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1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
(i) Whether recovery through Form GST DRC-13 from a company's bank account is legally sustainable when the underlying tax demand and adjudication are against a different, independent company, and the targeted company is neither the defaulter nor shown to be a garnishee holding money for or on account of the defaulter.
(ii) Whether the tax authority could justify such recovery merely on the basis that a common individual is a director in both companies, by purporting to "lift the corporate veil".
(iii) What consequential relief and directions should follow after quashing the impugned DRC-13, particularly regarding consideration and disposal of the refund claim for the amount already recovered, including timelines and interest.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue (i): Recovery from petitioner's bank account for dues of another juristic entity
Legal framework (as discussed by the Court): The Court proceeded on the basis that the recovery action was founded on Form GST DRC-13, and examined its permissibility in a situation where the demand proceedings were admittedly initiated against a different entity under the tax law (show-cause notice leading to an adjudication order against that other entity).
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court treated it as undisputed that the show-cause notice and the adjudication order were issued/passed against the other company and not against the petitioner. The Court emphasized that both companies are "independent, juristic and legal" entities. On that premise, the Court held that the petitioner could not be fastened with liability for dues demanded from the other company. The Court additionally recorded the decisive factual finding that the petitioner was neither a garnishee in relation to the other company nor liable to pay any amount to that other company. Therefore, proceeding against the petitioner's bank account to recover dues of the other company was held impermissible.
Conclusion: The impugned Form GST DRC-13 enabling recovery from the petitioner's bank account for dues of another company was held unsustainable and was quashed.
Issue (ii): Reliance on common directorship and purported lifting of the corporate veil
Legal framework (as discussed by the Court): The Court addressed the contention that the authority sought recovery from the petitioner by relying on the circumstance of a common director and by "purporting to lift the corporate veil".
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court held that merely because the same individual was a director in both companies, that circumstance could not be made the basis to recover the other company's dues from the petitioner. The Court expressly found that the authority's attempt to justify recovery by purportedly lifting the corporate veil was "impermissible in law" in the facts presented, particularly where the petitioner was not the noticee/defaulter and was not shown to hold monies for or on account of the defaulter.
Conclusion: Common directorship, without more, did not permit recovery from the petitioner; the Court rejected the authority's reliance on lifting the corporate veil for this recovery.
Issue (iii): Consequential directions on refund claim, timelines, and interest
Legal framework (as discussed by the Court): The Court considered the need to provide an opportunity to the petitioner to place materials supporting refund of the amount already recovered, and directed adjudication of the refund claim without insisting on separate application or proceedings.
Interpretation and reasoning: Having quashed the recovery instrument, the Court directed the petitioner to appear before the tax authority on a specified date without awaiting further notice and reserved liberty to submit documents and pleadings supporting the refund claim. The Court required the authority to provide sufficient opportunity and to take a decision and pass appropriate orders on the refund claim within a fixed period calculated from the appearance date. The Court further directed that if refund is sanctioned, payment should be made within a further short timeframe together with "applicable interest, if any".
Conclusion: The Court ordered prompt, time-bound consideration of refund by the authority (within four weeks of the scheduled appearance), and if sanctioned, refund with applicable interest within two weeks from the sanction order, without requiring separate refund proceedings.
Seeking lifting of attachment of bank account and refund of the amount illegally recovered with interest - HELD THAT:- Undisputedly the show-cause notice dated 01.08.2023 was issued not to the petitioner-Company, but to the aforesaid XRMPL, which is an independent, juristic and legal entity, against whom adjudication order dated 29.11.20223 was passed by the respondents. It follows therefrom that the petitioner, which is also an independent, juristic and legal entity, which cannot be held to be liable to pay dues demanded from the XRMPL, especially when the petitioner-Company is neither a garnishee nor the petitioner Company is liable to pay any dues to the said XRMPL. Further, merely because Gautam Chowdhury happens to be the Director of both petitioner-Company and XRMPL, the said circumstance could not have been made basis to seek recovery of dues from the petitioner-Company by purporting to lift the corporate veil, which is impermissible in law.
In the case of SJR Prime Corporation Private Limited [2025 (4) TMI 1740 - KARNATAKA HIGH COURT], this Court held that 'having regard to undisputed fact that the petitioner has not submitted its reply / response to the impugned communication at Annexure-H dated 08.11.2024, I deem it just and appropriate to dispose of this petition, directing the petitioner to submit its reply / response to the impugned communication at Annexure-H dated 08.11.2024 and by further directing the respondent No. 2 to consider the said reply and documents etc., produced by the petitioner and proceed further in accordance with law.'
It is deemed just and appropriate to set aside the impugned order at Annexure-A and dispose of the petition by issuing certain directions - the impugned order is quashed - petitioner is directed to appear before respondent No. 1 on 05.01.2026, without awaiting further notice - petition allowed.
Issues: Whether Notification No. 04/2019-Integrated Tax dated 30.09.2019 (issued pursuant to the 37th GST Council recommendations) is clarificatory and retrospective in operation, and consequently whether the petitioners provision of clinical trials to a foreign recipient qualifies as export of services exempt from GST for the subject period (April 2018 to March 2019).
Analysis: The notification was issued following the 37th GST Council recommendations which identified specific R&D and pharmaceutical services, including clinical trials, and recommended that the place of supply be the location of the service recipient. The statutory framework involves Sections 13(2) and 13(3)(a) of the IGST Act and the power under Section 13(13) to notify circumstances where place of supply shall be the place of effective use and enjoyment. The factual matrix establishes that the recipient of the services was located outside India (USA) and that the services fall within the categories addressed by the Council. Principles of statutory interpretation concerning retrospectivity were applied: where an amendment or notification is clarificatory, declaratory or elucidatory of pre-existing law, it operates retrospectively; beneficial clarificatory measures that remove doubt as to tax liability are to be given retrospective effect. Relevant precedents distinguishing prospectivity and retrospectivity and recognising retrospective effect for clarificatory notifications and amendments were applied to the facts, including consideration of vested rights and the nature of the charging provision prior to clarification.
Conclusion: The notification dated 30.09.2019 is clarificatory and retrospective in operation; accordingly the petitioners clinical trial services to a foreign recipient qualify as export of services and the impugned orders imposing GST for the subject period are set aside in favour of the assessee.
Export of services or not - Place of supply of specific R & D services - Applicability of N/N. 04/2019-Integrated Tax dated 30.09.2019 - retrospective application or not - activity of conducting clinical trials - applicability of Section 13(3)(a) of the IGST Act - HELD THAT:- The respondents have taken note of the aforesaid notification dated 30.09.2019, wherein it is specifically declared and clarified by the Central Government that the place of supply of services, including the nature of services as provided by the petitioner by way of the clinical trials, shall be the location of the recipient of such services, subject to fulfillment of certain terms and conditions. In the instant case, it is an undisputed fact as borne out from the material on record, that the place of recipient of the services provided by the petitioner is in USA, which is outside the territory of India and in a non-taxable territory and consequently, by virtue of the aforesaid notification, the petitioner could not have been saddled with the liability to pay GST.
A perusal of the notification at Annexure - G dated 30.09.2019 will fairly indicate that the same was issued pursuant to the aforesaid decision taken in the 37th GST Council Meeting and consequently, having regard to the fact that the recipient of services of the provided by the petitioner is located in USA, pursuant to a tripartite agreement between the petitioner, New York School of Medicine and Administrative Unit of the New York University at New York and the petitioner’s associated company at USA for conducting clinical observation studies, it is opined that the said notification would operate retrospectively in relation to the petitioner for the period prior to 30.09.2019 also including the subject period, which is April, 2018 to March, 2019.
It is well settled that all amendments which are beneficial in nature, which are elucidatory and clarificatory would operate retrospectively when they seek to clarify and elucidate certain existing facts and situations and consequently, having regard to the specific observations made in the 37th GST Council Meeting, whereby it was resolved to clarify the tax liability in GST liability in relation to foreign recipients for R & D services provided by Indian pharmaceutical companies, the impugned notification at Annexure - G dated 30.09.2019 is clearly retrospective being clarificatory and elucidatory in nature and consequently, both the respondents clearly fell in error in coming to the conclusion that the said notification is prospective and not retrospective and would not be applicable for the period prior to 30.09.2019.
Under identical circumstances, the Apex Court in the case of Suchitra Components Ltd. v. Commissioner of Central Excise, Guntur [2007 (1) TMI 4 - SUPREME COURT], has come to the conclusion that apart from amendments to statutory provisions which are clarificatory and elucidatory are retrospective, even circulars, notifications etc., which are clarificatory and elucidatory are also retrospective in nature and held that 'a beneficial circular has to be applied retrospectively while oppressive circular has to be applied prospectively. Thus, when the circular is against the assessee, they have right to claim enforcement of the same prospectively.'
The impugned order dated 25.02.2025 passed by respondent No. 2 and the impugned Adjudication order passed by respondent No.1 are hereby set aside - petition allowed.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
(i) Whether the impugned show-cause notice validly invoked the extended period of limitation under Section 73(1) of the Finance Act, 1994 by disclosing and satisfying the requisite jurisdictional ingredients (including wilful suppression/intent to evade), or whether the absence of such ingredients rendered the notice without jurisdiction.
(ii) Whether, on the face of the show-cause notice, the justification offered for extended limitation was merely conclusory/unsupported, making the notice cryptic, laconic, non-speaking and unreasoned, warranting interference and quashing.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue (i) & (ii) (grouped): Invocation of extended limitation under Section 73(1) of the Finance Act, 1994 as a jurisdictional fact; adequacy of pleadings in the notice
Legal framework (as discussed by the Court): The Court examined Section 73(1) of the Finance Act, 1994, specifically the proviso enabling invocation of the extended period of limitation on specified grounds. The Court treated the existence of facts justifying extended limitation as a jurisdictional fact, i.e., a condition precedent for lawful assumption of jurisdiction to issue a demand beyond the normal period.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court scrutinised paragraph 8 of the show-cause notice, which asserted non-payment/short payment of service tax, non-filing or non-declaration in returns, and then stated that "intension to evade tax is evident," that the assessee "appears to have suppressed facts," and that omissions/commissions "appear" to fall under clauses of the proviso to Section 73(1). The Court held that, despite these assertions, the notice did not contain the necessary ingredients permitting extended limitation, which require a demonstrable basis for invoking the proviso, not mere recital of statutory expressions. The Court emphasised that extended limitation cannot be justified solely by alleging failure to pay/short pay tax or failure to file/declare in returns, without pleading material that establishes the requisite intent and the particular jurisdictional conditions for extended limitation.
The Court further found the notice to be cryptic, laconic, non-speaking and unreasoned, issued without fulfilling, satisfying or complying with the requirements contemplated under Section 73(1). On this reasoning, the Court concluded that the respondents were not entitled to invoke the extended period and, consequently, could not assume jurisdiction under Section 73(1) in the manner done. The absence of the jurisdictional fact vitiated the notice itself and warranted writ interference.
Conclusions: The Court conclusively held that the impugned show-cause notice did not validly invoke the extended period of limitation because the jurisdictional ingredients contemplated under Section 73(1) were conspicuously absent/missing and the notice was unreasoned. The notice was therefore illegal, arbitrary, and without jurisdiction or authority of law. The Court quashed the show-cause notice and all further proceedings pursuant to it.
Invocation of extended period of limitation - necessary ingredients of Section 73(1) of the Finance Act, 1994 has not been complied with and conspicuously absent/missing from the impugned show-cause notice - respondent seek to justify invocation of the extended period of limitation without any basis and in the absence of any supporting material - HELD THAT:- A perusal of the purported justifications of the respondent for invoking the extended period will clearly indicate that the necessary ingredients, which permit the respondents to invoke the extended period of limitation were conspicuously absent and missing in the impugned show-cause notice.
Under identical circumstances, in ITW SIGNODE INDIA LIMITED [2003 (11) TMI 114 - SUPREME COURT], the Apex Court held that 'The question of limitation involves a question of jurisdiction. The findings of fact on the question of jurisdiction would be a jurisdictional fact. Such a jurisdictional question is to be determined having regard to both fact and law involved therein.'
The impugned show-cause notice, which is cryptic, laconic, non-speaking and unreasoned has been issued without fulfilling, satisfying or complying with the necessary ingredients contemplated under Section 73(1) of the Finance Act, 1994 and in the absence of the same, the respondents clearly are not entitled to invoke the extended period of limitation as contemplated under Section 73(1) of the Finance Act, 1994, as a result of which, the impugned show-cause notice is clearly illegal, arbitrary and without jurisdiction or authority of law and the respondents are not entitled to assume jurisdiction by invoking Section 73(1) of the Finance Act, which is the jurisdictional fact and the same being completely absent in the present case, the impugned show-cause notice is vitiated warranting interference by this Court in the present petition.
The impugned SCN and all further proceedings pursuant thereto are hereby quashed - Petition allowed.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
(i) Whether initiation of proceedings and issuance of notice under Section 74 of the Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017 was justified, i.e., whether the case involved tax not paid/short paid or ITC wrongly availed/utilised by reason of fraud, wilful misstatement, or suppression of facts to evade tax.
(ii) Whether the bar in Section 39(9) (rectification of returns "other than as a result of" scrutiny/audit/inspection/enforcement activity) applied so as to invalidate the taxpayer's payment/rectification and support denial of ITC, when the taxpayer had communicated its intent to pay differential tax prior to the enforcement activity but remitted the differential amount later.
(iii) Whether the impugned notice and consequential orders could stand when, at the time of issuance of the notice under Section 74, the Court found there was no subsisting tax liability on the taxpayer.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue (i): Justifiability of invoking Section 74 (fraud/wilful misstatement/suppression to evade tax)
Legal framework (as discussed by the Court): The Court examined Section 74 and treated it as applicable only where non-payment/short payment/erroneous refund/ITC wrongful availment or utilisation occurs by reason of fraud, wilful misstatement, or suppression of facts to evade tax. The Court held that if these ingredients are not established, a notice under Section 74 is without jurisdiction.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court found that the taxpayer had voluntarily disclosed the position and communicated, in advance, its intention to pay differential tax with interest. The Court accepted the explanation that the earlier short payment arose from industry-wide confusion regarding the applicable treatment/rate and that the taxpayer decided to pay the differential amount "to buy peace." On these facts, the Court held that the authorities could not attribute a "bad intention" such as fraud, wilful misstatement, or suppression to the taxpayer. The Court further held that invocation of Section 74 could not be sustained merely because the differential amount was remitted after the enforcement agency's investigation, since the taxpayer's disclosure/intent was communicated prior to such investigation.
Conclusions: The Court concluded that the essential ingredients of Section 74 were not satisfied; therefore, proceedings under Section 74 were wrongly invoked and the impugned notice and consequential orders were without jurisdiction.
Issue (ii): Applicability of Section 39(9) bar and consequential denial of ITC
Legal framework (as discussed by the Court): The Court examined Section 39(9) and held it permits rectification of omissions/incorrect particulars in returns only when the discovery is not the result of scrutiny, audit, inspection, or enforcement activity by tax authorities.
Interpretation and reasoning: The authorities argued that because payment was actually made after the investigation, Section 39(9) barred rectification and thereby supported action under Section 74 and denial of ITC. The Court rejected this by focusing on the timing and voluntariness of disclosure: records showed the taxpayer had communicated its inclination to make payment well before the enforcement activity. The Court reasoned that in such circumstances, the taxpayer's disclosure negated any criminal motive and the Section 39(9) bar could not be used to deprive ITC on the footing that the rectification/payment was enforcement-triggered. The Court treated Section 39(9) as relevant only where enforcement action precedes the taxpayer's intimation/discovery and drives the correction.
Conclusions: The Court held that Section 39(9) did not apply on the facts as found, and the premise for invalidating the payment mechanism and denying ITC on that ground could not be sustained.
Issue (iii): Sustainability of Section 74 notice and orders when no tax liability existed at the time of notice
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court recorded a clear finding that at the time of issuance of the notice under Section 74, there was no tax liability on the taxpayer. This was treated as reinforcing the conclusion that proceedings were wrongly initiated under Section 74.
Conclusions: The Court quashed the impugned show cause notice and the consequential original and appellate orders, holding that the proceedings were initiated by wrongly invoking Section 74 and were therefore liable to be set aside.
Violation of principles of natural justice - rejection of appeal without proper consideration - invocation of the provisions of Section 74 of GST Act, is justified or not - HELD THAT:- In the subject supply, the tubes and flaps were kept inside the tyres and wrapped together. Thereafter, supply was effected. According to the petitioner, a mere wrapping up would not amount to natural bundling of the goods, so as to consider it as a "composite supply". However, to Favoid further confusion, the petitioner had treated that the supply of TTF in a carry strapping form is a "composite supply" and offered to pay the tax at the rate of 28%. The inclination of the petitioner was communicated to the respondents vide communication dated 12.01.2019. Accordingly, the arrears of tax amount, along with interest, was remitted to the respondents during the month of May 2022 - However, the acceptance of the petitioner that the subject supply is a "composite supply" with the intention to buy peace, will not exclude the jurisdiction of this Court to decide the issue as to whether the subject supply is "composite supply" or "individual supply". Further, such a mere admission would not disentitle the petitioner to raise the said issue before the Court of law, even though the said point was not raised in the appeal.
Under these circumstances, the investigation was conducted by the DGGI on 21.01.2019. On the very next day of the enquiry, i.e., 22.01.2019, the petitioner had deposited a sum of Rs.5 Crore to the respondents and intimated that the said deposit shall be utilised for further tax liability. Under these circumstances, the notice under Section 74 came to be issued on 20.04.2022 by the 3rd respondent. Upon receipt of the said notice, a reply was filed by the petitioner on 28.04.2022 and subsequently, paid the entire tax dues during the month of May 2022.However, without considering the said reply, the order in original was passed by the 4" respondent on 27.04.2023. Aggrieved over the said order, an appeal was preferred by the petitioner, however, the said appeal was also rejected by the 5th respondent vide impugned order dated 18.03.2024, and the same is under challenge before this Court.
