to prove clandestine manufacture/clearance
Legal framework: Allegations of clandestine manufacture/clearance are quasi-criminal and must be proved by the Department by cogent, tangible and independent evidence; private records alone are not conclusive. Authorities require corroborative evidence such as purchase/consumption of raw materials, transportation/receipt records, electricity consumption, statements/receipts from buyers, etc.
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal followed earlier decisions (e.g., Kumar Cotton Mills; Arya Fibres; Nova Petrochemicals; Continental Cement) holding that private registers/rough diaries cannot be the sole basis for demands and that corroborative independent evidence is necessary. Those precedents were followed, not distinguished or overruled.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal examined the seized rough notebook/diary and private documents and found entries to be preliminary enquiries or rough notes not evidencing actual manufacture or clearance. The retracted statement recorded from the director was used by Revenue but was retracted and taken, by appellants, to be made under coercion; the Tribunal noted absence of evidentiary support linking the rough entries to actual clearances (e.g., buyer confirmations, transporter records), and absence of investigation into buyers named in the seized papers.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - A private rough notebook containing preliminary enquiries, without independent corroboration, cannot support a finding of clandestine manufacture/clearance. Obiter - Emphasis on the practical impossibility of full weighment in the period of the stock-taking (though this supports reasonableness of findings, the central holding is evidentiary sufficiency).
Conclusion: The Tribunal held that the rough private records and the retracted statement are insufficient to establish clandestine manufacture/clearance; reliance on them alone is impermissible and the demand cannot be sustained on that basis.
Issue 2 - Admissibility and evidentiary value of statements recorded during search and Section 9D compliance
Legal framework: Statements recorded during search and seizure are subject to safeguards; Section 9D requires that before such statements are admitted, the person be examined by the adjudicating authority and an opinion formed that admission is in interest of justice; otherwise such statements may lack evidentiary value.
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal relied on High Court authority (Hi Tech Abrasives) reaffirming Section 9D's mandatory nature; prior Tribunal/Higher Court decisions were cited to support strict approach.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal observed the director's statement was retracted, allegations of duress were raised, and the mandatory procedural requirements under Section 9D were not shown to have been complied with; moreover the appellants were denied cross-examination of panch witnesses. In absence of compliance and opportunity for cross-examination, the statements recorded during search lack required probative force.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Statements recorded during search cannot be admitted as evidence unless Section 9D's requirements are satisfied and the witness is examined by the adjudicating authority; retracted/confessed statements recorded under duress are of little evidentiary value absent corroboration.
Conclusion: The retracted statement and other statements recorded during search were inadmissible as substantive evidence for confirming the demand; their exclusion undermines the Revenue's case.
Issue 3 - Requirement of independent corroborative evidence (raw-material procurement, electricity, transport, buyers, receipts) to establish clandestine manufacture/clearance
Legal framework: To prove clandestine manufacture/clearance, Revenue must adduce affirmative, tangible evidence on aspects such as excess raw-material receipt/consumption, electricity consumption, transport/loading records, buyer receipts and recovery of sale proceeds.
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal relied upon and followed prior decisions (Arya Fibres; Continental Cement; Nova Petrochemicals; Kumar Cotton Mills) which set out a non-exhaustive list of corroborative evidences required and emphasized that suspicion alone cannot substitute proof.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal reviewed the record and found no evidence showing procurement/receipt of the large additional raw material required by the Revenue's IO-ratio-based calculations (1965 MT), no evidence of excess electricity consumption, transport documents, consignor/consignee confirmations, or receipts of sale proceeds. The Department had not investigated buyers/transporters despite names being available in seized papers. Given the absence of these corroborative elements, the Tribunal held that the clandestine removal allegation lacked foundation.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Allegations of clandestine manufacture/clearance must be supported by corroborative independent evidence (raw-material receipts/consumption, transport/loading, buyers' statements, electricity consumption, and flow of funds); absent such evidence, findings of clandestine activity cannot be sustained.
Conclusion: The Tribunal concluded that the Department failed to produce the required corroborative evidence and therefore the clandestine manufacture/clearance allegation and consequent duty demand are unsustainable.
Issue 4 - Validity of extended period invocation (Proviso to Section 11A(1)) and quantification of assessable value
Legal framework: Invocation of the proviso to Section 11A(1) (extended limitation) requires satisfaction of prescribed conditions; determination of assessable value must follow statutory principles, including exclusion of duty element from transaction value where required by Section 4(3)(d).
