ITC by a client was correctly availed. Supplier did not remit tax to the Govt. FY 2020-21. Said ITC was voluntarily reversed upon receipt of audit paras from department. Is the tax payer required to also remit Interest u/s.50(3).
Said Section 50 states "Where ITC has been wrongly availed and utilised .........". In our case ITC not wrongly availed.
Request view of experts. Also, case law references would be gratefully acknowledged. Thanks
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