The petitioner's inclination to make the payment of tax dues was communicated to the respondents as early as on 12.01.2019, which is much prior to the date of DGGI investigation. When such being the case, as stated above, no criminal motive, viz., fraud, wilful misstatement or suppression of material facts, can be attributed against the petitioner, since the petitioner had voluntarily disclosed the short payment vide the aforesaid communication - no ingredients of Section 74 of the Act was satisfied to invoke the said provision against the petitioner and hence, the question of application of Section 39(9), so as to deprive the petitioner from availing ITC, would not at all arise. The said provision would attract only, in the event, if the enforcement action was initiated, much prior to the intimation of the petitioner to pay the short payment of tax.
As the arguments were advanced by the petitioner that the supply, of TTF in the form of carry strapping, effected by them is not a "composite supply" but it is an "individual supply" is concerned, since the petitioner had treated it as a "composite supply" and paid the tax accordingly to buy the peace, vide communication dated 12.01.2019, this Court feels that it is not a fit case to decide the issue as to whether it is a "composite supply" or "individual supply". As discussed above, mere payment of tax, which is applicable for "composite supply", by the petitioner, will not disentitle the petitioner to raise the said issue separately before the Authorities concerned. In such case, the Authorities are bound to decide the matter and they cannot cite the communication dated 12.01.2025 and reject the contention by stating that in a previous occasion, the petitioner had admitted the subject supply as "composite supply".
The entire proceedings initiated against the petitioner, viz., the impugned show cause notice dated 20.04.2022, the impugned original order dated 27.04.2023 and the impugned appeal order dated 18.03.2024, are hereby quashed - Petition allowed.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
(i) Whether the "Marketing Support Services" and "Technical Support Services" provided under the relevant service agreement were correctly classified as "intermediary services" for purposes of determining place of supply.
(ii) Whether, on the facts and documents examined by the Court, the impugned supplies qualified as "export of services", thereby entitling the supplier to refund of accumulated input tax credit.
(iii) Whether the rejection of the refund claim and confirmation in appeal were legally sustainable, and if not, whether the Court should direct refund with applicable interest within a fixed time.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue (i) & (ii): Classification as "intermediary services" vs. "export of services" and refund entitlement
Legal framework (as discussed in the judgment): The adjudicating and appellate authorities proceeded on the basis that if the services were "intermediary services", the place of supply would be the location of the supplier in India, resulting in failure of the "place of supply outside India" condition for "export of services", and consequently denial of refund. The Court addressed the same core classification question as decisive for export/refund eligibility.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court examined the material on record, including the relevant master/service agreement(s) and related documents, and found that they "clearly indicate" the supplier was not an intermediary. The Court accepted the contention that the services supplied amounted to export of services and held that the contrary conclusion reached by the adjudicating authority and the appellate authority could not be sustained. In arriving at this conclusion, the Court applied and followed the legal position emerging from prior decisions of the same Court (as relied upon in the judgment) to the facts of the present service arrangement.
Conclusions: The impugned services were held not to be intermediary services; they were held to amount to export of services. Consequently, the supplier was held entitled to the refund claimed for the relevant period.
Issue (iii): Validity of refund rejection and relief of refund with interest
Interpretation and reasoning: Since the foundational basis for rejection-classification as intermediary and consequent denial of export status-was found incorrect on the Court's assessment of the agreement and documents, the Court held that the adjudication order rejecting refund and the appellate order affirming it deserved to be quashed.
Conclusions and directions: The Court set aside both the order rejecting the refund claim and the appellate order. The Court directed the respondents to refund/grant/sanction the amount of Rs. 18,92,697/- together with applicable interest, and to do so expeditiously and in any event within three months from receipt of the order.
Refund of accumulated input tax credit - Marketing Support Services and Technical Support Services provided by the petitioner to Excel point Singapore under the Agreement - intermediary services u/s 2(13) of the IGST Act or not - HELD THAT:- A perusal of the material on record comprising of Master Service Agreement dated 01.04.2014 entered into by the petitioner with its foreign / parent company in Singapore and other documents will clearly indicate that petitioner is not an intermediary and the service supplied by the petitioner amount to export of services.
The impugned order of Adjudication Authority deserves to be quashed and the respondents be directed to refund / grant / sanction refund in favour of the petitioner as sought for in the petition and by quashing the demand of IGST made against the petitioner.
The impugned order-in-original passed by respondent No.2 and the order-in-appeal passed by respondent No. 1 are hereby set aside - Petition allowed.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
(i) Whether the appellate authority's rectification order was vitiated for rejecting the rectification application on the premise of "non-production" of proof of foreign inward remittance / bank realisation, despite the petitioner having produced such documents along with a written representation, and for not examining those materials.
(ii) Whether the rectification order required interference for failure to bear in mind and consider a binding decision of the same Court on the relevance and evaluation of documents evidencing receipt of export proceeds while deciding similar disputes.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue (i): Non-consideration of documents produced with the representation while rejecting rectification
Legal framework: The Court noted that the rectification application was made under Section 161 of the Karnataka Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017 and the Central Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017.
Interpretation and reasoning: The rectification order recorded a finding that the petitioner had not produced relevant proof such as BRC/FIRC and, on that basis, refused rectification. The Court compared that finding with the material placed before the appellate authority and found, from the representation and annexed documents, that the petitioner had in fact submitted export realisation-related materials (including bank realisation advice/letters and bank statements correlating to invoices). Since the rectification order proceeded on an assumption contrary to the record-i.e., that the documents were not produced-the Court held that the rectification rejection could not stand without reconsideration of the materials actually furnished.
Conclusion: The Court quashed the rectification order and remitted the rectification application for fresh consideration, directing the appellate authority to bear in mind the representation and documents earlier submitted and to provide a reasonable opportunity, including consideration of any additional materials.
Issue (ii): Failure to consider a relevant judgment of the same Court while deciding rectification
Legal framework: The Court treated the earlier decision of the same Court (referred to in the judgment) as relevant guidance that ought to have been considered by the appellate authority in deciding the rectification request.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court expressly held that the appellate authority had not considered the earlier decision while passing the impugned rectification order. Given that the rectification request turned on evaluation of documentary proof of foreign inward remittance/bank realisation and related treatment, the Court found that omission to consider the earlier decision contributed to the infirmity requiring interference and remand.
Conclusion: The Court directed reconsideration of the rectification application afresh in accordance with law, specifically requiring the appellate authority to consider both the documents submitted with the representation and the earlier judgment of the Court.
Export - Proof of Realization of Export Proceeds (foreign inward remittance) - Rejection of rectification application filed by the petitioner without considering the documents produced - violation of principles of natural justice - HELD THAT:- A perusal of the representation and the documents produced by the petitioner at Annexure-J would indicate that the said documents were actually produced by the petitioner, as can be seen from the representation and the documents.
This Court in the case of M/S. NOKIA SOLUTIONS AND NETWORKS INDIA PRIVATE LIMITED VS. THE PRINCIPAL COMMISSIONER OF CENTRAL TAX AND OTHERS [2024 (8) TMI 1663 - KARNATAKA HIGH COURT], held that 'respondents 2 and 5 committed an error in setting aside the refund sanction order passed by respondent No.3 and rejecting the refund claim of the petitioner by passing the impugned orders and SCNs which are illegal, arbitrary and contrary to law and facts and without jurisdiction or authority of law warranting interference by this Court in the present petition.'
In view of the aforesaid judgment passed by this Court in the case of M/S. NOKIA SOLUTIONS AND NETWORKS INDIA PRIVATE LIMITED VS. THE PRINCIPAL COMMISSIONER OF CENTRAL TAX AND OTHERS, the rectification application has not been considered by the second respondent while passing the impugned order.
The impugned order at Annexure-D, deserves to be set aside and the matter is remitted back to the second respondent for reconsideration of the rectification application filed by the petitioner afresh in accordance with law - petition allowed in part.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
(a) Whether the Revisional Authority was justified in setting aside the First Appellate Authority's order that had annulled penalty imposed for interception of goods in transit, where the goods were accompanied by a valid tax invoice and valid e-way bill and the dispute pertained to unloading at an "additional place of business" that was registered later.
(b) Whether, in the facts found by the First Appellate Authority (acceptance of the explanation; no discrepancy in physical verification; no intention to evade tax), the Revisional Authority could reverse the appellate order merely because a different view was possible, absent demonstrated prejudice, hardship, or monetary loss to the revenue.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue (a) & (b): Scope for revisional interference with an appellate order setting aside detention/penalty when explanation is accepted and no revenue prejudice is shown
Legal framework (as discussed in the judgment): The Court examined the impugned revisional order in light of the fact that the original penalty proceedings arose from interception and penalty for alleged contravention relating to movement/delivery details, and that the First Appellate Authority had already adjudicated the matter on merits by accepting the taxpayer's explanation regarding unloading at an additional place of business and the existence of valid transport documents.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court noted that the First Appellate Authority had accepted the explanation that unloading was intended at an additional place of business, which was subsequently registered, and had treated the matter as not warranting penalty in the circumstances. The Court held that, once such explanation was accepted through a "well-considered" and "well-reasoned" appellate order, the Revisional Authority could not justify reversal merely on the basis that another view was possible. The Court emphasised that the revision order did not demonstrate that any prejudice or hardship had been caused to the department, nor any monetary loss to the revenue, that would warrant setting aside the appellate decision in the present facts.
Conclusions: The Court concluded that the Revisional Authority "clearly fell in error" in reversing the appellate order. Consequently, the revisional order was set aside and the appellate order was restored, resulting in the taxpayer succeeding and the penalty set aside as per the restored appellate decision.
Movement and Unloaded of Goods at Additional Place of Business (Unregistered) - Reversal of order of respondent No. 2, the First Appellate Authority - seeking quashing of entire proceedings initiated - goods were accompanied by a valid tax invoice and valid e-way bill - HELD THAT:- As can be seen from the order dated 09.06.2022 passed by respondent No. 2, the First Appellate Authority, the explanation offered by the petitioner for unloading the goods at the additional place of business, which was later registered by the petitioner has been accepted by respondent No. 2, First Appellate Authority. Under these circumstances, merely because a different view was possible, it cannot be said that respondent No. 1, the Revisional Authority was justified in reversing the well-considered order passed by respondent No. 2, the First Appellate Authority especially when no prejudice or hardship can be shown to have been caused to the respondents nor any monetary loss to the respondents warranting respondent No. 1 to set aside a well-considered and well-reasoned order passed by respondent No. 2, the First Appellate Authority and consequently, in the facts and circumstances obtaining in the instant case, the respondent No. 1 clearly fell in error in reversing the order of respondent No. 2, the First Appellate Authority and the impugned order deserves to be set aside by restoring the order passed by respondent No. 2, the First Appellate Authority.
Under identical circumstances, the High Court of Madras in the case of SMART ROOFING PRIVATE LIMITED V. THE STATE TAX OFFICER (INT), ADJUDICATION, MADURAI [2022 (4) TMI 241 - MADRAS HIGH COURT] held that 'Considering the fact that there is only a technical breach committed by the petitioner and there is no intention to evade tax, I am inclined to quash the impugned order and allow this writ petition by directing the respondent to release the vehicle and the consignment to the petitioner, if the same has not been released already.'
The order passed by respondent No. 1 at Annexure-A is hereby set aside - The order passed by respondent No. 2, the First Appellate Authority is hereby restored - petition allowed.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
(i) Whether rejection of the refund claim as time-barred was sustainable when earlier refund applications for the relevant tax periods had been filed within the prescribed time, including an application filed on the very date treated as the last permissible date by the authority.
(ii) Whether the authority erred in not granting the benefit of exclusion of time on account of COVID-related relaxation (as referred to in the impugned order) while computing limitation for the refund claim.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue (i): Sustainability of rejection as time-barred in light of earlier in-time applications
Legal framework (as discussed by the Court/authority): The impugned order proceeds on the basis that the refund application was filed under the provisions referred to therein (including the provision invoked for refund and the rule prescribing a two-year period), and computes a last date for filing by applying the time-limit approach adopted by the authority.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court treated it as an undisputed factual position that a refund application had been filed on 09.05.2023 for the period January-2019 to March-2021 and that it was within limitation. The Court found that this application was not considered while passing the impugned order. The Court further noted that, even on the authority's own reasoning in the impugned order (which identified 28.02.2024 as the relevant outer date), the record showed that the claimant had in fact filed a refund claim on 28.02.2024 itself, which also was not considered while rejecting the claim as time-barred. On this basis, the Court held that rejection on limitation ignored material record and was erroneous.
Conclusions: The Court held that the refund claims made through multiple applications commencing from 09.05.2023 up to 03.02.2025 were not barred by limitation. The impugned rejection on limitation was therefore set aside, and limitation was directed to be treated as concluded in favour of the claimant.
Issue (ii): Non-consideration of COVID-related exclusion of time while computing limitation
Legal framework (as discussed by the Court/authority): The impugned order itself referred to a COVID-related relaxation/exclusion of time (excluding the period from March-2020 to February-2022) for computing limitation for filing refund applications.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court held that the authority, having referred to the exclusion, nevertheless failed to consider or appreciate that such exclusion would enure to the benefit of the claimant. The Court found the refusal to extend the benefit of the stated exclusion resulted in an erroneous conclusion that the claim was time-barred, and that this was contrary to the law and the material on record.
Conclusions: The Court concluded that computation of limitation in the impugned order was legally flawed due to failure to give effect to the exclusion of time, contributing to the incorrect rejection as time-barred.
Relief and operative directions (material to decision)
The Court set aside the impugned order rejecting the refund as time-barred, held that limitation stood concluded in favour of the claimant, and directed the authorities to consider the refund claim on merits and pass appropriate orders together with applicable interest, within three months, without reference to limitation.
Refund claim - rejection on the ground of time limitation - benefit of exclusion of time not granted in favour of the petitioner by virtue of the decision of the Apex Court relating to Covid-19 pandemic exigency in terms of Notification-13/2022 dated 05.07.2022 - HELD THAT:- The undisputed fact borne out from the material on record is that the petitioner has initially filed refund application as long back as on 09.05.2023 well within the period of limitation for the period from January-2019 to March-2021 and the same has not been considered by passing the impugned order. So also, despite specifically stating at paragraph No.15 that the refund claim ought to have been filed on or before 28.02.2024 by the petitioner for the period from January-2019 to March-2021, the respondent failed to consider and appreciate that the petitioner has actually filed refund claim on 28.02.2024 itself, which is also not considered by the respondent while passing the impugned order.
It is also relevant to state that though the respondent refers exclusion of time referred by the Apex Court relating to Covid-19 pandemic exigency in terms of Notification-13/2022 dated 05.07.2022, excluding period of limitation from March-2020 to February-2022. The said exclusion which would clearly enure to the benefit of the petitioner has not been considered or appreciated by respondent No. 2, who erroneously rejected the claim of the petitioner as barred by limitation, which is contrary to law, provisions of the Act and the material on record, warranting interference by this Court in the present petition.
It is held that the refund claim of the petitioner vide several refund applications commencing from 09.05.2023 up to 03.02.2025 are not barred by limitation and the same are within time - the impugned order is set aside - petition allowed.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
(i) Whether the Income-tax Appellate Tribunal, as an incident of its appellate jurisdiction under section 254 of the Income-tax Act, 1961, has jurisdiction to grant a stay of the operation of the order appealed against even where there is no subsisting tax demand.
(ii) Whether the Tribunal's refusal to entertain the stay application on the ground of absence of outstanding demand, as reflecting lack of jurisdiction, was legally sustainable and warranted interference.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue (i) - Tribunal's jurisdiction to stay operation of the impugned order despite no tax demand
Legal framework: The Court examined the scope of the Tribunal's appellate powers under section 254 of the Income-tax Act, 1961, in the context of whether ancillary or incidental powers include the ability to pass interim orders/stay to preserve the efficacy of the appeal.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court applied the settled principle that the conferment of appellate jurisdiction necessarily carries with it incidental and ancillary powers to pass interim orders required to prevent the appellate remedy from being rendered nugatory. The Court treated the power to grant stay as a necessary corollary to effective exercise of appellate jurisdiction, and not as confined only to situations involving recovery of an existing tax demand.
Conclusion: The Tribunal possesses jurisdiction to stay the operation of an order appealed against as part of its appellate powers under section 254, and such jurisdiction does not depend upon the existence of a subsisting tax demand.
Issue (ii) - Validity of the Tribunal's dismissal of stay application for want of demand and alleged lack of jurisdiction
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court held that the Tribunal declined the stay application predominantly on the premise that, since no tax demand had arisen, it lacked jurisdiction to stay the Commissioner's order. The Court found this approach contrary to the settled legal position governing the Tribunal's powers under section 254 and therefore legally unsustainable. The Court did not examine the merits of whether stay ought to be granted on facts; it confined itself to correcting the jurisdictional error.
Conclusion: The Tribunal's order dismissing the stay application was set aside. The matter was remitted to the Tribunal to consider and decide the stay application afresh, in accordance with law, during pendency of the appeal, if the applicant so desires. The Court expressly left all issues on the merits of the stay application and the appeal open for independent consideration by the Tribunal.
Income-tax Appellate Tribunal/ITAT jurisdiction to stay the operation of an order appealed against, even in the absence of any subsisting tax demand - HELD THAT:- The power of the Income-tax Appellate Tribunal to grant stay as an incidence of its appellate jurisdiction is no longer res integra. In “M.K. Mohammed Kunhi v. Income-tax Officer” [1968 (9) TMI 5 - SUPREME COURT] examined the power of the Tribunal to stay the order appealed against, albeit in the context of stay of demand at a time when such power was not expressly provided for under the Act. The Court held that even in the absence of an express statutory provision, an appellate authority possesses the power to stay proceedings pending appeal, such power being incidental or ancillary to the effective exercise of its appellate jurisdiction.