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal referred to binding statutory requirements and relevant case law requiring proper valuation methodology and conditions for extension of limitation to be met.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal noted the demand was quantified using entries from rough documents and that statutory valuation principles (e.g., excluding duty when determining transaction value where duty-inclusive pricing exists) were not applied. Also, facts needed to invoke extended period were not established by tangible evidence. The Tribunal held that quantification and limitation extension were therefore untenable.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Extended period cannot be invoked and assessable value cannot be inflated where conditions are not shown and statutory valuation rules are ignored.
Conclusion: Proviso to Section 11A(1) could not be applied on the record; the assessable value quantification in the impugned order was erroneous and the extended-period demand could not be sustained.
Issue 5 - Sustainability of penalties under Rule 25/Section 11AC and Rule 26 on directors where demand is unsustainable and condition precedents are unmet
Legal framework: Penalty under Rule 25/Section 11AC attaches to confirmed duty evasion; Rule 26 penalizes persons who deal with excisable goods which they "know or have reason to believe" are liable to confiscation - a condition precedent for imposition.
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal applied statutory text and earlier decisions that penalties are consequential on proof of underlying contravention and that Rule 26 requires proof of knowledge or reason to believe.
Interpretation and reasoning: Having set aside the substantive duty demand for lack of evidence, the Tribunal held there was no basis for penalty under Rule 25/Section 11AC. As to Rule 26 penalties on directors, the Tribunal observed the foundational condition that the person knew or had reason to believe the goods were liable to confiscation was not established in the show cause notice or impugned order; quantum of penalties was unreasoned. Therefore penalties on directors could not be sustained.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Penalties under Rule 25/Section 11AC fall with the collapse of the substantive duty demand; Rule 26 penalties require proof that the person knew or had reason to believe goods were liable to confiscation and cannot be imposed on mere conjecture.
Conclusion: Penalties imposed under Rule 25/Section 11AC and under Rule 26 on the directors were set aside for want of sustainable foundational proof and absence of satisfaction of statutory prerequisites.
Final Disposition (as reflected in reasoning and conclusions)
The Tribunal held the Department's case rested on rough private records and a retracted/disputed statement recorded during search, without required corroborative evidence (raw-material procurement, transport records, electricity/production support, buyers' confirmations, receipts), and without compliance with statutory safeguards for admissibility of search statements; therefore the allegation of clandestine manufacture/clearance, the duty demand and interest, and penalties under Rule 25/Section 11AC and Rule 26 were unsustainable and were set aside.
Clandestine removal - shortage of MS Ingots - excess quantity of MS Bars and MS Flats - no documentary evidence or material or statement, as relied upon in the impugned proceedings, have been disclosed to appellant as relied upon documents to the Show Cause Notice - demand has been worked out on the basis of private documents / records recovered from the factory of the appellant no. 1 at the time of search as well as the statements of the directors of the company - levy of penalties - HELD THAT:- From the impugned order, it is observed that the entire case has been made on the basis of the retracted statement of the appellant’s director and upon the entries contained in a rough pocket diary said to be resumed from the said director at the time of search and seizure on 23/24th December, 2008. In addition, two purported private documents said to have been recovered from the office premises and staff room respectively, have been relied upon to work out the duty liability on the appellant company. We observe that the materials available on record evidences that the said Document No. 02/DGCEI/VSPL/JRU/08 contained only rough entries. No evidence has been brought on record to the extent that the goods have been actually manufactured and cleared as per the details available in the rough note books/documents. It is a settled principle of law that a private document containing rough entries cannot be relied upon as evidence to allege clandestine clearance without any corroborative evidence. The purported document marked as 06/DGCEI/VSPL/JRU/08 is also not an authentic document of receipt, production and clearances.
As regards the Rough Note Book/Diary marked as 01/DGCEI/VSPL/JRU/08, it is observed that the entries therein were made by the appellant’s director, Sri Jai Prakash Choudhary. In his statements, the director stated, inter alia, that most of the entries recorded in the rough notes contain only preliminary enquiries sought for by parties on telephone regarding quantity, price, etc. of the said goods being manufactured and sold by the appellant. Upon taking similar such quotes from different parties, the said parties or otherwise take a decision whether or not to place orders for the said goods upon the Company and, if so, of what quantity thereof. On the basis of such enquiry negotiations also take place on rates, whereupon, if agreed to, firm orders are placed. Such a document and entries therein in no manner whatsoever can reflect manufacture and sale of said goods from the appellant’s factory during the said period, though some of the entries therein may have resulted in production and sale of the subject goods ordered for amongst the said goods by the concerned parties, in the manner aforesaid.
