1.
Being fairly regular trade-practice, I have not understood any need to issue such single invoice - both from point of joint-owners of the property and the tenant.
Anyway, for query raised, my views are as follows:
Both owners are separate service-providers and are required to issue their own individual / separate invoices. And, on plain reading of relevant provisions, there is no option under law / rules where two registered suppliers issue single gst-invoice in given situation.
(As generally been the case, it is assumed that there is no 'Association of Person' (i.e. AOP) which got formed in this joint-ownership arrangement of property. And, this AOP argument will have its own set of challenges, risky and same needs to be avoided to the extent possible)
These are ex facie views of mine and the same should not be construed as professional advice / suggestion.