In the present case, the Tribunal has declined to entertain the stay application predominantly on the premise that no tax demand has arisen and that it lacks jurisdiction to stay the operation of the order passed by the Commissioner. Such a view is clearly contrary to the settled legal position governing the scope of powers of the Appellate Tribunal u/s 254 of the Act. We are, therefore, of the considered opinion that the finding recorded by the Tribunal that it has no jurisdiction to stay the operation of the order appealed against is legally unsustainable.
The impugned order passed by the Income-tax Appellate Tribunal, Amritsar Bench in [2025 (4) TMI 1744 - ITAT AMRITSAR]is set aside. The matter is remitted to the Income-tax Appellate Tribunal to consider and decide the stay application afresh, in accordance with law, should the petitioner so desire, during the pendency of the appeal.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
(i) Whether the revisional authority can decline to entertain or decide a revision under Section 264 merely because the order sought to be revised was appealable under Section 246A and the assessee did not file an appeal.
(ii) Whether Section 264 empowers the revisional authority to consider and grant relief in respect of mistakes/punching errors committed by the assessee in the return of income/audit report, including where such mistakes resulted in denial of exemption under Section 11.
(iii) Whether reliance on the decision in Goetze (India) Ltd. bars consideration of a claim/mistake in revision proceedings under Section 264 where the assessee did not file a revised return.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
(i) Maintainability of revision under Section 264 despite availability of appeal under Section 246A
Legal framework: The Court examined the interplay between the discretionary choice of remedies under Section 246A (appeal) and Section 264 (revision), as discussed in the judgment.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court held that an assessee has discretion to either pursue an appeal against an appealable order or seek revision under Section 264. The statute does not mandate that only the appellate remedy must be pursued to the exclusion of revision when no appeal is filed. The Court expressly accepted the proposition that the revisional authority cannot refuse to exercise jurisdiction merely because the impugned order was appealable.
Conclusion: The revisional authority was not justified in rejecting or avoiding consideration of the revision on the ground that an appeal remedy existed.
(ii) Scope of Section 264 to correct assessee's own return/audit-report errors leading to denial of Section 11 benefit
Legal framework: The Court addressed the breadth of powers under Section 264 as "wide", intended to prevent miscarriage of justice, and capable of granting relief otherwise permissible under law.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court conclusively held that Section 264 "would cover within its ambit" scenarios where the assessee itself committed errors/mistakes in the return of income. The Court accepted that the revisional authority's powers are not confined to correcting errors of subordinate authorities and can extend to considering legitimate claims that were not properly put forth due to inadvertent mistakes in the return. On this basis, the Court found the rejection of revision-premised on the reasoning that processing was correct because it followed the figures punched by the assessee-to be unsustainable, as the revisional authority ought to have examined the assessee's representation about the errors and the entitlement to relief.
Conclusion: The Court quashed the rejection of the revision and remitted the revision application for de novo consideration, directing the revisional authority to consider the assessee's explanation of errors in the return/audit report and to grant relief if tenable in law, with an effective hearing and a time-bound decision.
(iii) Applicability of Goetze (India) Ltd. to Section 264 revision proceedings
Legal framework: The Court examined whether Goetze (India) Ltd. restricts consideration of claims not made in the original return in the context of Section 264 revision.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court held that Goetze (India) Ltd. was "wholly inapposite" because it was not rendered in the context of revisionary powers under Section 264. The Court therefore rejected the revenue's contention that absence of a revised return bars relief in revision proceedings.
Conclusion: Goetze (India) Ltd. did not bar the revisional authority from considering the assessee's mistakes/claims under Section 264; the revision had to be considered on merits.
Revision application filed u/s 264 - CIT rejected the application - Discretion to file an appeal under the provisions of Section 246A or revision u/s 264 - HELD THAT:- We are in agreement with the submissions made that the assessee has the discretion to either file an appeal under the provisions of Section 246A of the IT Act before the Commissioner of Income tax (Appeals) against an appealable order or to apply for revision under Section 264 of the IT Act before the prescribed authorities. There is nothing in the statute which mandates the assessee only to pursue the appeal remedy and deny the remedy under Section 264 (when no such appeal is filed).
This Court in the case of Kamal Pasricha As Trustee of Kuldip Kaur Trust [2025 (2) TMI 656 - BOMBAY HIGH COURT] and Aafreen Fatima Fazal Abbas Sayed [2021 (4) TMI 1034 - BOMBAY HIGH COURT] has consistently held that the Revisional Authority under Section 264 cannot refuse to exercise its revisional jurisdiction on the ground that order impugned was appealable before the appellate authority.
Whether the prescribed authority can exercise its power under Section 264 to make good the mistakes/errors which are committed by the assessee itself in the return of income? - This aspect is no longer res-integra. This Court has time and again held that the powers conferred on the Commissioner under Section 264, are not only wider in its scope but are also intended for the purpose of preventing miscarriage of justice and for providing relief to an assessee, which it is otherwise entitled to.
We are of the view that the provisions of Section 264 would cover within its ambit even a scenario where the assessee commits any error/mistake in the return of income.
Respondent No. 1 ought to have considered the revision application under Section 264 of the Petitioner even though the mistakes/errors were committed by the Petitioner itself in the return of income. Thus, in view of the foregoing discussion, we quash and set aside the Impugned Order dated 29.03.2024 pertaining to the Assessment Year 2018-19 whereby the application filed by the Petitioner under Section 264 of the IT Act was rejected, and pass the following order:-
(i) The Petition stands allowed.
(ii) The impugned order dated 29.03.2024 stands quashed and set aside.
(iii) The revision application stands restored to the file of Respondent No. 1 and remitted back for a de novo consideration. Respondent No. 1 shall consider the representation of the Petitioner with respect to the errors/mistakes committed by the Petitioner in the return of income or audit report and grant the relief as claimed, if tenable in law.
(iv) Respondent No. 1 shall provide an effective opportunity of hearing to the Petitioner with adequate advance notice, and decide the revision application in accordance with law within a period of 12 weeks from the communication of this order. The Petitioner shall be entitled to submit its explanation/documentary evidences/ submissions before Respondent No. 1.
Issues: Whether Section 56(2)(vii)(b)(i) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 applied to a company so as to justify the addition made on account of difference between documented value and market value of flats sold.
Analysis: The assessee was admittedly a company. The provision invoked by the Assessing Officer applies to an individual or a Hindu undivided family and not to a company. Since the basic jurisdictional condition for applying the provision was absent, the addition could not be sustained.
Conclusion: The provision was inapplicable to the assessee and the addition was deleted.
Ratio Decidendi: A taxing provision can be applied only to the class of assessees expressly covered by it, and where the assessee does not fall within that class, the addition made under that provision cannot survive.
Addition u/s 56(2)(vii)(b)(i) - difference between the documented value and the market value in respect of flats sold by the assessee to various purchasers - As submitted provision of Section 56(2)(vii)(b)(i) of the Act applies to an individual or HUF and assessee being not an individual nor an HUF - HELD THAT:- As it is noticed that the issue is purely a legal issue and as the provision of Section 56(2)(vii)(b)(i) of the Act does not apply to the assessee, which is admittedly a company, the addition as made by the Assessing Officer and as confirmed by the CIT(A) stands deleted. Our view is supported by the decision of Neelkamal Realtors & Erectors India (P.) Ltd [2017 (8) TMI 956 - BOMBAY HIGH COURT]Thus, the appeal of the assessee is allowed.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether the long-term capital gains claimed as exempt on sale of listed shares could be treated as a sham/bogus transaction and added as unexplained income where the primary basis was a third-party statement recorded during search, without any incriminating material found from the assessee and without the statement specifically naming the assessee as beneficiary.
2. Whether an estimated addition towards alleged commission expenditure (computed as a percentage of the disputed gains) could survive once the long-term capital gains transaction was accepted as genuine on the evidence produced.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1: Sustainability of addition treating declared long-term capital gains as bogus
Legal framework (as reflected in the decision): The Court proceeded on the basis that exemption claimed for long-term capital gains on sale of listed shares could not be denied, and the gains could not be brought to tax as unexplained, unless the assessment was supported by cogent material connecting the assessee to an accommodation-entry arrangement.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court found that the assessee's shares were acquired through preferential allotment, were credited to the assessee's demat account, and were held for the relevant period before being sold through a recognized stock exchange through a broker. Documentary evidence such as contract notes and related records, along with bank statements showing payments for purchase and receipts on sale through banking channels, was available on record. The Court also noted that no incriminating document was recovered from the assessee's possession. The only stated basis for treating the gains as bogus was a third-party statement recorded during search, which spoke of providing accommodation entries to certain persons/entities but did not state that the assessee was a beneficiary. The Court considered this lack of specific linkage to the assessee, coupled with the absence of incriminating material from the assessee and the existence of contemporaneous transactional documentation, as fatal to the addition.
Conclusion: The addition treating the long-term capital gains as unexplained/bogus was deleted, and the long-term capital gains were accepted as genuine, entitling the assessee to the claimed exemption on those gains.
Issue 2: Addition for alleged commission expenditure linked to the disputed gains
Legal framework (as reflected in the decision): The commission addition was treated as consequential, premised on the allegation that the gains were accommodation entries.
Interpretation and reasoning: Since the Court accepted the underlying share transactions and the resultant long-term capital gains as genuine on evidence, the foundation for alleging that the assessee paid commission to obtain accommodation entries did not survive. The Court held that, in these circumstances, the estimated commission addition computed as a percentage of the gains was unwarranted.
Conclusion: The addition on account of alleged commission expenditure was deleted.
Bogus LTCG - treatment of capital gain declared by the assessee on the sale of shares treatment of capital gain declared by the assessee on the sale of shares - Transaction treated by the AO as bogus and sham transaction solely on the basis of statement of one Shri R.K. Kedia, who in his statement stated that he has provided the accommodation entries in the shape of capital gain - HELD THAT:- No incriminating document whatsoever was found from the possession of the assessee and as observed above, the sole basis is the evidence in the shape of statement of Shri R.K. Kedia recorded during the search operation wherein, he admitted of providing accommodation entries to Bhushan Steel Group. However, he has never stated that the assessee is the beneficiary of such accommodation entries.
Respectfully following the decision of Brij Bhushan Singhal [2019 (1) TMI 698 - ITAT DELHI] wherein as held that the capital gain declared from the sale of shares of M/s Anukaran Commercial Enterprises Ltd. as genuine. Therefore, we hereby delete the addition made by the AO by treating the capital gain declared as unexplained. Further, the addition made towards commission @6% is unwarranted and accordingly, the same is deleted. Appeal of the assessee is allowed.
Issues: Whether interest income earned from fixed deposits placed with banks by a co-operative society, being investments linked to statutory reserve and other mandated funds, was eligible for deduction under section 80P(2)(a)(iii) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 and whether the disallowance based on Totgars Co-operative Sale Society Ltd. was sustainable.
Analysis: The society was required to maintain a statutory reserve fund and the Revenue did not dispute that the investments were made in the context of that statutory mandate. A prior co-ordinate bench decision, dealing with the same statutory setting and similar investments, had held that interest earned from such investments is attributable to the main activities of the co-operative society and cannot be treated as mere surplus income within the meaning of Totgars. Following that view, the interest on the fixed deposits could not be denied deduction merely by characterising it as income from surplus funds.
Conclusion: The interest income was held to be deductible, and the disallowance was not sustainable.
Final Conclusion: The assessee succeeded on the taxability issue, and the addition made on account of interest from fixed deposits was directed to be deleted.
Ratio Decidendi: Interest earned from investments made pursuant to statutory reserve or other mandatory funds of a co-operative society is attributable to its eligible business activity and cannot be disallowed as surplus income solely on the basis of Totgars.
Deduction u/s 80P(2)(a)(iii) - Interest received on Investments held with Banks in form of FDR’s - HELD THAT:- The assessee is a co-operative society and that being a cooperative society is statutorily required to maintain a Reserve Fund of a minimum 25% of its profit and thus the investments in form of deposits with banks to the extent of the share capital and reserve funds cannot be said to be made out of surplus funds. The assessee was required to maintain reserve fund under this statutory mandate.
The fact is not controverted by the Revenue. The division bench of this Tribunal [2024 (9) TMI 1733 - ITAT LUCKNOW] considered the entire law on this point and decided the issue as held that principle that interest income arising from investments in statutory reserve funds and other funds as per the provisions of sections 58 and 59 of the U.P. Cooperative Societies Act is “attributable” to the main activities of that Society, has been accepted by the Revenue. The assessee is governed by the same U.P. Cooperative Societies Act and Rules as the Cooperative Cane Development Council, Lakhimpur and therefore, in its case also, it must be held that interest earned from investment made by it as per sections 58 and 59 of the U.P. Cooperative Societies Act r.w.r.173 of the U.P. State Cooperative Rules, is attributable to the activity in which the assessee is engaged and therefore, is eligible to be deducted under section 80P(2)(a) - Appeal of the assessee is allowed.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
(i) Whether dividend income received from mutual funds, disclosed as exempt income, was wrongly treated during processing as dividend from domestic companies so as to attract taxation beyond Rs. 10 lakhs, instead of being fully exempt as mutual fund dividend.
(ii) Whether the disallowance of the assessee's claimed capital loss/capital gain loss required interference, where the appellate authority directed verification and allowance if found correct under the Act.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue (i): Taxability/exemption of dividend-mutual fund dividend vs dividend from domestic companies
Legal framework: The Court considered the applicability of exemption for dividend income from mutual funds under section 10(35), and the treatment applied during processing which restricted exemption to Rs. 10 lakhs and taxed the balance by invoking section 115BBDA on the footing that the income was dividend from domestic companies (linked to section 10(34) treatment).
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal accepted as undisputed and verifiable that the dividend was earned from mutual funds and was reported in the exempt income schedule. It found that the return form did not provide a separate column to bifurcate dividend from shares and dividend from mutual funds, which led to the processing error. The assessee supported the claim through documentary evidence showing the dividend sources as mutual funds. On these facts, the Tribunal held that section 115BBDA was inapplicable because the income was not dividend from domestic companies; rather, it fell within section 10(35).
Conclusion: Dividend income from mutual funds was held to be exempt in entirety under section 10(35), without limiting exemption to Rs. 10 lakhs under section 115BBDA. The addition made on this account was deleted.
Issue (ii): Disallowance of capital loss/capital gain loss claim
Legal framework: The Tribunal considered the appellate direction that the claim be verified and allowed if found correct in accordance with the Act.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal noted that the appellate authority had already directed the assessing authority to verify the claim and allow it if correct, and that relevant documentary evidence had been furnished. On review, the Tribunal found no reason to interfere with that finding or direction.
Conclusion: The Tribunal sustained the verification-based direction and did not disturb it; the ground was allowed for statistical purposes.
Treatment of dividend claimed to be exempt u/s.10(35), but has been treated as dividend u/s.10(34) - Dividend income from Mutual Fund - Addition has been sustained merely on the premise that assessee has earned dividend income from domestic companies and therefore, provisions of Section 115BBDA applies - HELD THAT:- Assessee has earned dividend income from mutual funds which has been reported in the return form in Schedule EI. Assessee had constrain to furnish this detail in the Schedule only as there was no other place to bifurcate the earning of the dividend income from shares and from mutual funds. Such a constrain laid to invoking of provisions Section 115BBDA at the time of processing of return by CPC, whereby income to the extent of Rs. 10 lacs was allowed as exempted and the balance was subjected to tax, for which the assessee is in appeal before the Tribunal.
Assessee has furnished all the documentary evidences to substantiate her claim and demonstrate evidently that the dividend earned is from mutual funds which is exempt u/s. provision of Section 10(35), not forming part of the total income. Having considered the provisions of Section 10(35) and Section 115BBDA coupled with decision of Rajalben Hirenbhai Patel [2023 (12) TMI 341 - ITAT AHMEDABAD] we are in agreement with the claim of the assessee that the dividend income earned by her from mutual funds falls within the provisions of Section 10(35) and, therefore, is exempt in entirety without restricting it to Rs. 10 lacs u/s. 115BBDA. Accordingly, addition so made in this respect is deleted. In the result, Ground No.1 raised by the assessee is allowed.
Disallowance of loss on capital gain suffered by the assessee - CIT(A) has given direction to the ld. AO to verify the claim and allow it if found correct in accordance with the provisions of the Act. In this respect, assessee has furnished relevant documentary evidences forming part of the paper book. Having perused the same, we do not find any reason to interfere with the finding arrived at by the ld. CIT(A). Accordingly, Ground No.2 raised by the assessee is allowed for statistical purposes.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether an addition on an estimated basis at 1% of the aggregate of purchases, sales, and loans/advances could be sustained when the books of account were not rejected and the assessee had produced transaction documents (including e-way bills) evidencing movement of goods and recorded corresponding sales.
2. Whether the appellate authority's enhancement by adding the entire purchase amount as income was sustainable where it neither brought any further material nor conducted further enquiry, did not doubt the corresponding sales/advances, and relied on a decision found distinguishable on facts.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1: Sustainability of estimated addition at 1% without rejection of books
Legal framework (as discussed by the Court): The Court examined the principle that estimation of income cannot be made without rejecting the books of account under section 145(3), and that a "pick and choose" approach of accepting some entries while discarding others without justification is impermissible, as applied by the Court from the cited authority it expressly relied upon.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court found that the assessee maintained audited books, stock register, and regular records, and produced purchase bills, sales invoices, e-way bills, and transport documents. The assessing authority itself accepted that goods were shipped to third parties. Despite this, income was estimated at 1% of purchases/sales/loans by treating the assessee as an accommodation entry provider, without rejecting the books and without disbelieving the recorded sales or loans/advances. The Court held such estimation legally unsustainable in the absence of rejection of books and in the face of accepted documentary trail evidencing actual movement/supply and recorded sales.
Conclusion: The Court conclusively held that the estimated addition at 1% could not be sustained because the books were not rejected and the estimation was made despite acceptance of shipment and without a proper basis to disbelieve the recorded results. The addition was directed to be deleted.