Reliance placed on the decision of the Tribunal at Ahmedabad in the case of Kumar Cotton Mills (P) Ltd. v. Commissioner of C. Ex., Ahmedabad [2008 (5) TMI 489 - CESTAT, AHMEDABAD] wherein it has been held that a demand of duty cannot merely be fastened on the basis of some entries available in private registers.
In the instant case, no such evidence to the above effect have been brought on record. Since none of the ingredients required for alleging clandestine manufacture and clearance are satisfied in this case, we find that such an allegation against the appellants cannot be sustained, merely on the basis of assumptions and presumptions.
Also the above input output ratio submitted by the appellant has not been disputed by the department. We also find that there is no material disclosed in the show cause notice or in the impugned order as to how and from where the said additional quantity of raw materials amounting to 1965 MT was received by the appellant. In this regard, it is agreed with the contention of the appellants that the conclusion drawn in the show cause notice and the impugned order are based on mere surmises and conjectures and there is no evidence available on record regarding procurement of additional quantity of 1965 MT of raw material for manufacture and clandestine removal of excisable goods as alleged in the impugned order.
The said purported rough diary and documents as also the retracted statement of Jai Prakash Chaudhary cannot be considered as admissible evidence in this case for alleging clandestine manufacture and clearance against the appellants or for confirmation of the impugned demands. In these circumstances, there are no reason to sustain the demand of central excise duty confirmed against the appellant-company and hence, we set aside the same.
Penalty under Rule 25 of the Central Excise Rules, 2002 read with Section 11AC of the Central Excise Act, 1944 has been imposed on the appellant-company / appellant no. 1 - HELD THAT:- As it has been held that there is no sustainable demand against the appellant company in this case, the question of imposition of penalty on the appellant-company under Rule 25 of the Rules read with Section 11AC of the Act does not arise. Accordingly, the same is set aside.
Penalty on directors of the company under the provisions of Rule 26 of the said Rules - HELD THAT:- Rule 26(1) of the said Rules provides that any person who acquires possession of or is in any way concerned in transporting, removing, depositing, keeping, concealing, selling or purchasing or in any other manner dealing with any excisable goods which “he knows or has reason to believe are liable to confiscation under the Act” or the said Rules, shall be liable to penalty, to the extent provided therein. The condition precedent laid down in Rule 26 of the said Rules having not been satisfied in the instant case, it is found that the penalties imposed on the appellant nos. 2 and 3 under Rule 26 are not sustainable and hence, the same are set aside.
There are no justifiable reason to accept the views of the ld. adjudicating authority in the impugned order for confirmation of the demands and imposition of penalties on the appellants. Consequently,the impugned order deserves no merit and accordingly, the same is set aside.
Appeal allowed.
Issues: (i) Whether undue and unexplained delay in pronouncing an arbitral award, by itself, vitiates the award. (ii) Whether an arbitral award that fails to finally resolve the disputes and leaves the parties to commence fresh litigation, after irrevocably altering their positions, is liable to be set aside and whether Article 142 can be invoked.
Issue (i): Whether undue and unexplained delay in pronouncing an arbitral award, by itself, vitiates the award.
Analysis: Delay in pronouncement is not an independent statutory ground for setting aside an award. The validity of a delayed award depends on whether the delay has an adverse impact on the findings and outcome of the arbitration. Where the delay is unexplained and its effect is plainly reflected in the award, the award may attract the grounds of conflict with public policy and patent illegality. A prior approach under Section 14(2) is not a condition precedent to challenge such an award under Section 34.
Conclusion: Delay by itself does not vitiate the award, but an unexplained delay that materially affects the decision can render the award vulnerable under Section 34.
Issue (ii): Whether an arbitral award that fails to finally resolve the disputes and leaves the parties to commence fresh litigation, after irrevocably altering their positions, is liable to be set aside and whether Article 142 can be invoked.
Analysis: An arbitral award must meaningfully resolve the disputes referred for adjudication. An award that leaves the controversy unresolved, shifts the parties' positions irrevocably, and compels renewed litigation defeats the object of arbitration. Such an award is patently illegal and contrary to public policy. Where restoration of the original position is no longer feasible and complete justice requires closure, Article 142 may be invoked to bring finality to the dispute.