Issue 2: Validity of enhancement by adding entire purchases as income without new material/enquiry and while not doubting sales
Legal framework (as discussed by the Court): The Court evaluated enhancement on the touchstone of whether it was supported by material on record and whether further enquiry was undertaken when required, and considered whether reliance placed on an external decision was factually applicable.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court found that the enhancement was made by treating the entire purchases as income without bringing any new material on record and without conducting further enquiry. The Court also noted that the appellate authority did not doubt the corresponding sales and advances, yet added only purchases, which the Court held to be "patently wrong" on the facts as accepted. Further, the Court examined the relied-upon decision and held it distinguishable because, in that case, there was non-compliance and absence of explanation about the source of expenditure, whereas here the assessee was compliant and had placed confirmations showing that purchases were directly funded by buyers; those confirmations were not found false, and no enquiry was made to disprove them. Given the presence of e-way bills and the accepted direct delivery to customers, the Court found the enhancement lacked evidentiary and investigative foundation.
Conclusion: The Court conclusively held the enhancement unsustainable as it was made without further material or enquiry, while not disputing sales/advances and on inapplicable precedent. The Court set aside the appellate order and directed deletion of the enhanced (and sustained) additions.
Bogus purchases - CIT (A) enhanced the assessment making the addition of entire purchases on the ground that assessee has taken accommodation entries of the said amount - HELD THAT:- We are not in agreement with the conclusion drawn by the ld. CIT (A) upholding the addition as made by the AO equal to 1% of the total of purchases/ sales and loans.
We are of the considered view that the addition made by the AO is uncalled for and not sustainable as the AO has resorted to estimation of income without rejecting the books of accounts.
Similarly the enhancement of income by CIT(A) is also not tenable as the same is done without bringing any materials on records to prove to the contrary and without doing any enquiry.
CIT(A) has not doubted the sales and advances by the assessee and only purchases were added to the income of the assessee which is patently wrong and can not be sustained. Besides the decision of KANAK IMPEX (INDIA) LTD. [2025 (3) TMI 230 - BOMBAY HIGH COURT] is not applicable to the assessee’s facts. Consequently we are inclined to set aside the order of CIT (A) and direct the ld. AO to delete the addition. Appeal of the assessee is allowed.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
(i) Whether reassessment initiated beyond four years from the end of the relevant assessment year, after an earlier assessment under section 143(3) read with section 153A, was valid in the absence of recorded satisfaction that income escaped assessment due to the assessee's failure to fully and truly disclose all material facts, as required by the proviso to section 147.
(ii) Whether the "reasons to believe" for reopening were vitiated as being based on borrowed satisfaction from investigation input, without independent enquiry or application of mind establishing a live link between information received and the belief of escapement.
(iii) Whether the reassessment was invalid because objections to reopening were not disposed of by a speaking order, but were rejected cryptically without dealing with the objections on merits.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
(i) Reopening beyond four years after a completed assessment-non-compliance with proviso to section 147
Legal framework: The Court examined section 147 and specifically the proviso governing cases where a prior assessment under section 143(3) exists and reopening is sought after four years from the end of the relevant assessment year.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court found that the notice under section 148 was issued beyond four years but within six years. In such a situation, reopening could be sustained only if the recorded reasons showed that escapement was attributable to the assessee's failure to fully and truly disclose material facts necessary for assessment. The Court noted that the recorded reasons did not contain any such satisfaction or allegation meeting this condition. It also noted that, when this specific objection was raised, the Assessing Officer rejected it merely by stating that sanction had been obtained, which did not cure the statutory defect under the proviso.
Conclusion: Reopening was held unsustainable for violating the proviso to section 147 because the mandatory jurisdictional condition (failure of full and true disclosure) was not recorded or demonstrated in the reasons.
(ii) Borrowed satisfaction and absence of independent enquiry-lack of live link supporting "reasons to believe"
Legal framework: The Court considered the requirement that reopening must be founded on "reasons to believe" and not mere suspicion, and evaluated whether the Assessing Officer formed an independent belief on tangible material.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court found that the Assessing Officer merely referred to information received from the investigation wing and "hurriedly concluded" that income had escaped assessment to the extent stated. The Court held that the Assessing Officer conducted no enquiry prior to reopening, did not independently analyze the information, and did not establish any live link between the information and the belief of escapement. The Court treated the reopening as resting on borrowed satisfaction without application of mind, which is impermissible.
Conclusion: Reopening was invalid because the reasons reflected borrowed satisfaction and did not demonstrate an independent, reasoned belief based on enquiry and nexus between material and escapement.
(iii) Non-speaking disposal of objections to reopening-violation of the requirement to pass a reasoned order
Legal framework: The Court examined the obligation of the Assessing Officer to dispose of objections to reopening by a speaking order, addressing the objections with reasons.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court found that the objections were disposed of in a cryptic manner, without dealing with the substance of objections such as (a) reopening beyond four years without satisfying the proviso to section 147, and (b) borrowed satisfaction. The Court observed that the disposal letter contained only conclusory rejection, indicating the exercise was performed as a formality rather than a quasi-judicial determination. The Court treated this defect as going to the legality of the reassessment proceedings.
Conclusion: The reassessment was vitiated because objections were not decided by a speaking, reasoned order, rendering the consequent proceedings and assessment unsustainable.
Final operative determination
The Court held the reopening invalid and, as a consequence, quashed the notice issued under section 148 and the reassessment order passed thereafter. Since the appeal succeeded on the legal grounds, issues on merits were expressly left open and not adjudicated.
Validity of reopening of assessment u/s 147 r/w section 148 - reasons to believe - notice after the expiry of four years - borrowed satisfaction or independent application of mind - mandation of disposing the objections - HELD THAT:- Obviously, the reopening was made beyond four years from the end of the relevant assessment year but before six years. Therefore, the reopening could have been made only in accordance with the provisions of Section 147 of the Act which provides that where the assessment is framed u/s 143(3) of the Act and 147 of the Act is to be invoked after four years from the end of the relevant assessment year then the escapement of income has to be attributed to the failure of the assessee to fully and truly disclose the material fact qua the said income during the assessment proceedings - AO has not recorded any such satisfaction in the reasons recorded for reopening of assessment. We note that the assessee has raised specific objection on this before AO and AO while disposing of the said objection simply noted that the reopening was made after obtaining sanction of the competent authority. In our view the said reopening cannot be sustained as the same is in violation to Proviso to Section 147 of the Act. The case of the assessee find support from the decisions of New Delhi Television Ltd [2020 (4) TMI 133 - SUPREME COURT] and CALCUTTA DISCOUNT COMPANY LIMITED [1960 (11) TMI 8 - SUPREME COURT (LB)]
Reopening of assessment on borrowed satisfaction - We note that the ld. AO has simply noted the information received from the investigation wing and hurriedly concluded that the income has escaped assessment to the extent of 50.00 crores received from M/s Pahargoomiah Exports Ltd. AO has not conducted any enquiry before the reopening of assessment and recorded the reasons to believe by relying on the information received. In other words, there is no live link between the information received and formation of belief by the ld. AO. AO is supposed to conduct an enquiry on the basis of information received which is trigger which is missing in the present case. We note that the ld. AO simply relied on the borrowed satisfaction of the investigation wing. In our opinion, the reopening of assessment on the basis of borrowed satisfaction without application of mind is not permissible under the Act. The case of the assessee find support from the decisions of Meenakshi Overseas (P.) Ltd. [2017 (5) TMI 1428 - DELHI HIGH COURT] and Shodiman Investments (P.) Ltd.[2018 (4) TMI 1287 - BOMBAY HIGH COURT]
Objection filed by the assessee to reopening of assessment has not been deposed off by way of speaking order as has been mentioned earlier and hereinabove and therefore, the assessment framed consequently by the AO would be nullity in the eyes of law. The case of the assessee is supported by decision of GKN Driveshafts (India) Ltd. [2002 (11) TMI 7 - SUPREME COURT]
Thus, reopening of assessment has been made invalidly by the ld. AO. Consequently, we quash the notice issued u/s 148 of the Act as well as the consequent assessment framed. The appeal of the assessee is allowed on legal issue.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether revision jurisdiction under section 263 could validly be invoked to direct addition under section 68 in respect of 15 loan creditors, when the Assessing Officer, while passing the order giving effect to earlier section 263 directions, examined material on record and took a plausible view not to make the addition.
2. Whether revision jurisdiction under section 263 could validly be invoked to direct addition under section 68 of an amount representing only a journal entry for "interest payable" to three loan creditors, in the absence of any physical receipt of money during the year.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1: Section 263 revision for non-addition under section 68 in respect of 15 loan creditors
Legal framework (as applied by the Court): The Court proceeded on the settled requirement that, for invoking section 263, the order sought to be revised must be both "erroneous" and "prejudicial to the interest of the revenue". The Court further applied the principle that where the Assessing Officer has taken a plausible view on appreciation of material, section 263 cannot be used merely to substitute the revisional authority's view.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court found that, in the giving-effect proceedings, the Assessing Officer understood the earlier section 263 directions as requiring a fresh assessment and had before him additional evidences already available on record concerning the 15 creditors to establish the three ingredients of section 68. On verification of those evidences, the Assessing Officer accepted the explanation for the 15 creditors and therefore did not repeat the earlier additions. The Court held that this constituted examination and verification on record and resulted in a plausible view, not a case of lack of enquiry or inadequate enquiry warranting revision.
Conclusion: Since the Assessing Officer had verified material and adopted a plausible view regarding the 15 creditors, no error could be attributed so as to justify section 263. The revision on this issue was therefore quashed.
Issue 2: Section 263 revision directing section 68 addition for "interest payable" booked through journal entry (three creditors)
Legal framework (as applied by the Court): The Court examined the applicability of section 68 to the impugned amount and applied the requirement that section 68 concerns a "sum of money" and, on the facts, must involve physical receipt of money during the year for being treated as an unexplained cash credit.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court accepted the tabulated position that the disputed amount represented "interest payable" credited through journal entries and that no fresh money was received from those creditors to that extent during the year. The Court reasoned that while the revisional authority could have considered other provisions for interest (as noted by the Court), the direction actually given was to treat the interest payable amount as unexplained cash credit under section 68, despite absence of physical receipt. The Court held that section 68 could not per se be applied to such a journal entry without receipt of money, and that the Assessing Officer's view in not making the addition was plausible and not erroneous.
Conclusion: Invocation of section 263 to direct section 68 addition of the journal-entry interest payable amount was held invalid and unsustainable, and revision on this issue was quashed.
Overall operative conclusion
The Court quashed the revision order under section 263 in its entirety and allowed the appeal, holding that neither the proposed addition relating to the 15 creditors nor the proposed addition of journal-entry interest payable satisfied the prerequisites for revision under section 263.
Revision u/s 263 - addition on account of cash deposits made during the period of demonetization and on account of unsecured loans - HELD THAT: We find that the AO in the giving effect proceedings to Section 263 was in possession of additional evidences filed by the assessee before the CIT(A) as mentioned in para 4 supra to prove the 3 ingredients of Section 68 in respect of 15 loan creditors. These documents are very much available on record before the ld AO while passing the giving effect order. AO in the giving effect proceedings had understood that he has to frame a fresh assessment order pursuant to the directions of the ld PCIT to frame the assessment afresh.
Accordingly, AO on verification of the additional evidences that are already on record, was convinced in respect of 15 loan parties and hence, chose not to make any addition u/s 68 of the Act. Hence, AO, on appreciation of factual evidences available on record had taken a plausible view on the matter of examination of 15 loan creditors. Once a plausible view has been taken by the ld AO, the same cannot be subjected to revision u/s 263 of the Act. Reliance is placed rightly on the decision of Malabar Industrial Co. Ltd [2000 (2) TMI 10 - SUPREME COURT] and Max India Ltd [2007 (11) TMI 12 - SUPREME COURT] - Hence, no error could be attributed in the order of the ld AO on account of addition not being made in respect of 15 loan creditors.
Accordingly, AO had indeed made verification of evidences in respect of 15 loan creditors proving the 3 ingredients of Section 68. Hence, it cannot be said that ld AO has not made adequate enquiries on those 15 loan creditors warranting revision u/s 263 of the Act. Hence, invoking revision jurisdiction u/s 263 of the Act on this issue is hereby quashed.
Addition in respect of 3 loan creditors of Sahyog Group - The sum represent merely journal entry on account of interest payable to the loan creditors and the same does not constitute any sum of money received during the year.
No fresh sum of money was received from these 3 loan creditors in the sum during the year warranting any addition u/s 68 of the Act.
We find that the PCIT could have suggested disallowance of interest on these 3 loan creditors either u/s 36(1)(iii) or u/s 37 of the Act since, the loan amount itself was earlier added u/s 68 of the Act, but the ld PCIT in his wisdom, chose not to do so.
We find the PCIT had only suggested this interest payable emanating from a journal entry (without physical receipt of money during the year) to be added as unexplained cash credit u/s 68 - provisions of Section 68 of the Act per se could not be made applicable for the said transaction.
Reliance in this regard has been rightly made on the decision of H H Sri Rama Verma [1990 (9) TMI 4 - SUPREME COURT] wherein they had explained the expression 'a sum of money' to constitute physical receipt. AO had taken a plausible view on this issue while framing the giving effect order to section 263 proceedings. Hence, there cannot be any error that could be attributed in the order of the Id AO warranting any revision by the ld PCIT u/s 263.
Appeal of the assessee is allowed.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
(i) Whether reassessment proceedings were validly initiated when approval under section 151 was granted by the Additional Commissioner (and not by the Principal Commissioner) for reopening within four years from the end of the relevant assessment year.
(ii) Whether additions for bank deposits treated as unexplained money under section 69A could be sustained without verification of the assessee's explanations regarding source (professional receipts, prior cash withdrawals, loans) and the claim that certain deposits related to a third party's account.
(iii) Whether notional rental income from multiple house properties was correctly computed, including (a) exclusion of properties claimed as sold or used for professional purposes, (b) non-duplication where rental income was already offered to tax, and (c) determination of property value for notional rent on an estimated basis versus circle rate/municipal valuation.
(iv) Whether addition on account of long-term capital gain could be sustained where the assessee claimed cost of acquisition, registration charges, and cost of improvement without furnishing supporting details, and whether remand for verification was warranted.
(v) Whether levy of interest under sections 234A, 234B and 234C required independent adjudication.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue (i): Validity of reassessment approval under section 151 (within four years)
Legal framework (as discussed by the Court): The Court considered the provisions of section 151 "as prevailing at the relevant time" and noted an amendment effective 01.04.2021 requiring approval from the Principal Commissioner for reopening within four years.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court found that the reopening was initiated on 30.03.2021 and was within four years from the end of the relevant assessment year. For that period, approval from the Additional Commissioner was the applicable requirement. The later amendment effective 01.04.2021 was held not to govern approvals granted prior to that date.
Conclusion: Approval by the Additional Commissioner was held valid; reassessment initiation was upheld and the jurisdictional challenge was rejected for all years on identical facts.
Issue (ii): Bank deposits treated as unexplained money under section 69A-necessity of verification
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court recorded that the assessee consistently explained that deposits were sourced from professional receipts, earlier cash withdrawals redeposited, and loans, and further asserted that certain deposits were wrongly linked to the assessee though relating to a third party/proprietorship concern. The Court held that the lower authorities had not verified these contentions despite the assessee's claims and supporting material (including loan-related documents placed in the paper book).
Conclusion: The additions under section 69A were not finally sustained; the matter was remanded to the assessing authority for verification of the assessee's explanations and for fresh decision after providing reasonable opportunity of hearing. The same remand approach was applied for subsequent years where identical additions were made on similar facts, including directions that withdrawal/deposit linkage (telescoping) be examined as per the Court's directions in the earlier year.
Issue (iii): Notional house property income-scope of properties includible and basis of valuation
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court examined the assessee's claim that several properties considered for notional rent were either (a) used for professional purposes and/or (b) already sold in earlier years, and that for two properties rental income had already been disclosed in the return and acknowledged in the assessment order. The Court accepted that properties stated to be sold or used for professional purposes could not be considered for computing fair rental income, and further held that where rental income was already disclosed for particular properties, no further notional rent addition could be made for those properties.
Legal framework (as applied by the Court): While addressing valuation methodology, the Court directed that market value for remaining properties be determined based on circle rate/municipal valuation rather than an estimated fair market value adopted by the assessing authority, and then 5% thereof be taken as notional rental value with standard deduction applied.
Conclusion: The notional rent computation was set aside to the extent it included properties that should be excluded and to the extent it relied on estimated valuation; the issue was remanded with directions to (i) exclude properties found sold/used for professional purposes, (ii) avoid double addition where rent was already offered, and (iii) compute value using municipal/circle rate for specified properties and then recompute notional rent accordingly. Identical directions were applied for later years with similar facts.
Issue (iv): Long-term capital gain-verification of cost claims
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court noted findings that the assessee claimed cost of acquisition, registration charges, and cost of improvement but had not filed details supporting these claims before the lower authorities. Considering this absence of evidence, the Court held that verification was necessary.
Conclusion: The long-term capital gain issue was remanded to the assessing authority for verification, with a direction to the assessee to furnish necessary evidence regarding cost of acquisition and cost of improvement; the ground was allowed for statistical purposes.
Issue (v): Interest under sections 234A, 234B, 234C
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court treated the charging of interest as consequential to the final computation of income after giving effect to the adjudication/remand directions on substantive additions.
Conclusion: No independent relief was granted on interest; it was held to be consequential in nature.
Validity of initiation of reassessment proceedings u/s 147 - approval u/s 151 as granted by the Addl. CIT(A) and not by the PCIT - HELD THAT:- Case of the assessee is reopened within a period of four years from the end of relevant assessment year i.e. AY 2016-17 for the present appeal and as per the provisions as contained in section 151 of the Act as prevailing at the relevant time, approval is required be obtained from the Additional Commissioner of Income Tax which has been granted in the instant case, therefore, we find no force in the argument of assessee that the approval should be granted by PCIT.