Conclusion: Such an award is liable to be set aside as patently illegal and opposed to public policy, and Article 142 can be invoked where the facts justify complete justice.
Final Conclusion: The award was unsustainable, but instead of remitting the parties into another round of litigation, the Court finally settled the dispute by granting equitable relief and bringing the controversy to an end.
Ratio Decidendi: A delayed arbitral award is not invalid merely because of delay, but it becomes vulnerable when the delay is unexplained and demonstrably distorts the adjudication; likewise, an award that fails to finally decide the disputes and frustrates the object of arbitration is liable to be set aside as patently illegal and contrary to public policy.
Effect of undue and unexplained delay in the pronouncement of an arbitral award upon its validity - Setting aside of arbitral award that is unworkable, on grounds of perversity, patent illegality and being opposed to the public policy of India? If so, would it be a fit case for exercise of jurisdiction under Article 142 of the Constitution - whether or not the construction of the building was completed as per the agreed terms? - HELD THAT:- The exercise of jurisdiction under Article 142 of the Constitution is the only viable alternative in this case as the other alternative would be to set aside the Award, thereby relegating the parties to another round of arbitration/litigation after 16 years! Doing so would be a travesty of justice and nothing short of making a mockery of the process to the extent of shaking the very faith and trust that parties necessarily have to repose when they resort to arbitration to settle their disputes. As observed in Gayatri Balasamy [2025 (5) TMI 566 - SUPREME COURT (LB)], the power under Article 142 can be exercised where it is required and necessary to bring the litigation or dispute to an end as it would not only end protracted litigation, but would also save parties' money and time. That apart, as already noted, relegating the parties to fresh arbitration/litigation after setting aside the Award is not even a plausible option in this case as it is not possible to turn back the clock and restore the parties to the status quo ante, owing to the developments after delivery of possession of the respondents’ share of the building in 2010, resulting in creation of third-party interests. The undeniable fact as on date is that the respondents are enjoying their 50% share of the building by putting the same to beneficial use, while the Company has been divested of occupation and use of its 50% share since passing of the Award.
The Company resorted to patent illegality in executing registered sale deeds in its own favour on the strength of a photocopy of the second power-of-attorney, the original of which remained with the escrow agent, HDFCL, knowing fully well that this course of action on its part was opposed to the terms of the contract. The Company must necessarily be penalized for this illegal action. Further, it is not possible at this stage to determine with precision the incomplete works that were there in the building which were attended to by the respondents at that time. However, the fact remains that the respondents would have expended funds and effort to complete the building in all respects so as to put their share therein to beneficial use and they deserve to be compensated therefor.
The equities and the interest of justice would be sufficiently served by directing that the execution of the sale deeds by the Company on 19.12.2008, though unlawful in its inception as it was based on a violation of the agreement terms and was without obtaining the original power-of-attorney from the escrow agent, HDFCL, should be treated as lawful and valid at this stage, instead of requiring their cancellation and execution of fresh sale deeds involving payment of higher stamp duties and registration charges. This would, however, be at the cost of penalizing the Company for such violation, by directing forfeiture of the security deposits of Rs. 6.82 crores. Further, as the respondents have to be compensated for the works undertaken by them for the completion of the building, we consider it appropriate to grant a sum of Rs. 3.18 crores under this head, so as to bring the amount payable by the Company to a round figure of Rs. 10 crores.
Delay in the delivery of an arbitral award, by itself, is not sufficient to set aside that award. However, each such case would have to be examined on its own individual facts to ascertain whether that delay had an adverse impact on the final decision of the arbitral tribunal, whereby that award would stand vitiated due to the lapses committed by the arbitral tribunal owing to such delay. It is only when the effect of the undue delay in the delivery of an arbitral award is explicit and adversely reflects on the findings therein, such delay and, more so, if it remains unexplained, can be construed to result in the award being in conflict with the public policy of India, thereby attracting Section 34(2)(b)(ii) of the Act of 1996 or Section 34(2A) thereof, as it may also be vitiated by patent illegality. Further, it would not be necessary for an aggrieved party to invoke the remedy under Section 14(2) of the Act of 1996 as a condition precedent to lay a challenge to that delayed and tainted award under Section 34 thereof - The very basis and public policy underlying the process of arbitration is that it is less time-consuming and results in speedier resolution of disputes between the parties. If that premise is not fulfilled by an unworkable arbitral award that does not resolve the disputes between the parties, on one hand, leaving them with no choice but to initiate a fresh round of arbitration/litigation but the arbitrator, in the meanwhile, also changed their positions, irrevocably altering the pre-existing balance between the parties prior to the arbitration, then such an arbitral award would not only be in conflict with the public policy of India but would also be patently illegal on the face of it. It would therefore be liable to be set aside under Section 34(2)(b)(ii) and/or Section 34(2A) of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996.