Section 151 of the Act stood amended w.e.f. 01.04.2021 wherein the approval from the PCIT is required in case of reopening within Four year from the end of relevant assessment year, therefore, we find that no error in the approval given by the Addl. CIT(A). Accordingly, the Ground of appeal No.1 and 2 taken by the assessee are dismissed.
Addition made by holding the bank deposits as unexplained money u/s 69 -claim of the assessee is that all the deposits in the bank account are out of the professional receipts/ cash withdrawals made from time to time by the assessee - HELD THAT:- It is seen that assessee since beginning of the proceedings claimed that the deposits include the cash withdrawn earlier, pertained to the third party and also amount of loans taken by her however, lower authorities have failed to verify the contention of the assessee. We thus, in the interest of justice, remand this issue to the file of the AO for verification of the claim made by the assessee and decide a fresh after providing reasonable opportunity of being heard to the assessee. With these directions, grounds of appeal No 3 & 4 of the assessee are partly allowed for statistical purposes.
Addition made on account of notional rental income from the house properties owned by the assessee - AO has made the addition of notional rent from total 13 (thirteen) properties owned by the assessee, by taking the fair market value of these thirteen properties and by taking 5% of the sum as fair rental value and reduced the standard deduction u/s 24 of the Act and made the addition of balance amount - HELD THAT:- After considering these facts, we find that claim of the assessee that properties at Serial No.1 to 8 of the assessment order were either sold or used by the assessee for her professional purposes therefore, the same could not be considered for the purpose of computing the fair rental income.
Regarding the remaining properties, since the assessee has already disclosed rental income from the property at Serial No.12 & 13, the AO cannot make further addition on account of notional rent from these two properties.
The remaining properties at Serial No.10 & 11 of the table appearing at page 11 of the assessment order, claim of the assessee is that AO has taken fair market value on estimate basis however, the same should be done on the basis of Circle Rate fixed by the Municipal Corporation.
After considering the facts, we direct the AO to work out the market value based on the circle rate declared by Municipal Corporation. This view is duly supported by the judgement of Moni Kumar Subba and others [2011 (3) TMI 497 - DELHI HIGH COURT]. Accordingly we remand this issue ot the file of the AO and direct the AO to compute the fair market value of these properties on the basis of Municipal valuation and take 5% of the same as notional rental value and after allowing the standard deduction of 30%, compute the income towards notional rent from these properties. With these directions, grounds of appeal No.5 & 6 taken by the assessee are partly allowed for statistical purposes.
Addition on account of long term capital gain - assessee has claimed the costs of property, registration charges and cost of improvement, however, no details whatsoever were filed in support of these claims either before the AO and before the CIT(A) - This issue is remanded back to the file of AO for verification of the claim made by the assessee. The assessee is also directed to file all the necessary evidences with respect to the costs of acquisition and costs of improvement before the AO. With these directions, this ground of appeal is partly allowed for statistical purposes.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1) Whether, for determining the arm's length price of the international transaction relating to import/purchase of finished goods for resale without value addition, the 'Resale Price Method' should be applied as the Most Appropriate Method instead of 'TNMM'.
2) What consequential direction should be issued for recomputation/benchmarking of the arm's length price for such finished-goods purchases in the relevant year.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1: MAM for benchmarking import/purchase of finished goods (RPM vs. TNMM)
Legal framework (as discussed by the Court/Tribunal): The Tribunal examined the selection of the Most Appropriate Method for determination of ALP under the transfer pricing provisions referred to in the grounds (including section 92C), but the operative reasoning turned on applying the method already conclusively accepted in the assessee's own earlier year on identical facts.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal treated the functional position as determinative: the transaction under examination was purchase/import of finished goods for resale. The Tribunal accepted that, in the immediately preceding year on identical facts, the Tribunal had held RPM to be the MAM and had directed computation of ALP under RPM, and that the jurisdictional High Court had affirmed that position. In view of this binding/settled position for the same assessee on the same transaction-profile, the Tribunal concluded that the finished-goods purchase transaction in the present year must likewise be benchmarked under RPM, not TNMM.
Conclusions: RPM was held to govern determination of ALP for the international transaction of purchase/import of finished goods for resale in the present year, and the application of TNMM by the transfer pricing authority for this transaction was not sustained.
Issue 2: Direction for recomputation and fresh benchmarking
Legal framework (as discussed by the Court/Tribunal): The Tribunal exercised its appellate power to issue directions to the assessing authority/transfer pricing authority to recompute ALP using the correct method already judicially settled for the assessee.
Interpretation and reasoning: Since the Tribunal found that the issue had already been settled in the assessee's own case for the preceding year by the jurisdictional High Court, it considered it appropriate to follow that decision and issue a remand-direction limited to recomputation in accordance with RPM. The Tribunal accepted the need for a fresh benchmarking exercise, but only within the framework of RPM as the MAM.
Conclusions: The Tribunal directed the AO/TPO to re-compute the ALP of the international transactions pertaining to purchases of finished goods by applying RPM and to carry out fresh benchmarking accordingly. The relevant grounds were allowed for statistical purposes, and the appeal was allowed for statistical purposes.
TP Adjustment towards alleged AMP expenses - Selection of MAM - HELD THAT:- Admittedly the issue raised in these grounds of appeal have already been settled by the jurisdictional High Court in the case of assessee in Assessment Year 2009-10 [2015 (12) TMI 961 - ITAT DELHI] where the order of the Co-ordinate Bench holding the ‘Resale Price Method’ as MAM. Thus, by respectfully following the judgments of the Hon’ble Jurisdictional High Court, we direct the AO/TPO to re-compute the arm’s length price of international transactions pertaining to purchases of finished goods by following ‘Resale Price Method’ and further directed to make fresh benchmarking. Appeal of the assessee is allowed for statistical purposes.
Issues: (i) whether the transfer pricing adjustment on provision of software, technical and consultancy services was sustainable, including the choice of tested party, PLI, FAR analysis and benchmarking; (ii) whether commission/performance, lease and financial guarantee fees to AEs constituted international transactions and, if so, the arm's length rate; (iii) whether the notional transfer pricing adjustment on receipt of brand royalty from AEs and the related brand ownership objection were sustainable; (iv) whether overseas state taxes paid in the USA were allowable as deduction; (v) whether payments for imported software attracted withholding tax as royalty; (vi) whether disallowance under section 14A could stand without proper recording of dissatisfaction; (vii) whether brand building expenditure and brand equity subscription were capital or revenue in nature; (viii) whether commission paid to non-resident agents was chargeable in India and subject to withholding tax; (ix) whether foreign tax credit was allowable in respect of income eligible for deduction under section 10AA; (x) whether deduction under section 10AA could be allowed on interest income claimed during assessment; (xi) whether subscription fees paid to non-residents were subject to withholding tax; (xii) whether year-end provisions were allowable as accrued liabilities; (xiii) whether CSR-linked donations qualified for deduction under section 80G; (xiv) whether gratuity routed through OCI was deductible; and (xv) whether tax sparing credit on Singapore dividend income was allowable.
Issue (i): Whether the transfer pricing adjustment on provision of software, technical and consultancy services was sustainable, including the choice of tested party, PLI, FAR analysis and benchmarking.
Analysis: The recurring nature of the dispute, the absence of any material change in functions, and the consistency of the factual matrix with earlier assessment years were treated as decisive. The earlier Tribunal ruling in the assessee's own case had approved the CIT(A)'s approach that the AEs performed significant marketing and distribution functions and bore relevant risks, making the TNMM adopted by the TPO inappropriate. The gross margin on sales approach, the rejection of the TPO's pass-through cost treatment, and the detailed examination of the assessee's alternative benchmarking were accepted as already settled in prior years.
Conclusion: The transfer pricing adjustment on software, technical and consultancy services was deleted in substance, and the assessee's connected grounds became academic.
Issue (ii): Whether commission/performance, lease and financial guarantee fees to AEs constituted international transactions and, if so, the arm's length rate.
Analysis: Provision of guarantee to AEs was treated as an international transaction. However, the Court followed the assessee's own earlier-year precedent holding that guarantee commission should be computed at 0.5% per annum on performance, lease and financial guarantees. The Revenue's challenge to the CIT(A)'s reduced rates was rejected because the facts were found to be the same and no basis was shown to depart from the settled rate.
Conclusion: The guarantee-related transfer pricing grounds were decided against the Revenue and in favour of the assessee.
Issue (iii): Whether the notional transfer pricing adjustment on receipt of brand royalty from AEs and the related brand ownership objection were sustainable.
Analysis: The brand ownership controversy was resolved by applying earlier coordinate bench decisions in the assessee's own case. The material on record, including the brand agreements, trade mark certificates, and valuation report, did not justify a departure from the earlier finding that Tata Sons owned the relevant trade mark and that the assessee was not the owner of the brand for transfer pricing purposes. Accordingly, no notional royalty could be imputed in the assessee's hands on account of brand use by AEs.
Conclusion: The Revenue's brand royalty adjustment was deleted and the assessee's corresponding challenge did not survive separately.
Issue (iv): Whether overseas state taxes paid in the USA were allowable as deduction.
Analysis: The issue was held to be covered by earlier years in the assessee's own case, where it was decided that foreign state taxes, if not eligible for relief under the relevant treaty, are not hit by section 40(a)(ii) and may be allowed subject to verification. The jurisdictional precedent on foreign taxes paid abroad was followed and no factual distinction was shown.
Conclusion: The deduction for overseas state taxes was upheld in principle, subject to the treaty-based verification already directed in earlier years.
Issue (v): Whether payments for imported software attracted withholding tax as royalty.
Analysis: The Tribunal followed the Supreme Court ruling in Engineering Analysis and its own earlier decisions. Software acquired for internal use and for resale/trading were treated in line with the established distinction between acquisition of a copyrighted article and transfer of copyright. On the facts, the imported software payments did not justify the disallowance sustained by the Revenue.
Conclusion: The disallowance for non-deduction of tax on imported software payments was deleted.
Issue (vi): Whether disallowance under section 14A could stand without proper recording of dissatisfaction.
Analysis: The Tribunal followed the settled requirement that Rule 8D cannot be invoked mechanically unless the Assessing Officer records objective dissatisfaction with the assessee's claim. Since the disallowance was made without cogent reasons and the factual position matched earlier years, the addition was not sustainable.
Conclusion: The section 14A disallowance was deleted.
Issue (vii): Whether brand building expenditure and brand equity subscription were capital or revenue in nature.
Analysis: The expenditure on advertising, publicity, events and related brand promotion was treated as business expenditure incurred to promote the assessee's own operations rather than to create a capital asset. Likewise, the annual subscription paid under the Tata brand equity arrangement was held to be a recurring revenue outlay, consistently allowed in earlier years on identical facts.
Conclusion: The disallowance of brand building expenditure and brand equity subscription was deleted.
Issue (viii): Whether commission paid to non-resident agents was chargeable in India and subject to withholding tax.
Analysis: The non-resident agents rendered services outside India, had no business connection or permanent establishment in India, and the commission was not shown to fall within the deeming provisions. Following earlier years and the established position on withholding under section 195, the payments were held not chargeable to tax in India.
Conclusion: The disallowance for non-deduction of tax on commission to non-resident agents was deleted.
Issue (ix): Whether foreign tax credit was allowable in respect of income eligible for deduction under section 10AA.
Analysis: The Tribunal held that treaty-based foreign tax credit depends on the relevant DTAA terms and on whether the income is taxable abroad and in India, as recognized in prior years. The assessee was entitled to credit in respect of the specified treaty countries and denied it in others as already settled by the earlier coordinate bench approach.
Conclusion: The foreign tax credit issue was partly allowed in favour of the assessee.
Issue (x): Whether deduction under section 10AA could be allowed on interest income claimed during assessment.
Analysis: Interest income earned by SEZ units was treated as part of the profits eligible for deduction under section 10AA, following prior years where incidental income from the undertaking was held to enter the deduction computation. The fact that the claim was made during assessment did not defeat the substantive entitlement.
Conclusion: The assessee's claim for deduction on interest income was allowed.
Issue (xi): Whether subscription fees paid to non-residents were subject to withholding tax.
Analysis: Fees for access to databases, journals, licenses and webinar content were treated as payments for copyrighted articles and not as royalty or fees for technical services. The Tribunal followed the settled distinction between access to information and transfer of rights in copyright, as applied in the assessee's earlier years and by the Supreme Court's software/royalty jurisprudence.
Conclusion: The disallowance under section 40(a)(ia) on subscription fees was deleted.
Issue (xii): Whether year-end provisions were allowable as accrued liabilities.
Analysis: The provisions were made under the mercantile system for services already availed, with bills pending and liabilities accrued though not yet quantified in vendor invoices. The Tribunal followed its earlier rulings that such provisions are not automatically contingent merely because the exact payee-wise booking occurs later.
Conclusion: The year-end provisions were allowed as deductions.
Issue (xiii): Whether CSR-linked donations qualified for deduction under section 80G.
Analysis: The Tribunal accepted that disallowance under the business deduction provision does not bar a separate claim under Chapter VI-A where the statutory conditions for donation deduction are met. The only express exclusions in section 80G did not cover the assessee's donations, and the CBDT/MCA clarification supported the claim.
Conclusion: The deduction under section 80G for CSR-linked donations was allowed.
Issue (xiv): Whether gratuity routed through OCI was deductible.
Analysis: The gratuity liability was already accrued and paid, and the shift to OCI under Ind AS 19 was treated as an accounting presentation change rather than a substantive loss of deductibility. Since there was no mismatch in the amount claimed and no outstanding liability, the claim was held allowable.
Conclusion: The gratuity amount debited through OCI was allowed as a deduction.
Issue (xv): Whether tax sparing credit on Singapore dividend income was allowable.
Analysis: The dispute was confined to the method of computation, not to the underlying entitlement under the India-Singapore DTAA. The Tribunal held that the FIFO working furnished by the assessee properly reflected the credit mechanism under Article 25 and that the Revenue's assumption-based objection could not displace the treaty entitlement.
Conclusion: The tax sparing credit was allowed on the assessee's FIFO computation.
Final Conclusion: The recurring transfer pricing, deduction, withholding tax and foreign tax credit disputes were resolved substantially by following the assessee's own earlier-year precedent and the governing treaty and accounting principles, resulting in relief on the major substantive issues and only limited acceptance of the Revenue's contentions where specifically sustained.
Ratio Decidendi: Where the factual matrix remains unchanged in recurring tax disputes, coordinate bench rulings in the assessee's own case should ordinarily govern; foreign tax credit, treaty relief and withholding consequences must be determined by the relevant DTAA terms, while year-end provisions, OCI-presented liabilities and subscription/access payments are deductible where the underlying liability is accrued or the payment is only for a copyrighted article or business expenditure and not for transfer of copyright or a capital asset.
TP Adjustment - adjustment ofprovision of guarantee - HELD THAT:- Coordinate Bench has dealt with this issue in assessee’s own case for Assessment Year 2009-10 [2019 (11) TMI 408 - ITAT MUMBAI] and directed to charge guarantee commission at the rate of 0.5% per annum on performance, lease as well as finance guarantee.
Receipt of brand royalty from its AEs for use of brand “Tata Consultancy Services and TCS” - At its core, brand value comes from trust, relevance and consistency. For a brand to stand apart, it is characterised by certain differentiating attributes with predominantly value based architecture. There is purpose which is built in the DNA of the organisation which the brand represents. It carries unmatched trust capital to enjoy credibility across diverse sectors of socio-economic setup. There is coherence in corporate governance delivered through moral leadership. It can be linked to national pride, progress and seen as a benchmark for a corporate behaviour. Attributes of quality assurance, integrity, fairness, performance and the like become synonymous to such a brand.
Keeping the above in the context, it is important to deal with the contention of ld. CIT DR who submitted on Tata Consultancy Services that there is more to the brand value of the Tata Consultancy Services than the name “TATA” which has been generated by the assessee. To our mind, what adds value to this entire name of “Tata Consultancy Services” is the word “TATA”. If this word “TATA” in “Tata Consultancy Services” is replaced with any other word/name/phrase would have significant impact on the valuation which has not been tested yet. The question over which one has to mull is whether the name of this phrase “Tata Consultancy Services” when replaced by another word for “TATA”, would it command the similar brand value and position in the global market in the domain in which it works.
For the above, reference was made to the comprehensive agreement put in place called the Brand Equity and Business Promotion (BEBP) agreement which provided companies of the Tata group the right to use the unified Tata brand for a licence fee prescribing clear guidelines for its usage. Those companies who signed this agreement only have the right to use the ‘Tata’ name. This BEBP agreement lists the requirements a company has to meet if it wishes to use the ‘Tata’ name and brand. For instance, each company signing this agreement would have to adhere to the Tata Code of Conduct, which laid down the ethical principles that would govern all aspects of business. In addition, each company would have to become part of a business excellence framework defined by the group.
State taxes paid overseas - assessee has paid the "State taxes" in the USA on its USA sourced income and same is claimed as a deductible expense in the return of income - HELD THAT:- Relevant portion of the order of Coordinate Bench [2024 (6) TMI 1122 - ITAT MUMBAI] held that while interpreting the provisions of section 2(43) of the Act, vis-a-vis section 40(a)(ii) of the Act, the Hon'ble Court held that the tax which has been paid abroad would not be covered within the meaning of section 40(a)(ii) of the Act, since, the meaning of the word "tax" as defined under section 2(43) of the Act would mean only the tax chargeable under the Act - taxes levied overseas which are not eligible for relief either under section 90 or 91 of the Act, would not come within the purview of section 40(a)(ii) of the Act. It is the specific plea of the assessee that the State tax is not covered either under Indo-US or Indo-Canada tax treaty, hence, not eligible for any relief under section 90 of the Act. Pertinently, unlike section 91 read with Explanation-(iv), section 90 does not provide for inclusion of tax levied by any State/local authority of that country within the expression 'income tax'.
We direct the AO to verify whether the State taxes paid by the assessee overseas are eligible for any relief under section 90 of the Act and if it is not found to be so, assessee's claim of deduction should be allowed. In view of our decision above, no separate adjudication of grounds no. 1.2 is required.
No TDS on imported software and software for internal use - assessee imported certain software products for its business - software products imported were both, for use in its own business as well as for the purpose of trading - HELD THAT:- Assessee has made an elaborate submission with respect to non-deductibility of TDS on the amount referred to above from which we find that the matter has been adjudicated in preceding Assessment Years in a manner that imported software for internal use is capitalized and depreciation is allowed after capitalization and those for trading purposes to be subjected to TDS on account of royalty.
This issue has been decided in assessee’s own case in [2017 (3) TMI 1888 - ITAT MUMBAI] for Assessment Year 2005-06 in favour of assessee. Subsequently, following the said order, the Coordinate Bench decided the issue in favour of assessee for Assessment Year 2007-08 to Assessment Year 2015-16. While deciding on this issue, reliance is placed on the decision of the Hon'ble Supreme Court in the case of Engineering Analysis Centre of Excellence (P) Ltd. [2021 (3) TMI 138 - SUPREME COURT]
Disallowance u/s 14A r.w.r. 8D - Mandation to record proper satisfaction by AO - HELD THAT:- Coordinate Bench for A.Y.2015-16 held it is the settled position that the AO cannot invoke the provisions of disallowance under section 14A read with rule 8D without recording any cogent reasons as to why he is not satisfied with the correctness of the claim of the assessee. Mere recording that the amounts being meagre compared to the exempt income earned, cannot be construed as recording of satisfaction. Therefore, addition made by the Assessing Officer for want of recording of objective satisfaction with cogent reasons to be deleted.
Brand building expenditure (AMP) - AO while treating these expenses as capital in nature, allowed depreciation of 25% on the same - HELD THAT:- The Coordinate Bench of ITAT, Mumbai in Assessment Year 2008-09 to Assessment Year 2015-16, considering all the facts, has decided the issue in favour of the assessee as noted that the reasoning of the Assessing Officer that the expenditure was incurred for brand building is without any basis. It is to be noted, before the Departmental Authorities the assessee had demonstrated that in no way it is connected with development of Tata brand. The details of expenditure incurred clearly demonstrate that they were basically for the purpose of advertising assessee's products in print media or through seminar, conferences, etc. As rightly observed by leamed Commissioner (Appeals), the Assessing Officer has brought no material on record to establish that the expenditure is for brand building. As observed earlier, the expenditure relates to advertisement in newspaper, magazine, events, seminars, conferences, exhibitions, etc. Thus, the nature of expenditure incurred by the assessee clearly indicates that it was for promoting its own business. Further, considering the turnover of the assessee, the expenditure incurred on advertisement does not appear to be unusually high. That being the case, the expenditure incurred on advertisement cannot be treated to be in the nature of capital expenditure and amortized over a period of five years.
Brand Equity subscription to Tata Sons - nature of expenditure - revenue or capital expenditure - Referring to order for Assessment Year 2015-16 [2024 (6) TMI 1122 - ITAT MUMBAI] direct the Assessing Officer to delete the disallowance on account of subscription fees paid by the assessee to Tata Sons Limited.
Non-TDS on commission to non-residents - As decided in own case [2019 (11) TMI 408 - ITAT MUMBAI] as the nature of payment viz. commission has also not been disputed by the Revenue. That being the case, since the commission paid to the non-resident agents is not chargeable to tax in India at their hands, there is no necessity for the assessee to withhold tax under section 195(1) of the Act on such payment.
Foreign Tax Credit for income u/s. 10A/AA - HELD THAT:- Double taxation relief can be given in the cases where income was taxed in India and also in a foreign country. AO is directed to allow foreign tax credit only with respect to DTAA countries where the income was subjected to tax both, in India and foreign jurisdiction. It is also directed that the assessee would be entitled to relief only to the extent of tax paid overseas on the income which has been offered to tax abroad and also in India. However, the relief should not exceed the rate of tax payable in India. Further, respectfully concurring with the direction of the Coordinate Bench, ld. Assessing Officer in the present case is also directed to breakup foreign tax credit in three segments - taxes paid in US, Denmark, Hungary, Norway, Oman, Saudi Arabia and Taiwan; taxes paid in other DTAA countries and taxes paid in non-DTAA countries. Credit in respect of taxes paid in US Denmark, Hungary, Norway, Oman, Saudi Arabia and Taiwan should be allowed. In other DTAA countries, credit will not be available in respect of income which is claimed exempt u/s 10A/10AA/10B. In respect of non-DTAA countries, credit will not be available. Accordingly, ground raised by revenue is partly allowed.
Deduction u/s. 10AA on interest income during assessment - AO rejected the claim of the assessee on the ground that the claim was not made in the return and is raised during the assessment proceedings - HELD THAT:- Similar issue had come up in appeal in the case of the assessee itself in Assessment Year 2015-16 before the Coordinate Bench of ITAT, Mumbai and the issue was decided in favour of the assessee [2024 (6) TMI 1122 - ITAT MUMBAI] as held interest income is also to be considered for the purpose of arriving at the profits eligible for deduction under section 10AA. The Assessing Officer is directed to re-compute the deduction under section 10AA accordingly.
Addition of Subscription fees u/s. 40(a)(ia) - payments towards subscription services to various non-residents without deducting withholding taxes - HELD THAT:- As decided in own case [2024 (6) TMI 1122 - ITAT MUMBAI] held that subscription was paid for the services pertaining to publication and same were not an information or advice given individually. The subscription services were not of the nature of transfer of right in the copyright in the article etc. AO has not contrary disproved the material fact that subscription was made for use of a copyrighted article and not for transfer of right in the copyright in the article and assessee had not received any licence for commercial exploitation of the copyright. In view of the facts and findings as discussed we consider the Id. CIT(A) is not justified in sustaining such disallowance, therefore, this ground of appeal of the assessee is allowed.
Warranty income of CMC already offered - It is seen that there is mentioning about the amount disallowed in the case of CMC Ltd in AY 2014-15 of Rs. 2,15,64,320/- has been accounted for in FY 2014-05 relevant to Assessment Year 2015-16 and the same has been allowed as deduction from an amount of warranty income to be taxed in AY 2015-16 on the basis of directions on similar issue given by ld. CIT(A) in earlier assessment years. Considering the similarity of fact pattern and observations made by AO in the assessment made for CMC Ltd, warranty period income which was added back in Assessment Year 2015-16 is allowed as a deduction in the Assessment Year 2016-17. Accordingly, ground raised by Revenue in this respect is dismissed.
Addition of Year-end provisions u/s. 37(1) - addition considering the same as unascertained liability and not incurred during the year, to make the addition thereof under both, normal computation as well as under the MAT computation - HELD THAT:- The same issue was dealt by the Coordinate Bench in assessee’s own case for Assessment Year 2013-14 [2022 (4) TMI 1558 - ITAT MUMBAI], allowing the ground raised by the assessee in this respect as held it is an ascertained liability and the same is eligible for deduction while computing total income.
Allowability of 80G vis-à-vis CSR expenses confirmed.
Gratuity expenses debited to OCI in profit and loss allowed as entire gratuity amount was duly paid by assessee within due date prescribed under section 139(1), there was no scope for making any brought forward adjustment of Rs. 18.85 crores on account of gratuity under section 43B as there was no mismatch between amount returned in audit report and deduction claimed in return.
Tax sparing credit u/s. 90 on dividend received by it from its 100% owned subsidiaryunder India-Singapore DTAA - amount of tax credit claimed being “Singapore tax paid” as defined under Article 25(3) of the India-Singapore DTAA which has been denied by the ld. AO - HELD THAT:- We find that dispute in the present case relates only to the method of calculation and eligibility of assessee to claim tax sparing credit under article 25(2) and (3) is not in dispute. Assessee has furnished details for computing tax sparing credit under both the methods i.e. FIFO and LIFO method with marginal difference in the two. Denial by the ld. AO is based on assumption in respect of utilisation of reserves of TAPL. Nothing cogent has been brought on record to establish the assumption of utilisation of reserves otherwise by the TAPL. Considering the factual position and the provisions of applicable DTAA as well as Act, calculation of tax sparing credit made by the assessee by applying FIFO method seems to be appropriate. Accordingly, we direct to allow the tax sparing credit to the assessee based on the working given by it under FIFO method. Ground raised by the assessee in its appeal is allowed.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
(i) Whether cash deposits made during the demonetization period were liable to be treated as unexplained money under section 69A, where the assessee explained the source as cash arising from income earlier surrendered during survey proceedings and accepted in an earlier assessment year, and the addition was primarily supported by an inference that such large cash could not reasonably be held for a long period.
(ii) Whether tax under section 115BBE could be invoked on such addition for the relevant assessment year, in view of the Court's acceptance of the position that section 115BBE operated prospectively.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue (i): Addition under section 69A for demonetization cash deposits explained by earlier surrendered income
Legal framework: The Tribunal examined the assessment framed by treating demonetization-period cash deposits as unexplained money under section 69A, after rejecting the assessee's explanation of source.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal found, on the record, that (a) there was an earlier surrender of income during survey proceedings in a prior year; (b) the assessee's case was that such surrendered amount was received/available in cash and a part of it was later deposited during demonetization; and (c) the rejection by the authorities was substantially based on the premise that it was not acceptable or probable to keep such huge cash in hand for a long period. The Tribunal applied the principle that once the assessee discloses a plausible source of cash, the revenue cannot reject the explanation merely on surmise as to human conduct (i.e., disbelief based only on the time gap or perceived improbability of holding cash), without bringing material to show that the cash was not available or had been utilized elsewhere. It also relied on the reasoning that when disclosure/surrender has been accepted earlier, the revenue must establish with evidence that the amount was invested/spent so as to negate availability for subsequent deposit, rather than disallowing the explanation solely due to delay in deposit.
Conclusion: The Tribunal held that the addition could not be sustained merely because the deposits were made after a period of time from the earlier surrender and because of an assumption that such cash would not be held for long. The cash deposits stood explained on the facts accepted by the Tribunal, and the addition under section 69A was deleted.
Issue (ii): Applicability of section 115BBE
Legal framework: The Tribunal considered whether section 115BBE could be applied to tax the amount treated as unexplained.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal accepted the proposition, as applied in its reasoning, that section 115BBE was applicable prospectively (as per the authority it followed). On that basis, it held that section 115BBE could not be invoked for the relevant assessment year.
Conclusion: Invocation of section 115BBE was held to be unsustainable for the year in question, and the assessee's ground on this aspect was allowed.
Addition u/s 69A - large value of cash deposits were made during the demonetization and undisclosed income reported by PCIT - assessee has disclosed that the source for cash deposits during demonetization is the amount surrendered by the assessee in assessment year 2014-15 in the survey proceedings initiated in that assessment year and the same was disclosed by him in statement recorded u/s.131 - HELD THAT:- Assessee has disclosed the source of cash deposited during the year under consideration that the assessee held the cash, which was disclosed during the survey proceedings to the extent of Rs. 1.30 crore and he has deposited portion of the same during the demonetization period. After we observe that similar issue was considered in the case of S.R. Ventakaratnam [1980 (8) TMI 73 - KARNATAKA HIGH COURT] deciding the issue of delay in depositing the cash as held that once the petitioner-assessee disclosed the source as having come from the withdrawal made on a given date from a given bank, it was not for respondents Nos. 1 and 2 to concern themselves with what the assessee did with that money, i.e., whether he had kept the same in his house or utilised the services of a bank by depositing the same. ITO had only two choices before him. One was to reject the explanation as not believable for the reason that on his investigation no such pigmy deposit was ever made in the bank. In the alternative he ought to have called upon the assessee-petitioner to substantiate his claim by documentary evidence. Having exercised neither of the choices, it was not open to the ITO to merely surmise that it would not be probable for the assessee to keep Rs. 15,000 unutilised for a period of two years.
Invoking of section 115BBE - As we observe that in S.M.I.L.E. Microfinance Ltd. [2024 (11) TMI 1444 - MADRAS HIGH COURT] has held that the provisions of section 115BBE are applicable prospectively. Therefore, we are inclined to allow the grounds raised by the assessee.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
(i) Whether the receipts from sale of shares, claimed as long-term capital gains, could be treated as bogus and added as unexplained money under section 69A on the allegation that the scrip was a "penny stock" and price was manipulated.
(ii) Whether, on the facts found, the addition could be sustained merely on the basis of third-party statements, "human probability", and regulatory material, despite the assessee producing primary documentary evidence showing purchase, holding (demat), and sale through stock exchange and banking channels.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue (i) & (ii) (Grouped): Addition as unexplained money u/s 69A on alleged bogus LTCG from sale of shares
Legal framework (as discussed in the judgment): The Court considered the addition made under section 69A by treating the declared long-term capital gains as bogus, and evaluated the relevance of evidence relied upon by the assessing authority (including third-party statements and allegations of price manipulation) against the assessee's documentary trail of share acquisition and sale through banking and recognised market mechanisms.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court noted that the assessee produced primary evidence supporting the transaction chain: application for preferential allotment, payment through banking channel, allotment, dematerialisation, share split resulting in increased quantity, and subsequent sale through a recognised broker/stock exchange with contract notes, broker statements, demat statements, and sale proceeds reflected in the bank account. The Court found that these documents constituted discharge of the assessee's initial onus, and the assessing authority did not dispute the authenticity of these primary evidences. The Court further observed that the revenue's case proceeded mainly on third-party statements and a general allegation that the scrip was a penny stock, without conducting further verification to rebut the assessee's documentary evidence. The Court also considered that the regulatory order relied upon did not characterise the scrip as a penny stock or record a finding of price rigging, and there was no adverse finding therein against the assessee. The statement recorded from the assessee during survey/search was also found not to contain any admission that the transactions were non-genuine. On these facts, the Court held that treating the sale receipts/LTCG as bogus merely on "probability" and third-party material, without disproving the assessee's transaction documents, was not justified.
Conclusions: The Court upheld the deletion of the addition, holding that the revenue failed to substantiate the allegation of a sham/penny stock arrangement or to rebut the assessee's primary evidences establishing purchase, holding, and sale through recognised channels. Consequently, the addition under section 69A could not be sustained and the revenue's grounds were dismissed.
Unexplained money u/s 69A - investment made in penny stock - alleged manipulation of share prices - as per revenue statements recorded during the search proceedings are credible and were supported by circumstantial incriminating evidence suggesting irregular financial activities - CIT(A) deleted addition - HELD THAT:- Sales were carried out through registered broker of stock exchange and was sold through online platform. In support, assessee furnished copies of the contract notes, statement of purchase and sale, statement of accounts maintained with the broker, copies of the Demat account reflecting complete details of purchase and sales of shares of Banas Finance Ltd., with the details of quantity, and the consideration received.
Admittedly, assessee discharged its onus by filing the primary evidence to establish genuineness of the transactions. It is noted that, Ld.AO has not disputed any of these primary evidences filed by assessee.
Revenue has not been able to substantiate its claim of Banas Finance Ltd., to be a penny stock and has proceeded to make addition in the hands of assessee merely based on the third party statements without carrying out any further verification of the primary evidence furnished by assessee to discharge its onus.
Co-ordinate Bench of this Tribunal in case of assessee’s brother [2026 (1) TMI 66 - ITAT MUMBAI] has also come to similar findings based on similar undisputed facts by the revenue. Appeal filed by revenue stands dismissed.
Issues: Whether the adjustment under section 143(1) of the Income-tax Act, 1961, could sustain a disallowance of fees paid for increase in authorised share capital when the amount was directly debited to retained earnings and not claimed in the profit and loss account.
Analysis: The amount was reflected in the balance sheet under other equity as share issue expenses and the tax audit report recorded that it was directly debited to retained earnings. Since the assessee had not claimed the amount as a revenue expenditure in the profit and loss account, there was no basis for treating it as a disallowable claim merely because of its appearance in the audit report.
Conclusion: The disallowance could not be sustained and was deleted.
Disallowance of expenditure - capital nature of expenditure - debit to retained earnings - not debited to profit and loss account - tax audit report as basis for adjustment - intimation under section 143(1)
Disallowance of expenditure - capital nature of expenditure - debit to retained earnings - not debited to profit and loss account - tax audit report as basis for adjustment - Whether the addition/disallowance of the amount paid for increase in authorized share capital made in the CPC intimation and confirmed by the CIT(A) was sustainable where the amount was shown in the balance sheet as directly debited to retained earnings and was not claimed in the profit and loss account. - HELD THAT: - The Tribunal examined the balance sheet note and the tax audit report which recorded that the amount paid towards increase in authorized share capital was 'directly debited in the retained earnings' and was shown under 'other equity' as 'retained earnings ITA as share issue expenses'. The assessee had not debited this amount to the Profit & Loss Account nor claimed it as an expense in the return. The CPC adjustment was made on the basis of the tax auditor's Form 3CD entry which described amounts debited to P&L being of capital nature, but the contemporaneous balance sheet disclosure and the auditor's own note confirmed the amount was booked to retained earnings. On this factual and accounting basis the Tribunal found no justification for making a disallowance as a revenue expense and therefore deleted the addition. [Paras 8, 9]
Addition/disallowance deleted and the appeal allowed.
Final Conclusion: The Tribunal allowed the assessee's appeal, deleted the disallowance made in the intimation under section 143(1) for the amount paid on increase of authorized share capital since the amount was shown as debited to retained earnings and was not claimed as an expense in the Profit & Loss Account.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
(i) Whether the customs authorities were legally justified in invoking and applying a customs circular and a notification issued in September/October 2011 to exports and drawback sanctions relating to the period July 2011 to September 2011.