Appeal allowed.
Issues: (i) Whether delayed interest under Section 18(1) of the Real Estate (Regulation and Development) Act, 2016 can be granted automatically on admitted delay without a fresh adjudicatory inquiry; (ii) Whether the Appellate Tribunal could grant delayed interest in exercise of its appellate powers without framing separate issues or recording detailed reasons; (iii) Whether the pre-deposit made under Section 43(5) could be directed to be appropriated towards the allottee's entitlement instead of being treated as a mere security deposit; (iv) Whether an appeal could lie on the question of grant of interest where the relevant facts stood admitted.
Issue (i): Whether delayed interest under Section 18(1) of the Real Estate (Regulation and Development) Act, 2016 can be granted automatically on admitted delay without a fresh adjudicatory inquiry?
Analysis: Section 18(1)(a) provides for interest where the promoter fails to complete the project or fails to give possession by the agreed date. The provision treats interest as a statutory consequence of delay, and the date for commencement is controlled by the agreement and the actual offer of possession. The judgment holds that where the completion date and the offer of possession are undisputed, the award of interest follows as a mathematical and automatic consequence and does not require separate factual adjudication in the manner suggested by the promoter.
Conclusion: The grant of delayed interest was held to be automatic on the admitted facts and was upheld.
Issue (ii): Whether the Appellate Tribunal could grant delayed interest in exercise of its appellate powers without framing separate issues or recording detailed reasons?
Analysis: The Tribunal's powers under Sections 44 and 43 were construed broadly, and the Court held that where the material on record is sufficient and no complex evidentiary inquiry is needed, the Tribunal may finally determine the lis in appeal. The Court further held that, in the context of a statutory scheme designed to protect allottees, the appellate forum is not denuded of the power to grant the statutory consequence of delay merely because the order is passed in appeal and not by the original authority.
Conclusion: The Tribunal was held to have validly exercised its appellate powers in granting delayed interest.
Issue (iii): Whether the pre-deposit made under Section 43(5) could be directed to be appropriated towards the allottee's entitlement instead of being treated as a mere security deposit?
Analysis: The Court treated the pre-deposit as a statutory condition for the entertainment of the appeal and held that such a deposit is not a neutral security lying outside the claim. Relying on the nature of pre-deposit jurisprudence, it held that once the liability is adjudicated, the amount can be adjusted against the amount payable under the order and need not await separate execution proceedings. The deposit may be refunded only to the extent it exceeds the amount ultimately payable.
Conclusion: The direction appropriating the pre-deposit was upheld, subject to refund of any excess amount to the promoter.
Issue (iv): Whether an appeal could lie on the question of grant of interest where the relevant facts stood admitted?
Analysis: The Court read Section 58 of the Act with Section 100 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 and held that a further appeal lies only on substantial questions of law. Since the factual foundation for delay and the dates of possession were admitted, and statutory interest under Section 18(1) followed as a legal consequence, no substantial question remained to support interference beyond the questions already considered.
Conclusion: No further appellate interference was warranted on the admitted facts.
Final Conclusion: The promoter's appeals failed, while the allottee's challenge to denial of compensation also did not survive, leaving the Tribunal's award of statutory delay interest intact and the matter finally concluded.
Ratio Decidendi: Where delay in handing over possession and the relevant dates are admitted, interest under Section 18(1) of the Real Estate (Regulation and Development) Act, 2016 follows as a statutory consequence and may be granted by the appellate forum without a fresh evidentiary inquiry; a pre-deposit made to entertain the appeal may be adjusted against the adjudicated liability.
RERA - Grant of delayed interest for a period which is mentioned in its impugned order without making any determination and without recording any reasons in respect thereof - direction made without considering the fact that the deposit made in terms of Section 43 (5) of the Act of 2016 is primarily for the purposes of satisfying the statutory requirement of maintaining the appeal - grant of interest requires any adjudication or can be granted automatically
Whether the Appellate Tribunal was justified in granting delayed interest for a period which is mentioned in its impugned order dated 17.2.2025, para 18(ii), without making any determination and without recording any reasons in respect thereof? - Whether, grant of interest requires any adjudication or can be granted automatically as per Section 18(1) of the RERA Act? - HELD THAT:- In the present case, admittedly, there was no dispute with regard to the date prescribed in the agreement to sale for completion of the project that was 31.12.2019 and even as per the admission, as recorded in paragraph 13 of the impugned judgment, the offer of possession was made on 05.11.2022, which fact was also admitted by the learned Counsel for the appellant during the course of the hearing before the Tribunal, thus, the normal consequence of the agreement on the three dates would result in automatic award of interest in terms of the mandate of Section 18(1)(a) and was rightly awarded by the Tribunal.