(ii) Whether the revisional order sustaining recovery of drawback (with interest) was vitiated for misdirection in law due to application of prospective instruments to an earlier period, warranting judicial interference by certiorari.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue (i): Temporal applicability of the 2011 circular/notification to July-September 2011 exports
Legal framework (as discussed by the Court): The Court noted that the impugned decision proceeded under the customs revisionary mechanism and specifically relied upon a circular dated 22.09.2011 and a notification dated 28.10.2011 while examining drawback entitlement/recovery for exports made earlier.
Interpretation and reasoning: On a plain reading of dates and operative periods, the Court held that the circular and notification, having been issued in September and October 2011, were "evidently prospective in nature, application and operation." The Court concluded that they could not govern exports and drawback sanctions pertaining to July 2011 to September 2011, which were "earlier in point of time and prior to the issuance" of those instruments. Applying them to the petitioner's exports was treated as a fundamental legal misdirection.
Conclusion: The Court conclusively determined that the authorities erred in invoking and applying the said circular and notification to the petitioner's exports and drawback sanctions for July 2011 to September 2011, since those instruments were prospective and not retrospective.
Issue (ii): Validity of the revisional order sustaining drawback recovery and entitlement to certiorari
Legal framework (as discussed by the Court): The Court examined the revisional order passed by the Central Government authority under the Customs Act's revision provision, as challenged through writ jurisdiction seeking certiorari.
Interpretation and reasoning: Because the revisional authority's decision was founded on the impermissible application of prospective instruments to an earlier export period, the Court held that the revisional order could not stand. The Court found that the authority had "completely misdirected" itself on the governing legal basis for recovery, which rendered the impugned revisional order unsustainable.
Conclusion: The Court allowed the writ petition and quashed the revisional order in its entirety, holding that it deserved to be set aside due to the erroneous reliance on instruments not applicable to the relevant period.
Seeking recovery of excess drawback granted in favour of the petitioner - application of Custom Circular No.42/2011 dated 22.09.2011 and the notification bearing No. 75/2011-Cus. (N.T.) dated 28.10.2011 - HELD THAT:- A perusal of the impugned orders will indicate that the respondents have proceeded to invoke and apply the Custom Circular No.42/2011 dated 22.09.2011 and the notification bearing No. 75/2011-Cus. (N.T.) dated 28.10.2011. A perusal of the said circular will indicate that the same having been issued in September and October 2011, the said notification and circular are evidently prospective in nature, application and operation and would not apply to the goods exported by the petitioner for the period from July 2011 to September 2011 which were earlier in point of time and prior to the issuance of the aforesaid circular and notification. It is, therefore, clear that the authorities have completely misdirected themselves in applying and invoking the aforesaid circular and notification, which do not apply to the subject goods exported by the petitioner or the drawback sanctioned in favour of the petitioner for the period from July 2011 to September 2011, much prior to the issuance of the aforesaid circular and notification, which are prospective and not retrospective in nature, application or operation.
The CESTAT, South Zonal Bench, Chennai, in the case of COMMR. of C. EX., TIRUCHIRAPPALLI v. KARUR KCP PACKAGINGS Pvt. Ltd. [2015 (8) TMI 1233 - CESTAT CHENNAI]held that 'The Board has issued the above clarification for the purpose of All Industry Rates of Duty Drawback and categorically clarified that classification of the product FIBC under Drawback Tariff Item 6305. It is pertinent to state that both the Drawback Schedule and ITC Code issued by DGFT and CETH are aligned with HSN, the classification issued by the Board assumes vital importance and Revenue cannot change the classification under Central Excise Tariff Chapter 3923.'
The impugned order passed by the respondent No. 2/ Revisional Authority deserves to be quashed - Petition allowed.
Issues: Whether the revocation of customs broker licence and imposition of penalty under the Customs Broker Licensing Regulations, 2018 could be sustained when the broker consistently denied any connection with the impugned exports, the notice was dispatched to an incorrect address, and the record lacked verifiable foundational material linking the broker to the exporters.
Analysis: The allegations rested on sketchy and unverified material concerning excess RoSL disbursement and alleged non-response to communications addressed to an incorrect location. The broker had repeatedly denied handling the exports or acting for the exporters, and the shipping bills and other foundational documents necessary for effective rebuttal were not made available. In these circumstances, the licensing authority was required to ascertain whether the address and the export transactions were in fact connected to the appellant before fastening regulatory breaches. The absence of reliable foundational facts rendered the conclusions on breach unsustainable.
Conclusion: The revocation of licence and penalty could not be sustained and the appeal was allowed in favour of the assessee.
Revocation of Customs Broker License - imposition of penalty - Fastening of every punitive measure available in Customs Broker Licensing Regulations (CBLR), 2018 on conclusion of proceedings initiated - alleged breach of regulations 10 (d), 10 (e), 10 (n) and 10 (q) of CBLR - unrecovered excess disbursement under the Rebate of State Levies (RoSL) - non-application of mind - violation of principles of natural justice - HELD THAT:- The appellant herein had drawn attention of both the licensing authority as well as the enquiry authority to their apparent lack of any connection with the impugned exports. It was also pointed out by them that, even with the impugned shipping bills bearing ‘code’ assigned to them, the exporters were not clients of theirs and neither were the exports handled by them. Admittedly, the address to which the notice of anomalies was dispatched did not connect with them. Neither were the shipping bills made available for the appellant herein to make effective rebuttal by recourse to facts contained therein. Learned Counsel has properly pointed out that, while summary of dues pertaining to M/s Himratan Export was accompanied only by schedule of shipping bills, the summary pertaining to the other was devoid even of that let alone the actual shipping bills with both or either.
The Tribunal is unable to appreciate the manner in which the licensing authority concluded, in the face of denial by the appellant, that the sketchy facts available on record sufficed to uphold the charge of having breached several of the obligations in the Regulations governing operation as customs broker. Moreover, in the light of clear rebuttal of the address to which enquiry about recovery of excess had been dispatched as being theirs, it behoved the licensing authority to ascertain connection of the impugned address with a custom broker other than the appellant therein - In the light of denial of any connection with the exporters, it behoved the licensing authority to verify the foundational documents connecting the appellant with the exporters. In circumstances of shakiness of the foundations on which the charges were directed against the appellant herein, the findings are totally devoid of reason and merit.
Without going into any other aspect of the enquiry as well as the reasons furnished for revocation of the custom broker license and imposition of penalty, the threshold insufficiency of verifiable facts in the allegations demands that the impugned order be not allowed to sustain.
Appeal allowed.
Issues: (i) Whether the Vehicle Control Unit or Powertrain Control Unit was classifiable under headings 8537, 8543 or 9032 of the First Schedule to the Customs Tariff Act, 1975. (ii) Whether the same goods, when intended for use in three-wheeled and four-wheeled electric vehicles, were classifiable under heading 8708. (iii) Whether the same goods, when intended for use in two-wheeled electric vehicles, were classifiable under heading 8714.
Issue (i): Whether the Vehicle Control Unit or Powertrain Control Unit was classifiable under headings 8537, 8543 or 9032 of the First Schedule to the Customs Tariff Act, 1975.
Analysis: Heading 8537 applies to boards and panels equipped with two or more apparatus of headings 8535 or 8536 for electric control or distribution of electricity. The unit in question functioned as an integrated control module in an electric vehicle and did not answer that description. Heading 8543 requires an electrical machine or apparatus having an individual function, not specified elsewhere. The unit was found to be a vehicle component operating within a larger system rather than a standalone apparatus with an individual function. Heading 9032 applies only to automatic regulating or controlling instruments and apparatus within Note 7 to Chapter 90. The unit neither measured and regulated a variable in the manner required by that note nor operated as an independent automatic regulator. The claim to classification under these headings was therefore rejected.
Conclusion: Classification under headings 8537, 8543 and 9032 was not accepted.
Issue (ii): Whether the same goods, when intended for use in three-wheeled and four-wheeled electric vehicles, were classifiable under heading 8708.
Analysis: Section Note 2 of Section XVII excludes articles of Chapters 85 and 90 from the expression "parts and accessories", but the unit was found not to fall under Chapters 85 or 90. Applying Rule 1, Section XVII and the explanatory notes, the unit was treated as a part specially designed for principal use in electric motor vehicles. For three-wheeled and four-wheeled electric vehicles, the relevant vehicle headings were treated as falling within Chapter 87, and the residual entry under heading 8708 was held to govern the goods.
Conclusion: The goods intended for use in three-wheeled and four-wheeled electric vehicles were held classifiable under heading 8708, more specifically under tariff item 87089900.
Issue (iii): Whether the same goods, when intended for use in two-wheeled electric vehicles, were classifiable under heading 8714.
Analysis: Two-wheeled electric vehicles were treated as vehicles covered by heading 8711, and parts and accessories of such vehicles fall under heading 8714. As the unit was found to be a vehicle-specific part and not excluded by Section Note 2 of Section XVII, it was held to merit classification under the residual parts entry for motorcycles.
Conclusion: The goods intended for use in two-wheeled electric vehicles were held classifiable under heading 8714, more specifically under tariff item 87141090.
Final Conclusion: The requested classifications under headings 8537, 8543 and 9032 were declined, and the goods were instead classified as parts of motor vehicles under heading 8708 for three-wheeled and four-wheeled electric vehicles and under heading 8714 for two-wheeled electric vehicles.
Ratio Decidendi: For tariff classification of vehicle control units, the decisive test is the statutory heading read with the relevant section and chapter notes and explanatory notes, and a device integrated into a vehicle's control system is not classifiable as an independent regulator or as a Chapter 85 apparatus merely because it processes electrical signals.
Classification as parts and accessories of motor vehicles (Chapter 87) - exclusion by Note 2 to Section XVII (electrical machinery and Chapter 90 articles) - automatic regulating or controlling instruments (Note 7(a) and 7(b) to Chapter 90) - apparatus for electric control or distribution of electricity (Heading 8537) - electrical machines and apparatus having individual functions (Heading 8543) - General Interpretative Rules (GIR) - application of GIR 1 and GIR 3(c) - end-use as a relevant but not decisive factor in classification
Classification as parts and accessories of motor vehicles (Chapter 87) - exclusion by Note 2 to Section XVII (electrical machinery and Chapter 90 articles) - General Interpretative Rules (GIR) - application of GIR 1 - VCU/PCU intended for use in threewheeled and fourwheeled electric vehicles are classifiable as parts of motor vehicles under CTH 8708, more specifically under CTI 87089900 (Other). - HELD THAT: - The Authority analysed the Chapter and Section Notes and the HSN Explanatory Notes to Section XVII and Heading 8708. The VCU/PCU is not listed among the exclusions in Note 2 to Section XVII and, on the applicant's material, is suitable for use solely or principally with the specified motor vehicles, and is not specifically provided for elsewhere in the Nomenclature. The explanatory notes to Heading 8708 are illustrative, and absence of a specific subheading does not preclude classification under the residual entry. Applying Rule 1 of GIR and the three cumulative conditions in the explanatory notes to Section XVII, the VCU/PCU for three and fourwheeled electric vehicles meets the requirements to be classified as parts of motor vehicles and therefore falls under the residual subheading 87089900. [Paras 6, 8]
Classified under CTH 8708, specifically CTI 87089900.
Classification as parts and accessories of vehicles of Heading 8711 (Chapter 87) - three cumulative conditions for parts in Section XVII - General Interpretative Rules (GIR) - application of GIR 1 - VCU/PCU intended for use in twowheeled electric vehicles are classifiable as parts of those vehicles under CTH 8714, more specifically under CTI 87141090 (Other). - HELD THAT: - Twowheeled electric vehicles fall under Heading 8711 and parts/accessories of those vehicles are provided for in Heading 8714. The VCU/PCU is not excluded by the Section XVII exclusions, is suitable for use solely or principally with the twowheeled electric vehicles, and is not specifically included elsewhere in the Nomenclature. Accordingly, by application of GIR 1 together with the Section and Chapter Explanatory Notes, the VCU/PCU intended for twowheeled electric vehicles is classifiable under CTI 87141090. [Paras 6, 8]
Classified under CTH 8714, specifically CTI 87141090.
Automatic regulating or controlling instruments (Note 7(b) to Chapter 90) - requirement of measuring device, control device and operating device - VCU/PCU does not meet the definition of an automatic regulating or controlling instrument under CTH 9032 (Note 7(a)/(b)) and therefore cannot be classified under Heading 9032. - HELD THAT: - Note 7 to Chapter 90 restricts Heading 9032 to instruments that either (a) automatically control variables of liquids/gases/temperature, or (b) are automatic regulators that bring a nonelectrical quantity to and maintain it at a desired value by constantly/periodically measuring and correcting it, consisting essentially of a measuring device, a control device and a starting/stopping/operating device. Although the VCU/PCU monitors torque (a nonelectrical parameter) and adjusts torque requests based on electrical signals, the Authority found that the VCU/PCU is a component designed for use within a vehicle drive system and does not itself incorporate the requisite independent measuring, comparison and actuation devices as a selfcontained automatic regulator. Consequently, it does not satisfy Note 7(b)'s requirements and is not classifiable under Heading 9032. [Paras 6]
Not classifiable under CTH 9032.
Apparatus for electric control or distribution of electricity (Heading 8537) - parts of Heading 8537 classified under Heading 85.38 - VCU/PCU is not classifiable under Heading 8537. - HELD THAT: - Heading 8537 covers boards, panels, consoles, etc., equipped with two or more apparatus of headings 8535/8536 for electric control or distribution of electricity, typically assemblies used to distribute or control electrical power. The Authority concluded the VCU/PCU is a populated printed circuit board with software functioning as part of a vehicle's control system rather than a standalone apparatus for control/distribution of electricity; parts of goods of Heading 8537 are to be classified under Heading 85.38. Reliance on foreign rulings was noted but not accepted as binding. Therefore the VCU/PCU does not fall within Heading 8537. [Paras 6]
Not classifiable under CTH 8537.
Electrical machines and apparatus having individual functions (Heading 8543) - distinction between individual machines and parts of machinery - VCU/PCU is not classifiable under Heading 8543. - HELD THAT: - Heading 8543 covers electrical machines and apparatus having individual functions and not falling elsewhere. The Explanatory Notes distinguish such independent machines from parts of machinery. The Authority found that the VCU/PCU operates as a component within the vehicle (part of the drive system) rather than as an independent machine with an individual function; accordingly it is excluded from Heading 8543 as a part classified under the general provisions concerning parts. [Paras 6]
Not classifiable under CTH 8543.
Final Conclusion: Advance ruling: VCU/PCU intended for threewheeled and fourwheeled electric vehicles is classified under CTH 8708 (CTI 87089900); VCU/PCU intended for twowheeled electric vehicles is classified under CTH 8714 (CTI 87141090). Classification under Headings 8537, 8543 and 9032 is rejected.
Issues: (i) Whether pendency of an onetime settlement proposal and the fact that it had only conditional approval from one consortium lender could prevent admission of a petition under section 7 of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016; (ii) Whether repeated onetime settlement proposals and related communications extended limitation for the section 7 application; (iii) Whether a single financial creditor from a consortium could independently invoke section 7 without consent of the other consortium members.
Issue (i): Whether pendency of an onetime settlement proposal and the fact that it had only conditional approval from one consortium lender could prevent admission of a petition under section 7 of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016.
Analysis: The existence of financial debt and default was not disputed. The settlement proposals were repeatedly considered in joint lenders meetings, but the record showed that they were never finally approved by the consortium as a whole. The approval given by one lender was expressly conditional upon approval by the remaining lenders, particularly the lead bank, and therefore could not amount to acceptance of the settlement. A pending or conditional settlement proposal does not suspend the statutory remedy under section 7 where default is established.
Conclusion: The pendency of the settlement proposal did not bar initiation or continuation of the insolvency process, and the challenge on this ground failed.
Issue (ii): Whether repeated onetime settlement proposals and related communications extended limitation for the section 7 application.
Analysis: The corporate debtor had repeatedly submitted settlement and restructuring proposals over several years. These proposals amounted to acknowledgments of liability in writing. The renewed working capital arrangement and subsequent settlement communications were treated as extending the limitation period. On that basis, the application was held to be within time.
Conclusion: The section 7 application was held to be within limitation.
Issue (iii): Whether a single financial creditor from a consortium could independently invoke section 7 without consent of the other consortium members.
Analysis: Section 7 permits a financial creditor to initiate the corporate insolvency resolution process either singly or jointly. The inter se consortium arrangements were only for internal regulation among lenders and did not curtail the statutory right of an individual financial creditor. Since debt and default were admitted, the absence of consent from other consortium lenders was not a ground to reject the petition.
Conclusion: A single consortium lender was competent to file the section 7 application on its own.
Final Conclusion: The appeal was found to lack merit because the debt and default were admitted, the settlement proposal did not amount to approval, limitation stood extended by acknowledgments, and the statutory right of an individual financial creditor remained unaffected by internal consortium arrangements.
Ratio Decidendi: A conditional or pending settlement proposal does not bar a financial creditor from invoking section 7 of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 where debt and default are admitted, and repeated written settlement proposals can extend limitation by acknowledgment of liability; internal consortium arrangements do not override this statutory right.
Initiation of CIRP against CD - no corrective measures implemented by the consortium of banks - shared restructuring proposal was not considered by the consortium - whether in the guise of pending OTS, the proceeding of CIRP may be kept in abeyance for a long time? - HELD THAT:- The OTS offer/proposal of the appellant was discussed many times in the JLM meetings and once upon a time the said OTS proposal was also send for approval of the higher authorities of the banks, however the same was never approved by the Consortium of Banks as a whole, may be because the account at some point of time was labelled as Fraud. Respondent No.1, Canara Bank appears to have approved the OTS proposal subject to its approval by other members of the consortium especially the Lead member of the Consortium i.e. PNB. In nutshell it appears to be an admitted situation that the OTS proposal of the appellant was never approved, at any point of time, by all members of consortium of banks and the approval of the Respondent No.1, Canara Bank was also conditional as the same was dependent on the approval by other members of the consortium specially the lead bank, Punjab National Bank - the proposal floated by the appellant was never approved by the higher authorities of the other member banks of consortium and was rejected subsequently by the Respondent No.1 Canara Bank also.
The claim of the appellant that he had deposited about 20% of the OTS amount is also of no consequence as the OTS once approved by the Respondent No. 1 was conditional i.e. subject to the approval of other member of the consortium and no other member has approved the same, thus pendency of OTS could not be termed or deemed as its approval. Admittedly the first restructuring proposal was submitted in 2017, thus the financial creditor cannot wait for ever to exercise his statutory right only on the score that the OTS proposal of appellant has been forwarded to the higher authorities of some members of consortium.
A coordinate Bench of this Appellate Tribunal in Apresh Garg vs. Indian Bank and Ors. [2025 (6) TMI 605 - NATIONAL COMPANY LAW APPELLATE TRIBUNAL, PRINCIPAL BENCH, NEW DELHI], in similar facts where the loan was given by many banks and a consortium was formed and a OTS proposal was also pending, which was rejected subsequently, this Tribunal held that this is a case where the fact that CD has failed to discharge its debt liability is not even disputed and the default in payment is also not disputed, it was opined that there are sufficient materials to indicate that debt and default is an admitted fact, the NARCL, who was assigned the entire debt by all the Consortium Members, including the Indian Bank, having not accepted the settlement proposal submitted by the Appellant, it was decided that in these circumstances the resolution of the CD has to take place in accordance with the IBC.
The statutory right of a Financial Creditor bestowed under Section 7 of the ‘IBC’ cannot be curtailed or made subservient to any ‘Inter-Creditor Agreement’ or Consortium agreement executed between the lender banks, as the same was only for regulating the inter se affairs of the consortium and the OTS proposal cannot be claimed by a borrower as a matter of right. Thus the ‘Petition/Application moved under Section 7 of the IBC, 2016 must be decided within the purview of Section 7 of the Code and the same is to be considered by the Adjudicating Authority, on its own merits, taking into consideration the facts of the particular case and the Law established, in this regard. However, there is no much discretion available to the Adjudicating authority, if all the requirement as mentioned under section 7 of the IBC are satisfied by a Creditor Applicant.
A joint application by many financial creditors under Section 7 of the IBC is required to be filed with the consent of those who have joined therein as petitioners. In the case in hand the application has been filed by Financial Creditor Respondent No.1, Canara Bank alone, on its own, without approval or consent of other members of the consortium and in our considered opinion there was absolutely no need to take the consent or permission from other creditors (Members of Consortium) to file any such application. Therefore, keeping in view all the facts of circumstances of the case and the legal position enumerated herein before, there are no illegality found in the impugned order passed by the Adjudicating Authority.
Resultantly the appeal is lacking force and is dismissed. The impugned order passed by the adjudicating authority is hereby affirmed.
Issues: (i) Whether the petitioner was entitled to the benefit of the Sabka Vishwas (Legacy Dispute Resolution) Scheme, 2019 when the service tax liability had been admitted and quantified before the cut-off date, notwithstanding pendency of investigation and the objection that the declaration was filed belatedly; (ii) whether the plea of res judicata barred the present petition.
Issue (i): Whether the petitioner was entitled to the benefit of the Sabka Vishwas (Legacy Dispute Resolution) Scheme, 2019 when the service tax liability had been admitted and quantified before the cut-off date, notwithstanding pendency of investigation and the objection that the declaration was filed belatedly.
Analysis: The admitted material showed that the petitioner's managing director had acknowledged the service tax liability and quantified it before 30.06.2019. The governing scheme and the departmental clarification treated an enquiry, investigation, or audit as not disqualifying a declarant where the duty demand had been quantified on or before the cut-off date. Quantification included written communication of duty liability admitted during investigation. The rejection on the ground that investigation was pending or that the return was filed belatedly ignored the scheme's text and the clarification. The court also held that the difference between the amount admitted and the amount mentioned in the declaration did not defeat eligibility where the admitted liability exceeded the amount eligible for relief under the scheme.
Conclusion: The petitioner was entitled to the scheme benefit and the rejection of the declaration could not be sustained.
Issue (ii): Whether the plea of res judicata barred the present petition.
Analysis: The earlier proceeding had been confined to an earlier rejection order and had not finally determined the issue arising from the later order in original. Since there was no final adjudication on the present controversy in the earlier round, the essential requirement for res judicata was absent.
Conclusion: The plea of res judicata was rejected and did not bar the petition.
Final Conclusion: The rejection of the petitioner's claim under the scheme was unsustainable, and the petitioner was held entitled to have the claim reconsidered in accordance with the scheme and the clarificatory circulars, with consequential issuance of the form necessary to proceed further.
Ratio Decidendi: Under the Sabka Vishwas framework, admission and quantification of liability before the cut-off date constitutes valid quantification for eligibility, and pendency of enquiry or investigation by itself does not defeat entitlement where the scheme and clarification so provide.
Rejection of SVLDRS Form-1 submitted by the petitioner - petitioner had quantified its liability to pay service tax on 11.01.2019, much prior to cut off date 30.06.2019 in terms of the SVLDRS Scheme - HELD THAT:- Under identical circumstances in relation to admissions and quantification of service tax liability made by a person prior to the cut off date, this Court in the case of Nikitha Buildtech Pvt. Ltd., vs. Union of India [2022 (11) TMI 1148 - KARNATAKA HIGH COURT]held that 'Contention of the respondents that the petitioner would not be entitled to the benefit of the Scheme in view of discrepancy between the admitted/quantified amount and the amount shown in Form SVLDRS-1 cannot be accepted.'
In the instant case, in the statement given before the respondents, the Managing Director of the petitioner had not only admitted but also quantified the service tax payable and consequently, the respondents clearly fell in error in coming to the conclusion that the petitioner was not eligible as the return was filed belatedly during investigation without appreciating that so long as the quantification was done prior to the cut off date, the petitioner would be entitled to claim the benefit under the said scheme.
The impugned letter / endorsement issued by the respondents is hereby quashed - The respondents are directed to issue SVLDRS Form-II to the petitioner, who would be thereafter entitled to invoke SVLDRS Form 2A and proceed further in accordance with law - petition allowed.
Issues: Whether the petitioner's pre-deposit of Rs. 10 lakhs had to be taken into account while determining the amount payable under the Sabka Vishwas (Legacy Dispute Resolution) Scheme, 2019 and whether the consequent Form SVLDRS-3 required interference and issuance of a fresh form leading to discharge certificate.
Analysis: The petitioner had made the mandatory pre-deposit of Rs. 10 lakhs before the appellate tribunal and had disclosed that amount in Form SVLDRS-1. The record showed that the respondents issued Form SVLDRS-2 without accounting for that pre-deposit, which led to the petitioner inadvertently uploading Form SVLDRS-2A. In these circumstances, the omission to reckon the pre-deposit was held to be an error that affected the computation under the scheme, and the subsequent Form SVLDRS-3 could not stand.
Conclusion: The omission to consider the pre-deposit was held to be unsustainable, and the petitioner was entitled to a fresh Form SVLDRS-3 after giving credit for the Rs. 10 lakhs pre-deposit, followed by issuance of Form SVLDRS-4 in accordance with law.
Final Conclusion: The writ petition succeeded, and the scheme benefits were directed to be worked out by giving effect to the petitioner's pre-deposit.
Ratio Decidendi: Where a pre-deposit has been made and disclosed for purposes of settlement under the scheme, it must be given due credit in computing the payable amount, and an erroneous form issued without such credit can be corrected by judicial direction.
Legality of quashing of Form SVLDRS-2 dt.30.1.2020 in Annexure N-2, Form SVLDRS- 2A dt.25.2.2020 in Annexure N-3 and Form SVLDRS-3 dt.29.2.2020 in Annexure N-4 issued by Respondent No. 1 - seeking direction to consider the pre-deposit amount of Rs. 10 lakh paid by the Petitioner and to issue revised Form SVLDRS-3 in lieu of Form SVLDRS-3 issued on 29.2.2020 in Annexure N-4 - direction to issue discharge certificate in Form SVLDRS-4 and to reckon the amount payable as zero after considering the pre-deposit - HELD THAT:- A perusal of the material on record will indicate that the petitioner had made the mandatory pre-deposit of Rs. 10 lakhs before the CESTAT, Bangalore in the aforesaid appeal which is pending even as on today. In addition thereto, in his application in Form SVLDRS-1, the petitioner had clearly indicated that he had made the pre-deposit of Rs. 10 lakhs and if the petitioner was granted benefit under the SVLDRS Scheme, the tax dues payable by the petitioner would be 'NIL' or '0' as can be seen from the aforesaid Form SVLDRS-1 submitted by the petitioner.
However, despite the petitioner submitting Form SVLDRS-1 indicating not only the pre-deposit made by him but also that no amount was due by him to the respondents upon acceptance of Form SVLDRS-1, the respondents issued Form SVLDRS-2 without taking into account the pre-deposit made by the petitioner and indicated in Form SVLDRS-1, as a result of which, the petitioner had inadvertently and due to the oversight submitted Form SVLDRS-2A and consequently, From SVLDRS-3 dated 29.02.2020 deserves to be quashed and the respondents are directed to be issued fresh Form SVLDRS-3 by taking into account Rs. 10 lakhs pre-deposit made by the petitioner and to proceed further and issue discharge certificate in Form SVLDRS-4 in accordance with law.
The impugned Annexure-N4 i.e., Form SVLDRS-3 issued by respondent No. 1 is hereby quashed - respondents are directed to issue fresh From SVLDRS-3 to the petitioner by taking into account Rs. 10 lakhs pre-deposit made by the petitioner and to proceed further and issue discharge certificate in Form SVLDRS-4 in favour of the petitioner within period of four weeks from the date of receipt of a copy of this order - Petition allowed.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
(i) Whether the amount reflected in the income-tax return as "sale of services" for the relevant financial year represented consideration for taxable services, or in substance represented receipts from sale of soil (i.e., sale of goods), and therefore was not exigible to service tax.
(ii) Whether the demand of service tax (and consequential interest and penalties) could be sustained when the assessee's audited financial statements evidenced purchases and sales of soil corresponding to the disputed receipts, indicating that the entry in the return was erroneous.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue (i): Characterisation of receipts-taxable service vs. sale of soil (sale of goods)
Legal framework (as discussed in the judgment): The impugned appellate order proceeded on the basis that amounts shown against "sale of services" were taxable as "service" under Section 65B(44) and taxable under Section 68, while the assessee claimed the activity was sale of goods (sale of soil). The Tribunal's determination turned on whether the receipts were in fact for sale of soil rather than for provision of services.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal examined the documentary record beyond the income-tax return entry. It noted that the revenue treated the "sale of services" figure in the return as the gross receipt for service tax computation. The Tribunal, however, found a key inconsistency: Form 26AS did not reflect receipts subjected to tax deduction at source towards provision of services. The Tribunal treated this as raising a fundamental question about the revenue's assumption that the receipts were for services.
Most decisively, the Tribunal relied on the audited balance sheet and profit and loss accounts for the relevant years, which showed the assessee was engaged in sale of soil, including significant expenditure on purchase of soil and corresponding receipts from sale of soil. For the relevant financial year, the financials recorded purchase of soil and receipts matching the disputed amount. The accounts were certified by a chartered accountant. On this material, the Tribunal concluded that the disputed receipts were towards sale of soil and not towards any services, and that the "sale of services" disclosure in the return was an erroneous entry that triggered the proceedings.
Conclusion: The Tribunal conclusively held that the receipt amount reflected in the financial records and return pertained to sale of soil (sale of goods) and not to provision of taxable services; accordingly, the foundational basis for service tax liability failed.
Issue (ii): Sustainability of demand, interest, and penalties once receipts held not to be for taxable services
Legal framework (as discussed in the judgment): The confirmed demand and reduced demand were imposed under Section 73, with interest under Section 75, and penalties under Sections 78 and 77. The Tribunal addressed whether the impugned order sustaining a reduced demand could stand in light of its finding on the nature of receipts.
Interpretation and reasoning: Having found that the receipts were not for services but for sale of soil, the Tribunal held that the impugned order lacked merit. Since the demand was premised on treating the receipts as taxable service income, and that premise was found incorrect based on audited financial records, the Tribunal found no basis to sustain any part of the service tax demand as re-quantified by the lower appellate authority.
Conclusion: The Tribunal set aside the impugned order and allowed the appeal, thereby negating the service tax demand as well as the connected consequences (interest and penalties) that rested on the existence of taxable service liability.
Recovery of service tax with interest and liability - receipt of consideration on account of sale of soil which is non-taxable in terms of Section 66D of the Act or not - if appellant was having their receipts to the tune of Rs.26 lakhs towards sale of services, why the same do not reflect in their form 26AS? - HELD THAT:- From perusal of the audited balance sheet and profit and loss account of the appellant, it is evident that appellant was engaged in the activity of sale of soil. In the profit and loss account for the year 2015-16 they had shown the gross receipt of Rs.12,56,060/- and they have purchased soil for the amount of Rs.10,67,540/-.
For the Financial Year 2016-17 from their profit and loss account it is evident that they incurred expenditure of Rs.22,91,740/- for the purchase of soil was and their receipts against the sale of soil was Rs.26,70,950/-. The balance sheet and profit and loss account of the appellant are duly certified by Chartered Accountant. On the basis of above, there are no hesitation in concluding that the receipt of Rs.26,70,950/- shown in the profit and loss account for the year 2016-17 and in ITR-3, are only towards the sale of soil and not towards of any services. It is only an erroneous entry made in the ITR-3 which has affected the entire proceedings.
The fact that these are towards the sale of service, it is also evident from various bills on sample basis that were produced before Commissioner (Appeals) also and by pointing certain lacunae Commissioner (Appeals) found it fit to reject them but the claim made by the appellant on the basis of bills is also supported by their financial records.
There are no merits in the impugned order - appeal allowed.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
(i) Whether the activity evidenced by the construction agreement constituted construction of a single residential unit (with material) and was therefore exempt from service tax under the relied-upon exemption notification.
(ii) Whether the demand could be sustained by invoking the extended period of limitation on allegations of suppression/misstatement with intent to evade, or whether the demand was time-barred due to a bona fide belief about non-taxability/exemption.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue (i): Exemption for construction of a single residential unit
Legal framework (as discussed by the Tribunal): The Tribunal considered the exemption claimed for construction of a "single unit residential house" under the cited exemption notification.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal examined the agreement placed on record and found that it evidenced execution on a stated date, on stamped paper, for construction of a house for a specified built-up area at a rate per square foot, and that the contract was for construction inclusive of material and allied works. On this reading, the Tribunal treated the agreement as sufficient to establish that the appellant had undertaken construction of a single residential unit and that the services fell within the claimed exempt category.
Conclusion: The Tribunal held that the services provided in respect of construction of a single house, as established by the agreement, were exempt from payment of service tax under the cited exemption notification.
Issue (ii): Invocation of extended limitation; suppression/misstatement; bona fide belief
Legal framework (as discussed by the Tribunal): The Tribunal addressed the Department's reliance on the extended period (premised on suppression/misstatement with intent to evade) and applied the principle that extended limitation is not invocable where conduct reflects bona fide belief regarding taxability/exemption.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal reasoned that, even assuming arguendo that the agreement was not admissible to grant exemption, the agreement at minimum demonstrated a bona fide belief regarding non-payment of service tax for the relevant activity. On that basis, the Tribunal concluded that the essential ingredients for invoking the extended period-suppression or misstatement with intent to evade-were not established. The Tribunal therefore found the demand unsustainable on limitation.
Conclusion: The Tribunal held that the demand was hit by limitation; the findings sustaining extended limitation could not stand. Consequently, the impugned order was set aside and the appeal was allowed.
Non-payment of service tax liability - demand based on data received from the Third Party information provided by the Income Tax Department - absence of proper documentary evidences/information /data - suppression of facts or not - extended period of limitation - HELD THAT:- On perusal of the agreement, it is evident that the said agreement has been executed on 06.06.2016 on stamp-paper of Rs.100/-. On perusal of this agreement it is evident that appellant had undertaking work of construction of a house for Shri Mahesh Yadav and the agreement is for undertaking construction alongwith the material @Rs.1300/- per sq. feet the total area is about 3400 sq. feet - the above agreement is enough to establish that appellant undertaken the work of construction of single unit for Shri Mahesh Yadav and the services provided in respect of construction of single house are exempt from payment of service tax under Notification No.25/2012-ST.
Even if the above is not admissible, this agreement definitely creates a bonafide belief for none payment of service tax in respect of these services provided in view of this bonafide belief as is executed with the appellant, the demand could not have been made by invoking extended period of limitation, as there cannot be any suppression, mis-statement with intend to evade payment of service tax.
Hon’ble Supreme Court in the case of Uniworth Textiles Ltd. [2013 (1) TMI 616 - SUPREME COURT] has held that 'on account of the fact that the burden of proof of proving mala fide conduct under the proviso to Section 28 of the Act lies with the Revenue; that in furtherance of the same, no specific averments find a mention in the show cause notice which is a mandatory requirement for commencement of action under the said proviso; and that nothing on record displays a willful default on the part of the appellant, we hold that the extended period of limitation under the said provision could not be invoked against the appellant.'
In Anand Nishikawa Co. Ltd. Vs CCE, Meerut [2005 (9) TMI 331 - SUPREME COURT] and Infinity Infotech Parks Ltd. Vs UOI [2014 (12) TMI 36 - CALCUTTA HIGH COURT] also it has been held that extended period of limitation could not have been invoked for making the demand when the person entertained a bonafide belief about non taxable nature or exempted nature of the services provided.
The demand is hit by limitation and the findings recorded in the impugned order in this regard cannot stand in the eyes of law. Impugned order is set aside - appeal allowed.
TaxTMI