Heading of Section 44 of the RERA Act describes application for settlement of disputes and appeals to appellate tribunal, thus, the said Section has two parts, firstly prescribing for an appeal against an order of an Adjudicating Officer, which can be entertained and decided within the time prescribed and in the manner as prescribed, and the second power conferred on the Tribunal as mentioned in Section 44(6) which is basically revisional powers vested in the Appellate Tribunal for examining the legality and propriety and correctness of any order or direction of the Authority or the Adjudicating Officer on its own motion or otherwise, thus, the Tribunal is vested with appellate as well as revisional powers. Although not mentioned in strict sense, it is clearly well settled that the Appellate Authority, wherever prescribed, is entitled to exercise the powers of the authority, against whose order, the appeal has been preferred at the appellate stage, more so, when no appreciation of evidence is required and only a mechanical exercise is to be performed by the Regulatory Authority - the questions are decided against the appellant by holding that the Tribunal has rightly exercised its power in granting delayed interest.
Power and the nature of deposit made under Section 43(5) and the power to direct the appropriation of the said amount as has been done by the Tribunal - HELD THAT:- A similar provisions came up for consideration before Hon’ble Supreme Court in the case of Axis Bank vs SBS Organics Private Limited and another [2016 (4) TMI 917 - SUPREME COURT], wherein, the prescription is contained under the Securitization and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act (SARFAESI Act) for a pre-deposit under Section 18. While preferring an appeal against any of the measures initiated under Section 13(4) of the SARFAESI Act, the Court after considering the prescriptions contained in Section 18 with regard to pre-deposit held that there was no quantification of dispute in the proceedings under Section 13(4) and thus, the pre-deposit prescribed under Section 18, cannot be adjudicated dues.
On the plain interpretation of Section 43(5) read with the context in which, the appeal is prescribed under the RERA Act, it is clear that the interest and/ or compensation, awarded can be challenged before the Tribunal after making the pre-deposit as required for the entertainment of the appeal. The said amount can be appropriated towards the adjudicated amount decided by the authority or the adjudicating authority as the case may be and there is no entitlement of refund unless the appeal is allowed and the order impugned is quashed by the Tribunal - It is however directed that the amount so deposited before the Regulatory Authority in terms of the directions given by the Appellate Authority shall be returned to the appellant, where the amounts are found to be in excess of the interest to be awarded to the allottees. It is further clarified that any amount found to be in excess of the interest payable to the allottee shall be refunded to the appellant on his moving appropriate application.
Whether, an appeal would lie against the grant of interest under Section 18(1) of the RERA Act, granted on the basis of admission in between the parties? - HELD THAT:- On plain reading of Section 58 of the RERA Act and Section 100 of C.P.C., it is clear that an appeal would lie only against a decree passed in appeal in any court when only substantial questions of law are involved.
From the submissions as recorded in the appellate order, against which, the present RERA Appeals have been filed, it is clearly recorded that there was no dispute with regard to the date of delivering of possession and the offer of possession and the only ground taken with regard to the grant of interest is contained in paragraph 8 to the effect that where the allottee has taken possession without protest and thus he is not liable to any interest for the delay in terms of Section 18(1) of the Act, there being no other submission made before the Tribunal, it is not open for the appellant to canvas new issue as was tried to be done - Even if the submission of the Counsel for the appellant that the appellate court was wrong in recording that there was admission with regard to delay in delivery of possession and the admission was confined only to that effect that apartment could not be delivered to the allottee and there was no admission to liability to pay interest,would not alter the final out come as it is already held that the statutory interest is essentially a mathematical exercise and does not require any adjudicatory exercise.
All the appeals filed by Promoter deserve to be dismissed and are accordingly dismissed. The Appeal preferred by the Allottee also deserves to be dismissed as no arguments were advanced for payment of compensation before the Tribunal and thus will not give rise to any substantial question of Law arising from the impugned judgment.
TaxTMI